Genetics Flashcards

1
Q
Single gene mutations:
Base substitution (3)
A

Silent mutation: change in base pair, but same protein
Nonsense mutation: changes that result in a stop codon
Missense mutation: changes that affect amino acid produced by codon

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2
Q

Single gene mutations:

Indels

A
  • Frameshift mutation: Alters the reading frame significantly if deletions don’t occur in multiples of 3 –> results in a completely different sequence of amino acid which completely alters the protein or result in a downstream stop codon
  • If indels occur in multiples of 3, then it will truncate the protein but might maintain some semblance to original protein
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3
Q

Autosomal dominant pedigree

A
  • Vertical transmission
  • Passed from fathers and mothers to sons and daughters
  • Male-to-male transmission (i.e. no X-linked features)
  • If 1 parent has the disease, 50% chance offspring will have disease
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4
Q

Autosomal dominant pedigree:

- Penetrance, expression, mosaicism, de novo

A
  • Penetrance: black or white –> complete penetrance vs incomplete penetrance (= “skipped” generation); the ability of a known disease-causing genotype to exhibit the disease phenotype
  • Expressivity: same genotype, but variable (always present) phenotype, differing severity of disease, complete penetrance
  • Mosaicism: more than 1 genotype in different cells; suspect gonadal mosaicism if normal parent and 2 or more affected offspring
  • De novo: spontaneous mutation
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5
Q

Autosomal recessive pedigree

A
  • Disease is seen in siblings in single generation
  • Males and females equally affected
  • Fathers and mothers can each transmit an abN allele
  • Parents of affected person are usually carriers/unaffected
  • Risk for 2 heterozygotes to have an affected child is 1/4, carrier risk for a sibling is 2/3, wildtype homozygous (i.e. normal child) 1/3
  • Consanguinity increases the risk of AR conditions
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6
Q

2/3 rule

A
  • If there is an AFFECTED offspring, the risk of the sibling being a carrier is 2/3
  • -> But beware, the 2/3 rule only applies to siblings of an affected individual.
  • Therefore, the carrier risk of a person with WITHOUT an affected sibling will be 2/4 = 1/2
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7
Q

How do you work out the incidence of a recessive condition?

A

Square the carrier frequency and multiply by 4
E.g. Friedrich ataxia has carrier frequency of 1/100
Incidence = (100x100)x4 = 1 in 40,000

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8
Q

How do you work out carrier frequency in a recessive condition?

A

Opposite of incidence!

- Divide incidence by 4 and square root of that number

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9
Q

X-linked inheritance

A
  • X-linked recessive:
  • -> 1/4 risk of an affected male child in each pregnancy from female carrier
  • -> All daughters of a male with an X-linked dz = obligate carrier
  • X-linked dominant:
  • -> 1/2 risk of an affected male child in each pregnancy from female carrier
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10
Q

X-inactivation

A
  • Females have 2 X chromosomes and only 1 X is active in any one cell due to X-inactivation
  • X-inactivation process is usually random –> 50:50 split between maternal and paternal inherited X-chrom being active in 1 cell
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11
Q

Non-random X-inactivation

A
  • Skewed X-inactivation: e.g. 90:10 instead of 50:50
  • A female carrier would mainfest condition if X-inactivation is non-random and skewed towards abnormal X
  • Can result in X-linked recessive disease and can protect from X-linked dominant disease
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12
Q

Anticipation

A
  • Seen in triplet repeat disorders

- Disease gets worse over successive generations due to increase in repeat numbers

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13
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance

A
  • Mitochondrial DNA is only maternally inherited
  • Affected mother can pass down to both son and daughter
  • An affected male will not pass down mutated mitochondrial gene to their offspring
  • Heteroplasmy: some mitochondria have mutations and others don’t in a cell
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14
Q

Mitochondrial bottleneck

A
  • Not all mitochondria are replicated equally to daughter cells during oogenesis
  • Mitochondrial load of each daughter cell dictates likelihood of dz (difficult to predict)
    E.g. asymptomatic Mo can have profoundly dz child
  • Cannot use maternal mutant load to predict foetal mutant load
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15
Q

Mitochondrial vs X-linked inheritance

A
  • No male to male transmission
  • X-linked: sons are affected, daughters are less severely affected
  • Mitochondrial: sons and daughters are equally affected and descendants of affected male cannot have the dz
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16
Q

Autosomal dominant: homozygote

A
  • Usually heterozygote (AD dz are caused by mutation in only 1 copy of gene)
  • Homozygote AD are usually genetically lethal
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17
Q

How can a female offspring have the disease phenotype in an X-linked recessive inheritance?

A
  • If father has the disease (Xa,Y) and mother is a carrier (Xa,x)
  • Skewed X-inactivation
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18
Q

Imprinting

A
  • Parent of origin!!! is important
  • Imprinting silences gene expression
    –> Maternally imprinted gene = gene is inherited from mother is silent and the gene from father is expressed
    and vice versa
  • Imprinting of an abnormal allele switches off the mutation –> no disease
  • Imprinting is reset in each generation: methyl tags stripped during gametogenesis, imprinting pattern rewritten in ovaries/testes in before passing down to offspring
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19
Q

Imprinting “pedigree” example explanation

  • Remember: imprinting disorder and imprinting pedigrees are different things
  • Imprinting disorder = abnormality in imprinting process
  • Imprinting pedigree = normal imprinting process, but inheritance of mutated gene
A

Paternally imprinted gene example:

  • Female offspring (K) has: Ai,a –> mutated allele imprinted so not expressed (from father)
  • Imprinting is reset during gametogenesis: gamete has a chance of having A or a
  • If K passes down A, this mutated gene will no longer be silenced because it is a PATERNALLY imprinted gene and it’s the mother (K) passing it down
  • K’s offspring will have the disease phenotype
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20
Q

Imprinting pedigree: maternally imprinted genes

A

Maternal imprinting:

  • All affected persons inherit mutated gene from father (so there is half a chance that his offspring will have dz)
  • No affected children from females
  • Mothers with mutated genes silence it when they pass it on to offspring
  • Half the children of a male will express the dz
  • Imprinting is reset when passed onto next generation
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21
Q

Imprinting pedigree: paternally imprinted genes

A

Paternal imprinting

  • All affected persons inherit mutated gene from mother (so there is half a chance that her offspring will have dz)
  • No affected children from male
  • Fathers with mutated gene silence it when passing it onto their offspring
  • Half the children of a female will express the dz
  • Imprinting is reset when passed onto next generation
22
Q

Pedigree tips

A
  1. Always remember genetic material halves when you go down by 1 generation
  2. Do a bloody punnett square to figure out risk (e.g. XLR - male dz is 1/2)
  3. In recessive pedigree, multiply by punnett square factor of 1/4 if working out risk of recessive dz
  4. In XLR pedigree, if gender is not known, need to multiply final risk by 1/2 = chance of being male
23
Q

Transcription factors

A

Regulates binding of RNA polymerase = initiates transcription of DNA into RNA

24
Q

Risk of gonadal mosaicism

A

Low - 1-3%

25
Q

Mutations that are most likely to cause non-functional or truncated protein?

A
Frameshift mutation (indels not in multiples of 3)
Nonsense mutation (stop codon)
26
Q

Acrocentric chromosomes and Roberstonian translocations

A
  • 13, 14, 15, 21,22
  • -> Very short p arms with non-essential genetic information
  • Robertsonian translocations involve balanced translocation of acrocentric chromosomes
27
Q

Chromosomal disorders:

A
  • Aneuploidy (abnormal number)
  • Structural: translocations, inversions
  • Gain or loss of part of chromosome: missing or duplicated genetic material
28
Q

Non-disjunction

A
  • Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate in anaphase I
  • Failure of sister chromatids to separate at meiosis II
  • Gives rise to nullisomic and disomic gametes
29
Q

Aetiology of Trisomy 21

A

95% free trisomy 21: 47XY or XX,+21

  • Maternal nondisjunction: meiosis I 65%, meiosis II 23%
  • Paternal nondisjunction: meiosis I 3%, meiosis II 5%
  • 3% mitotic nondisjunction: mosaic - modified phenotype, trisomic zygote or normal zygote

5% translocation (Robertsonian) Down syndrome

  • Need to perform karyotype as a CGH array will miss T21 due to translocation
  • No maternal age effect, risk of recurrence
  • Problem arise at gametogenesis
30
Q

Nuchal translucency

A

Associated with monogenic disorders and aneuploid states

31
Q

When do microdeletions occur?

A

During meiosis

- Error in meiotic recombination

32
Q

Trinucleotide repeat expansion

A
  • Repeats below certain length are stable in meiosis and mitosis
  • Above threshold length, repeat number is unstable with bias toward expansion with each DNA replication
  • Size of expansion is proportional to AGE of onset OR SEVERITY
  • Liability to expand is related to gender of transmitting parent
33
Q

Anticipation

A

Earlier onset in subsequent generations

34
Q

Trinucleotide repeat disease

A
  1. Fragile X - (CGG)n –> >200 in 5’UTR
  2. Myotonic dystrophy - (CTG)n –> >50 in 3’UTR
  3. Friedriech’s ataxia - (GAA)n –> >200, intronic
35
Q

Imprinting: Angelman’s syndrome

A

Loss of maternally derived allele which is required for normal development, paternal allele should be imprinted

  • 70% deletion of maternally derived 15q12
  • 2% paternal uniparental disomy
  • 10% UBE3A mutation
36
Q

Imprinting: Prader-willi syndrome

A

Loss of paternally derived allele which is required for normal development, maternal allele should be imprinted

  • 70% have deletion of paternally derived 15q11-12
  • 25% maternal uniparental disomy
37
Q

Retinoblastoma

A
  • Incomplete penetrance
  • Autosomal dominant inheritance
  • Other malignancies are associated with the disease
38
Q

Mosaicism

A
  • Mutations that arise post-zygotically

- 2 or more genetically different cell lines in an individual, derived from single zygote

39
Q

Somatic mosaicism

A
  • Not relevant to inherited disease as it affects somatic cells
  • High-level somatic mosaics may express an altered phenotype e.g Mosaic Turner or T21
40
Q

Gonadal mosaicism

A
  • Arises in germline cells –> mutation-bearing gametes
  • Substantial proportion of autosomal dominant or X-linked diseases arise from new mutations
  • May get a clone of gametes in a phenotypically normal parent that carry the mutation
41
Q

Conventional Karyotype

A
  • Visually analyses whole chromosomes
  • Detects aneuploidy, large chromosomal imbalances, balance and unbalanced chromosomes
  • Cannot detect microdel/dups, DNA sequence changes
42
Q

FISH

A
  • Fast test, uses DNA probes for specific targets e.g. individual chromosome, chromosomal region, gene
  • Detect presence/absence of SPECIFIC DNA sequences on chromosomes e.g. Williams, trisomies, monosomies (need to “fish” for specific targets)
43
Q

CGH (comparative genomic hybridisation) assay

- Dosage

A
  • Compare DNA (genome) from 2 sources: test sample and control sample - look at gain/losses of DNA content –> difference in genetic material (loss/gain)
  • Molecular karyotype: virtual karyotype from array of many thousand tagged DNA probes
  • Detects: microdeletions and microduplications, monosomies and trisomies, variations that may not be clinically significant
  • Cannot detected balanced chromosomal changes/rearrangements, ploidy abnormalities e.g. triploidy
44
Q

SNP (single nucleotide polymorphism) array

- Dosage

A
  • Variation in a single nucleotide at a specific locus (submicroscopic level), genome wide test of chromosomal dosage
  • Can detect: CNVs with genotype abnormalities, allelic imbalance, chimerism, uniparental disomy, long continuous stretches of homozygosity = consanguinity, mosaicism up to 7%
  • -> Allelic imbalance = whether 2 allelic copies of single base pair are homozygous or hetero e.g. UPD, mutated tumour suppressor gene
45
Q

Sanger sequencing

- Spelling changes

A
  • Determine exact sequence of bases and compare to reference sequence
  • E.g. sequence of Marfan gene (FBN1)
  • Can detect: single gene mutations
  • Cannot detect: exonic deletions/duplications
46
Q

Single gene sequencing

- Spelling changes

A
  • Next generation sequencing
  • Sequences many genes simultaneously
  • Can detect changes of a single base within a gene, cannot detect outside gene of interest
47
Q

Other genetic tests

A
  • Triplet repeat analysis: 1) PCR sizing, 2) Southern blot
  • -> PCR can only detect up to certain # of rpts
  • -> Southern blot sizes full range of expansion
  • Methylation-sensitive MLPA: identify methylated targets
48
Q

Southern blot vs Western blot

A
  • Southern blot: for DNA testing, DNA fragments separated by size e.g. deletion of an allele, triplet repeats
  • Western blot: for protein, proteins separated by size, stained with antibodies to target protein e.g. dystrophin staining for DMD
49
Q

Whole genome/exome sequencing

A
  • Can detect missing DNA or sequence changes in multiple genes
  • Useful for genetically heterogeneous conditions
  • Cannot detect triplet repeats or methylation defects
50
Q

Consanguinity

A
  • Increased risk of autosomal recessive disease

- Risk of having a child born with a major congenital problem is approximately x2 the background population risk

51
Q

What increases the risk of methylation disorders?

A

IVF pregnancies

- Increases risk of methylation defects by x4