Genetics (Hersh) Flashcards

1
Q

What is Mendelian Inheritance?

A

a.k.a. single gene or monogenic. Disorder or traits in which single genes are altered. Mendelian inheritance can be autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked recessive, and X-linked dominant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is compound heterozygote? Give an example.

A

Alleles are different, but both are abnormal. This may modify the phenotype in contrast to a disease resulting from 2 copies of the same mutation. ex. Sickle cell disease with Hgb S gene on one #11 and Hgb C gene on other #11 chromosome = milder form of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hemizygous

A

Refers to males affected with X-linked recessive trait = XaY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the risk of an autosomal dominant gene being passed from affected parent to offspring? What does the transmission look like in a pedigree?

A

Every offspring has 50% risk of being affected. Will see vertical transmission in pedigree with male-to-male transmission. *Won’t see male-to-male transmission in recessive disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define penetrance. What is incomplete penetrance? Give an example.

A

Penetrance: probability that an abnormal gene will have any phenotypic expression (likelihood of expressing it clinically). Incomplete penetrance: person carries the mutation, but does not exhibit the disease phenotype. ex. Split hand mutation in grandmother and grandson, but not in father. Dad has the mutation, just isn’t expressing it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If you know that split hand is an autosomal dominant trait that is 70% penetrant, what is an offspring’s risk for inheriting the disease AND having physical abnormalities?

A

0.5 x 0.7 = 0.35. Thus, 35% risk for inheriting disease and expressing physical abnormalities. (Offspring’s risk for inheriting autosomal dominant mutation = 50%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define variable expressivity. Give an example.

A

quantitative and qualitative differences in phenotype between individuals having the same allele. Ex. Treacher Collins syndrome (affects development of bones and other tissues of face), expression ranges from mild to severe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define pleiotropism. Give an example.

A

multiple phenotypic effects coming from a single gene. ex. Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant fibrillinopathy (FBN1) resulting in: -musculoskeletal abnormalities (long fingers, scoliosis) -cardiovascular lesions -ocular defects (dislocated lens, myopia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis 1? What mendelian pattern does it exemplify?

A

Neurofibromatosis 1 is a progressive, clinically variable autosomal dominant disorder characterized by: cafe-au-lait spots, neurofibromas, Lisch nodules, optic pathway gliomas, and tibial hypoplasia. It is an example of Pleiotropism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is genetic (locus) heterogeneity? Give an example.

A

Different genes contribute to one phenotype. Ex = Adult polycystic kidney disease. Mutations on chrom 16 and 14 result in same phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC)? What type of heterogeneity does it exemplify?

A

An autosomal dominant neurocutaneous syndrome. Locus heterogeneity because two genes have been identified to cause TSC, but do not result in a difference phenotypically. Both act as tumor suppressors. -TSC affects CNS, eye, heart, lungs, kidney, and skin (hypopigmented macules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is phenotypic (clinical) heterogeneity v. locus heterogeneity?

A

Clinical heterogeneity: one gene has different phenotypes. Locus heterogeneity: different genes contribute to one phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the risk of an autosomal recessive gene being passed from affected parent to offspring? What is the chance of being a carrier of an autosomal recessive gene? What does the transmission look like in a pedigree?

A

25% (1 in 4) risk of being affected. 2/3 chance of being a carrier. Will see a horizontal pattern in pedigree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Spinal Muscular Atrophy?

A

an autosomal recessive disorder, whose infantile form presents in early life as a floppy infant. Usually results in death before 24 months of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In autosomal recessive disorders, what is the chance that a first degree relative is a carrier?

A

1/2 risk for being a carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In autosomal recessive disorders, what is the chance that an unaffected sibling is a carrier?

A

2/3 risk that an unaffected sibling of an infected individual is a carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For an affected individual of an autosomal recessive disorder, what does that mean for the parents?

A

It means both parents are silent carriers for the autosomal recessive disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name (4) principles of X-linked recessive inheritance patterns

A

-50% carrier risk for daughters of carrier mother -All daughters of affected father are carriers -Lyonization (random X-inactivation) impacts phenotype in female carriers -NO male-to-male transmission (on pedigree, see it going from infected males to carrier females to infected grandsons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)

A

Lethal X-linked recessive dystrophinopathy, where muscle tissue is replaced by fibrous tissue. Mother is carrier and 2/3 of these women have elevated CPK levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is germline mosaicism?

A

Where a portion of the mother’s eggs carry the mutation and a portion do not. Seen in the transmission of DMD from mother to son.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If mother is a carrier of a recessive X-linked disorder, what is the risk of having an effected male? What is the risk of having a carrier female offspring?

A

50% for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What offspring predominantly affected in recessive v. dominant X-linked diseases?

A

Recessive X-linked: almost all instances, males only Dominant X-linked: usually only females; because lethal gene in males.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the offspring risk of inheriting a dominant X-linked disease from an infected mother?

A

1/3. Since only a female can be effected, and affected male pregnancy usually results in fetal loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Amniocentesis

A

procedure done (usually in 2nd trimester) that takes small amount of amniotic fluid with fetal cells. The fetal cells are cultured in lab and then do chromosome analysis on them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Transcervical chorionic villus sampling

A

procedure where remove cells from fetal portion of placenta and perform chromosomal analysis as early as 10-11 weeks gestation. This is a better option for couples, so they can avoid talking about the pregnancy before getting the result (and deciding if want to terminate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (of Down’s Syndrome)

A

procedure done by in vitro fertilization. You remove the egg and fertilize it with the sperm. At the blastocyst stage, you can microscopically remove one of the cells without damaging the embryo and do a fluorescent probe study for chromosome 21 to determine if there are 2 or 3 signals for chrom 21. If result is normal, implant that embryo into the woman.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome

A

a UPD 15 = uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. Means there are 2 chromosome 15s contributed by one parent with no contribution of that chromosome from other parent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

a disorder of phenylalanine metabolism. High levels of phenylalanine in blood can result in severe brain damage. By modifying the amount of phenylalanine in diet, the result can be autism spectrum disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Epigenetic changes

A

individual has normal genetic makeup, but that gene does not work properly. Non-genetic factors cause genes to express themselves differently. ex. DNA methylation suppresses gene expression w/out altering the sequence of silenced genes (e.g. cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ornithine Transcarbmylase Deficiency (OTC)

A

an X-linked recessive urea cycle defect. So several females carry the mutation and transmit it to affected males. Ex. where infant died on day 4 and mother had 2 maternal uncles who were well at birth and died of progressive encephalopathic process at 3 days old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Genetics v. Genomics

A

Genetics: study of single genes to improve dx and tx of single gene disorders Genomics: study of the entire genome and interaction between genome and nongenomic factors that result in health and disease

32
Q

A 60 yr old male has heart disease and tx with clopidrogel (plavix) is recommended. Before prescribing, what is your recommendation?

A

A: perform genetic testing before treating (to determine if this drug will work on the pt) Plavix inhibits platelet aggregation in cardiovascular pts, but in 1/3 of pts, the CYP2C19*2 genotype prevents enzymatic activation of the antithrombotic effect in coronary artery patients.

33
Q

(2) genetic resource websites that PCPs should be aware of

A

OMIM and Genetests

34
Q

Presymptomatic testing

A

Abnormal test result indicates that individual will eventually develop sx of the disorder, assuming a normal lifespan. Therefore, the mutation has complete penetrance. Ex. = Huntington Disease. Do presymptomatic testing on healthy individuals based on family hx or personal concern.

35
Q

Predisposition testing

A

Identifying presence of gene mutation that may increase susceptibility for individual developing condition, but may never become symptomatic. Ex = hereditary breast and ovarian cancer.

36
Q

Where is Huntington Disease mutation found?

A

expansion of trinucleotide repeat (CAG) is found on the short arm of chromosome 4

37
Q

What is carrier screening used for? Examples?

A

Identifies individuals who are at increased risk for having child w/ genetic disorder because they have a recessive gene mutation. (Carriers generally unaware they carry a gene mutation b/c they are asymptomatic). Ex = Cystic Fibrosis (autosomal recessive) or Duchenne muscular dystrophy (X-linked recessive)

38
Q

What causes Duchenne muscular dystrophy? How do you test for it?

A

mutation on the Dystrophin gene, which limits the ability of that individual to produce dystrophin. First, obtain creatine kinase in blood (high CK = abnormal), then can go straight to genetic testing, looking for a deletion on one or multiple exons of dystrophin gene.

39
Q

A 4 YO male develops clumsiness and frequent falling. On exam, he has muscle weakness. What approach do you take in establishing his dx?

A

Test his blood for muscle enzyme (creatine kinase). High CK = abnormal. Then can do genetic testing for DMD.

40
Q

What does chromosomal microarray analysis look for? Example of a case where you would do chromosome microarray analysis

A

Deletions/duplications in DNA copy numbers (large stretches of DNA sequences greater than 1000bp) are often associated with intellectual disability, epilepsy, autism, psych disorders and nonspecific physical abnormalities. Ex. Do chromosome microarray analysis on 3 YO with global developmental delay.

41
Q

NIPT (noninvasive prenatal testing). What is accuracy rate? What can be tested with this?

A

First trimester prenatal diagnosis by examining fetal DNA in maternal blood. Detection rate for Down syndrome at 10 weeks gestation is 99% with a false positive rate of less than 0.5%. Can be used to test for Trisomy 21, 13, 18, Turner, and Klinefelter syndromes

42
Q

Define metacentric, submetacentric, and acrocentric.

A

metacentric: have an equal amount of genetic material above and below the centromere. Lower #’s, such as 2.

submetacentric: as move up in chromosome #s, p arm gets smaller than long arm

acrocentric = 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22. These don’t have any functional material above the centromere. ALL important material is on the long arm of these five chromosomes.

43
Q

Which 5 chromosomes are acrocentric?

A

13, 14, 15, 21, and 22. These chromosomes don’t have any functional material above the centromere. Means all important material is on the long arm (q)

44
Q

Interpret the karyotype: 47, XX, + 21

A

This is a female (XX) with Trisomy 21, Down syndrome. Total chromosome count = 47.

45
Q

Interpret the karyotype: 46, XY, del(4)(p14)

A

normal # of chromosomes, but there is a deletion on chromosome 4 on the p (short arm) at band 14

46
Q

Interpret the karyotype: 46, XY, t(11;22)(q23;q22)

A

male with translocation (t) between chromosomes 11 and 22. Band q23 on chromosome 11 has switched places with band q22 on chromosome 22.

47
Q

Name some characteristics that can collectively lead to a diagnosis of Down syndrome.

A
  • Facial characteristic of slight upward slant of palpebral fissures
  • single palmar crease
  • clinodactyly = incurving of the 5th finger
48
Q

What is an important step for newborns diagnosed with Down syndrome?

A

Echocardiogram to evaluate the heart for defects.

Also monitor heme status; will sometimes see higher WBC count, which can lead to increased risk for leukemia.

49
Q

What are common characteristics of Trisomy 13 and Trisomy 18. What are distinguishing features of each?

A

Both of these are lethal autosomal trisomies, where more than 90% are lost in utero. Both have growth retardation and congenital heart disease.

But Tris 13 will have either a scalp defect, microopthalmia (severely underdeveloped eyes), and polydactyly (extra digits on hands/feet) or a combo of them.

Most striking finding in Tris 18 is joint contractures, overlapping of thumb over index finger, and 5th over 4th finger in hands. Typically also see abnormalities of feet.

50
Q

Dx of this newborn

A

Trisomy 18. Note overlapping of 5th over 4th digits.

51
Q

What is lyonization?

A

in females, where one X chromosome is randomly inactivated early in gestation (although several genes on the inactive X escape X-inactivation)

52
Q

Why do 99% of Turner’s syndrome pregnancies result in fetal loss? If fetus survives, what characteristic do they often have?

A

fetus with Turner’s syndrome will have a cystic hydroma, resulting in fluid collection of lymph in back of neck that should be draining into the jugular system. If there is survival to term, a resolution of the obstruction leaves webbing of the neck.

53
Q

Interpret karyotype: 45, X

A

Turner’s syndrome = missing X.

Can also get Turner’s with mosaicism = 45, X/46, XX

54
Q

What are some clinical ways to manage Turner’s syndrome?

A
  • Growth hormone therapy - try to reverse the typically short stature to achieve height closer to 5’
  • Sex hormone therapy - achieve menses
  • Family planning - adoption; egg donor transplant
55
Q

47, XXY

A

Klinefelter syndrome. Can also get Klinefelter (15%) with mosaicism = 46, XY/47, XXY

56
Q

Name 3 characteristics of Klinefelter syndrome.

A
  • Incomplete pubertal development with gynecomastia and small testes
  • sterility (azospermia)
  • mild cognitive learning deficits
57
Q

Name 2 other causes of azoospermia, besides Klinefelter syndrome.

A
  • Y chromosome microdeletion (non-obstructive) - regions on Y chrom that carry testes-producing genes
  • cystic fibrosis/absence of vas deferens (obstructive) - capable of making sperm in CF, but absence of vas deferens results in obstruction
58
Q

Reciprocal translocation v. Robertsonian translocation

A

Robertsonial translocation can only occur amongst acrocentric chromosomes (13, 14, 15, 21, and 22), with the break points in the short arm, just above the centromere

Reciprocal translocations involve the other chromosomes OR 1 other chromosome involved with an acrocentric

59
Q

What are the (3) possibilities for the offspring when one of the partners has a balanced translocation?

A

Off spring has:

  • normal chromosomes
  • balanced translocation, like the parent
  • unbalanced translocation: occurs more frequently than the other 2
60
Q

Give an example of a chromosomal deletion syndrome

A

Cri-du-chat, where there is a deletion on one of the chromosome 5s. Babies will be microcephalic, hypotonic, marked hyperactivity, and have the weird cat cry.

61
Q

What are clinical characteristics of Familiar Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) and how is it inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance. Develop hundreds to thousands of colorectal adenomas in early adulthood. There is malignant transformation in 100% of the cases by 39 YO (5th decade of life)

62
Q

Mutations of what gene (on which chromosome) leads to familiar adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

A

mutations of the APC gene, locatd on the long arm of chromosome 5, leads to FAP.

63
Q

What is the risk of a parent with FAP passing it to their child? What steps should be taken for dx/management of FAP?

A

Child faces 50% risk of having FAP. Usually, genetic testing in minors is not done. However, FAP is exception. Can do site-specific testing by 10-11 YO to test for APC mutation:

  • If mutation present, children must undergo annual sigmoidoscopy (sigmoidoscopy surveillance) begging at 10 yo to check for polyps
  • no mutation = no sigmoidoscopy surveillance
64
Q

What is Lynch syndrome? What are clinical features? How does it compare to FAP?

A

a.k.a. HNPCC, Lynch syndrome = hereditary NON-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)

  • 2/3 of the colorectal cancers in Lynch syndrome are Right-sided
  • Lynch sydrome just starts with 1 polyp v. FAP, which has multiple polyps
65
Q

What is microsatellite instability? How does it relate to Lynch syndrome?

A

In tumors that result from defective DNA mismatch repair, repetitive DNA sequences known as microsatellites normally present in tumor tissue have a tendency to undergo a high level of genetic alteration = microsatellite instability.

High amounts of microsatellite instability are found in 90-95% of colorectal tumors arising from Lynch Syndrome. Therefore, patients with microsatellite stable tumors have a low probability of having DNA mismatch repair germline mutations.

66
Q

Name (2) things that can lead to dx of Lynch syndrome.

A
  • if tumor exhibits a high level of microsatellite instability, or
  • if tumor manifests loss of DNA mismatch repair gene expression assayed (analyzed) by immunohistochemistry
    • i.e. absence of MMR proteins can pinpoint molecular testing of specific mismatch repair genes (that encode for those proteins)
67
Q

What does mismatch repair (MMR) do? What can mutations in these genes lead to?

A

MMR genes encode proteins that recognize and correct errors that arise when DNA is replicated.

Absence of MMR proteins (loss of DNA mismatch repair gene expression) can lead to dx of Lynch Syndrome.

68
Q

Name 2 genes involved in mismatch repair. Mutations in these genes lead to what?

A

MSH2 and MLH1 are 2 genes involved in MMR that account for 90% of HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) cases

69
Q

Besides colonoscopy, what other procedures should be considered in pts with Lynch Syndrome (HPNCC)?

A

prophylactic hysterectomy and bilat oophorectomy should be considered by women upon completion of childbearing

70
Q

What are the two most common genes (and their chromosomes) on which mutations are responsible for hereditary breast and ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA1 on chromosome 17

BRCA2 on chromosome 13

These are both tumor suppressor genes

71
Q

What is the Ashkenazi Jewish population at increased risk for? Why?

A

Breast and ovarian cancer.

  • 1 in 40 Ashkenazi jewish women were found to have mutations on BRCA1 or BRCA2, v.
  • 1:400-500 non-Ashkenazi caucasian women
72
Q

Name (4) indicative (insurance) criteria for genetic testing of breast cancer.

A
  • breast cancer in a woman <50
  • ovarian cancer at any age
  • multiple affected family members
  • ashkenazi jewish descent
73
Q

Recommendations for carriers of BRCA1/2 mutation. What about those without the mutation?

A

Carriers of BRCA1/2 mutation:

  • lifestyle changes
  • enhanced surveillance
  • chemoprevention (tamoxifen = drugs that prevent estrogen production or block estrogen uptake)
  • risk-reducing surgery

No mutation = general population recommendation of standard mammography at 40 YO

74
Q

What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A

an overgrowth syndrome where kids present with an abd wall defect. (2) most common tumors are:

  • Hepatoblastoma <36 months
  • Wilm’s tumor <8 yo

May also see enlarged tongue

75
Q

What is Fanconi Anemia? How is it inherited?

A

chromosomal breakage syndrome that can lead to:

  • radial defects (ex. born w/o radii bones in arms and w/o thumbs)
  • growth retardation
  • skin hyperpigmentation
  • hearing loss

Autosomal recessive inheritance

76
Q

What is the only tx option for Fanconi anemia?

A

stem cell transplantation