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Path E3 > Genito > Flashcards

Genito Flashcards

1
Q

Hypospadias

A

Opening along the ventral aspect of the penis

Can be constrictive restuling in increased UT infection

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2
Q

Epispadias

A

Less common opening along the dorsal aspect of the penis

UT obstruction
Urinary incontinence

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3
Q

Penile Squamous cell carcinoma

A

.4% of male cancers

Uncircumcised men over age 40
Associated with HPV 16/18 infection
Often preced by premalignant lesion, red/white plaque

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4
Q

Bowen Disease

A

Carcinoma in situ

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5
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma is rare n male when

A

Circumcised early in life

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6
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma (penile) can metastise to

A

Inguinal lymph nodes

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7
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

Incomplete descent of the testis from the abdomen of the scrotum

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8
Q

Crytporchidism may lead to

A

Sterility

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9
Q

Cryptorchidism can lead to a ________ increased risk of testicular cancer

A

3-5 fold

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10
Q

Cytprochidism ______ develops within the _____tubules

A

Intratubular germ cell neoplasia

Atrophic tubules

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11
Q

Orchiepexy

A

Reduces risk of sterility and cancer

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12
Q

2 common inflammatory lesions of the testis

A

Epididymitits

Orchitis (testis proper)

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13
Q

Inflammatory lesions of the testes often associated with ______ or a complication from ______

A

STD

UTI

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14
Q

Torsion

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord

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15
Q

Torsion can lead to obstruction of

A

Venous drainage resulting in rapid intense vascular engorgement

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16
Q

Bell clapper deformity

A

Tunica vaginalis forms bell shape over testis

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17
Q

Testicular neoplasms peak incidence

A

15-34

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18
Q

Most common cause of painless testicular enlargement

A

Testicular neoplasms

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19
Q

95% of testicular neoplasm arise from

A

Germ cells; malignant

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20
Q

5% of testicular neoplasm arise from

A

Arise from sertoli or Leydic cells; generally benign

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21
Q

Germ cell tumors are divided into 2 groups

A

Seminomas

Nonseminomatous

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22
Q

Seminomas arise from

A

Epithelium of the seminiferous tubules

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23
Q

Non-seminomatous tumors

A

Several types tend to spread early via lymphatic and BV

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24
Q

Non-seminomatous tumor markers

A

AFP (a-fetoprotein)

HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

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25
Q

Prostatitis

A

Prostate enlarged and tender

Minority cases associated with UTI

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26
Q

Nodular Hyperplasia of the prostate generally affects the

A

Inner perimeter all zone of the prostate and compresses the prosaic urethra

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27
Q

Nodular hyperplasia of the prostate ______ and ______ proliferation results in. Enlargement +/- urinary obstruction

A

Stromal

Glandular

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28
Q

Nodular hyperplasia is extremely common and presents as

A

Hesitancy
Urgency
Nocturnal
Poor urinary stream

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29
Q

Nodular hyperplasia Treatment

A

Medical management -drugs

Surgical management -TURP

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30
Q

TURP

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate

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31
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the prostate

A

Most common cancer of men over 50

Metastasis possible

Low death rate

32
Q

Carcinoma of the prostate most commonly arise in

A

The outer glands of the prostate; palatable by digital rectal exam

33
Q

Elevated serum _______ useful in diagnosis/management of carcinoma of prostate

A

Prostate specific antigen PSA

However, elevated serum levels can be due to non-neoplasticism conditions

34
Q

Bladder cancer majority are

A

Urothelial carcinoma

Most common in men

Painless hematuria

35
Q

Bladder cancer tumor cells ____ to be detected

A

She’d into urine to be detect via cytology

36
Q

Risk factors for bladder cancer

A

Cigarette smoking
Chronic cystitis
Infection with schistomasisois
Exposure to various caringogens

37
Q

Urothelial carcinoma

A

Transurethral resection

Immunotherapy radical cystectomy

38
Q

Urothelial prognosis

A

Dependent on tumor grade and stage

39
Q

Most common STI

A

Genital herpes

Genital HPV infection

40
Q

Syphilis caused by

A

Chronic infection of treponema pallidum

41
Q

Syphilis transmission

A

By direct contact with cutaneous or mucosal lesion during early stages; highly infectious

42
Q

Primary syphilis ——> Secondary—>tertiary

A

Chancre

Palmar rash
Lymphadenopathy
Condyloma latum

Neuro
Aortitis
Gummas

43
Q

Primary Syphilis

A

Painless ulcer - chancre develops at site of inoculation 9-90 days after initial infection

44
Q

Primarily syphilis resolves

A

Spontaneous in 4-6 weeks

25% develop secondary disease

45
Q

Secondary Syphilis

A

Occurs within 2 months following resolution of primary chancre

46
Q

Secondary syphilis characterized by

A

Maculopapular rash affecting skin (palms, soles)

Condylomata Lata and mucous patches

47
Q

Secondary syphilis resolves

A

Spontaneous over several weeks and enters the latent phase

1/3 of patients develop tertiary syphilis in 5-20 years

48
Q

Tertiary syphilis

A

Aoritis-Cardiovasulcar syphilis

Neurosyphilis-involvement of the brain meninges and spinal cord

Gummas-focal granulomas Osu lesions develop in bone, skin, and mucous membranes of the upper airway and mouth

49
Q

Congenital syphilis has 3 patterns : transmission across the placent

A

Stillbirth
Infantile syphilis
Late congenital syphilis

50
Q

Hutchison’s triad

A

1) Hutchinson’s teeth (notched incisors mulberry molars)
2) Interstitial keratitis (corneal inflammation possibly blind)
3) Eight cranial nerve deafness

51
Q

Infantile syphilis

A

Live born infants with clinical manifestations similar to SECONDARY syphilis at birth or first few months of life

52
Q

Screening for Syphilis

A

RPR-rapid plasma reagin

VDRL-Ventral disease research laboratory

Often negative in early stages
15% false positives

53
Q

Specific syphilis test

A

FTA
Fluorescent treponema antibody

Remains positive indefinitely even after treatment

54
Q

Gonorrhea caused by

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

55
Q

Gonorrhea proves an

A

Intense suppurations inflammatory reaction

56
Q

Gonorrhea asymptomatic

A

Males 40%

Females 80%

57
Q

Gonorrhea diagnosis

A

Can be made by culture

Traditionally treated by penicillin

58
Q

Untreated Gonorrhea can lead to

A

Sterility

59
Q

Gonorrhea ascending infection result in male

A

Acute prostatits
Epididymitis
Orchitis

60
Q

Gonorrhea ascending infection result in female

A

Inflammation of the uterus Fallopian tubes and ovaries

-with secondary scarring: Pelvi inflammatory disease

61
Q

gonococci ophthalmia neonatorum

A

Infant blindness from gonococci cantimation at birth

62
Q

No gonococci urethritis and certificates

A

Most common of STDS respectable to CDC

Chlamydia trachomatis

63
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is clinically

A

Similar to Gonorrhea

64
Q

Chlamydia is often recognized by

A

President disease following antibiotic treatment for suspected gonorrhea

65
Q

Gonorrhea and chlamydia treatment

A

Ceftriaxone and doxycycline

66
Q

Complication of chlamydia

A

Reactive arthritis

67
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

Immune mediated condition that develops in response to genitoruinary or GI infections may be complication of C. Trachomatis infection

68
Q

Reactive arthritis may be seen in combination with

A

Urthetirs cervicitis conjunctivitis and mucoscutanous lesions

69
Q

Genital Herpes Simplex most caused by

A

HSV-2

Less commonly HSV-1

70
Q

Herpes: Initial infection

A

Asymptomatic vs painful mucocutaneous eruptions with lymphadenopathy and malaise

71
Q

Herpes: Recurrent Lesions

A

Are small painful vesicles that quickly ulcerate

Heal in 7-10 days

HSV actively shed during periods of clinically visible lesions

72
Q

Neonatal herpes

A

Occurs in children born to mothers with genital herpes

High mortality

73
Q

Tzanck Cells

A

Genital herpes simplex
Viral Cytopathic effect

Ballooning degeneration of epithelial cells with large multinucleated

74
Q

Human Papillomavirus Infection

A

Extremely common STD

Responsible for a number of proiliferative lesions on the genital mucosa

Most common: Condyloma acuminatum

75
Q

Condyloma Acuminatum

A

Venereal warts

HPV 6 11

Benign papillary nodules frequently in clusters

Can become malignant

Can transfer to fetus

76
Q

Condyloma acuminatum: Koilocytic change

A

Papilla proliferation of squamous epithelium

77
Q

Condyloma acuminatum

A

Surgical excision laser treatment cryotherapy

Imiquimod

Path E3 (8 decks)

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