genitourinary Flashcards

1
Q

loss of urine associated with activities that increase intraabdominal pressure

A

stress incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Involuntary loss of urine usually preceded by a strong, unexpected urge to void

A

Urge incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Urge and stress incontinence together

A

mixed incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

an involuntary loss of urine associated with incomplete emptying

A

overflow incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

function of bladder volume

A

Overactive bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

effects urine flow in men

A

prostate, or BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hypermobility of the bladder neck bladder is competent at rest, increase in abdominal pressure leads to increased closure pressure

A

anatomic stress urinary incontinence-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Open bladder neck at rest, mild increase in intra abdominal pressure can result in leakage

A

Intrinsic sphincter deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

instability of the detrusor muscle during bladder filling due to idiopathic or neurogenic causes. Causes the bladder neck to open and incontinence to occur

A

detrusor overactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

incontinence related to spinal cord injuries below t11 or l1, may be caused by MS, SM or spina bifida

A

neurogenic bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Resnick’s DIAPPERS mnemonic

A
Delirium or confused state
Infection- urinary
Atrophic urethritis, vaginitis
Pharmaceuticals
Psychological, especially severe depression
Excess urinary output (CHF, hyperglycemia)
Restricted mobility
Stool impaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

systems involved in physical examination for incontinence

A

Abdominal, genitourinary, pelvic, and rectal components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of stress incontinence

Behavioral therapies include…

A

Behavioral therapies: timed or double voiding, smoking cessation, weight loss, pelvic muscle exercises pessary, bowel management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of stress incontinence

Medical therapies include…

A

Alpha-adrenergic agonists: methoxamine, phenylephrine, oxymetazoline, tetrahydrozoline, xylometazoline
Tricyclic antidepressants: Remeron (mirtazipine),
estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do alpha-adrenergic agonists do

A

bind a alpha receptors on vascular smooth muscle and induce smooth contraction and vasoconstriction. Mimics sympathetic adrenergic nerve activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do tetracyclic antidepressants work

A

act by inhibiting reuptake of neurotransmitters serotonin and or noradrenaline in the brain thus elevating mood. Used less due to side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

managing stress incontinence

Surgical therapies include:

A

Bladder neck suspensions, slings, artificial sphincters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Urge incontinence

behavioral therapie…

A

bladder training, schedule voiding, minimize bladder irritants, suppression of urge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Urge incontinence

Medical management:

A

anticholinergic- antimuscarinics, vaginal estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do anticholinergics work

A

blocking acetylcholine prevents impulses from the parasympathetic nervous system from reaching smooth muscle and causing contractions, cramps or spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

anticholinergic medications

A

dicyclomine, chlordiazepoxide, atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate

22
Q

how do antimuscarinic medications work

A

inhibiti the functions of parasympathetic nervous system : atropine scopolamine

23
Q

urge incontinence management

surgical therapies

A

neurosacral modulation, bladder augmentation, botox injections

24
Q

Health promotion to reduce incontinence

A

Weight management, tobacco cessation, exercise. food and fluid adjustments

25
second most common malignant neoplasm in men
Prostate Cancer
26
Most common type of prostate cancer
Adenocarcinoma located in the posterior peripheral zone of the prostate
27
important predictor of prognosis
Histologic grading
28
most common sites of prostate cancer metastasis
lymph node and bone
29
presenting sx of prostate Cancer
urinary hesitancy, urgency, nocturia, frequency and hematuria, asymptomatic in early stages of disease. Sx increase in intensity during a 1-2 month period as opposed to slow increase in BPH
30
abnormal digital rectal exam, but negative PSA
refer to urology for evaluation
31
most sensitive and specific screening method for prostate cancer
DRE combined with PSA
32
what is a PSA
enzyme secreted by the prostate gland
33
medication that can increase PSA
finasteride, dutasteride
34
PSA value in early prostate cancer
4-10ng/ml
35
PSA value that is suggestive of prostate cancer
10ng/ml or more
36
scans to detect metastasis of prostate cancer
radionuclide bone scan- bone metastasis | CT scan of abdomen and pelvis- lymphnodes, if postive ct of chest may be indicated to rule out lung involvment
37
Prostate cancer labs
PSA, CBC w/differential
38
Prostate cancer other diagnostics
Needle biopsy, pelvic ct scan, pelvic MRI, bone scan
39
Differential dx prostate cancer
Bone pain, hematospermia, macroscopic hematuria, renal failure, sx of advanced prostate cancer
40
sx of possible spinal cord compression
acute neurologic symptoms such as weakness, numbness, urinary retention, urinary incontinence or fecal incontinence.
41
American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) TNM | TNM stands for
Extent of primary tumor (T category) Whether the cancer has spread to nearby lymph nodes (N category) Absence or presence of distant metastases (M category)
42
Categories with most treatment options
T1 and T2
43
T1 and T2 treatment options
active surveillance, radiation therapy, and Surgery
44
TX for | Prostate cancer T3 level, without metastatic spread
may be offered radiation therpay , hormonal therapy, or combination, as well as surgery
45
treatment for histological grade 2 very high-risk
radical prostatectomy, radiation therapy with or without hormonal therapy or androgen deprivation therapy
46
Hormone treatments for prostate cancer
oral estrogens, orchiectomy, luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH), agonists, antiandrogens, and pregestational agents. act by initially stimulating pituitary gonadotropin production and later inhibiting it.
47
PSA level after a radical prostatectomy
should fall to 0.2ng/ml
48
prostate radiation therapy PSA levels
PSA levels should fall and continue to decrease for 12 months after completion of therapy
49
complications of prostate cancer
metastatic disease
50
risks of prostate surgery
hemorrhage, injury to the obturator nerve, ureter, or rectum. Incontinence and impotence are also potential complications