Genetic Conditions & Testing Flashcards

1
Q

Describe PCR (Draw)

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction is a way to go from not much DNA to a ton of DNA, which is really valuable for research and genetic diagnostic tests. You use Taq Polymerase, a polymerase that can handle higher temperatures where DNA is denatured (split into single strands). Small primers, single stranded small bits of DNA, are laid down (you usually have to know what these are for it to work) and Taq polymerase adds more nucleotides to each side. This happens again and again until you have buckets of DNA.

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2
Q

What are the major methods of DNA sequencing/testing?

A

Sanger Sequencing (use PCR with dideoxyribose nucleotides used every once in a while. These stop replication and allow you to sequence every nucleotide in the sequence) Used to detect single base changes as well as insertion or deletion of small chunks of DNA
Genome-scale sequencing (or exome scale sequencing, it’s more efficient by only looking at exons) is good for looking at broad categories like hearing loss or developmental disabilities.
Southern Blot (look for specific strand of DNA)
Karyotyping (requires viable cells, allows you to visually look at entire genome)
Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) looks at 100kb or smaller sequences, requires a specific target.
Microarray: look at entire genome for lost or gained alleles

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3
Q

Describe how molecular genetic testing is relevant for Cystic Fibrosis and Hereditary Breast/Ovarian cancer

A

Based on a person’s ethnic background you have a good idea of whether to test them for cystic fibrosis genetic errors or not. This can help them decide on having kids. With breast cancer, finding a breast/ovarian cancer gene informs the rest of the family and allows you to potentially identify cancers well before they would be noticed in routine checkups.

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4
Q

What are some issues with with interpreting microarray DNA sequencing results?

A

You don’t see position of errors, just what the error or difference is. So if there’s a balanced translocation you wouldn’t be able to notice.

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5
Q

What are some limitations of interphase FISH?

A

You need to know exactly what you’re looking for, and it doesn’t tell you anything about position, so translocation isn’t going to be found this way. And FISH only works on smaller genetic analyses, not on the whole genome.

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6
Q

What are some limitations of metaphase FISH?

A

You need viable cells, and you need to know what you’re looking for. But it tells you location and presence of sequence! FISH has a size limit of 100 kb

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7
Q

When could you use interphase FISH?

A

If you only have nonviable cells to look at, and you want to see if there’s an absence or extra sequence (you know what sequence to look at)

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8
Q

When could you use metaphase FISH?

A

You have viable cells, you want to know if there’s an absence or extra sequence (you know what to look at) and you want to see where the absent or extra sequence occurs

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9
Q

When could you use microarray DNA sequencing

A

When you want to test the whole genome for specific, small errors (missing genes or pieces of genes), or you have no idea what’s going on. You can search thousands of genes at the same time. Or look at genetic expression as a response to pathogens (general)

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10
Q

When could you use karyotyping?

A

When you’re looking for structural changes in chromosomes, missing chromosomes, translocated chromosomes, extra chromosomes

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11
Q

What are some drawbacks of karyotyping?

A

Expensive, doesn’t tell you what’s missing, but is more of a qualitative, high-level view of what appears to be different in a genome

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12
Q

What are limitations for PCR?

A

You can only efficiently do this for sequences less than 1000bp in length, and you need to know exactly what DNA sequence you’re looking to multiply.

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13
Q

Describe targeted analysis vs. gene sequencing.

A

Targeted analysis: you know the mutations or genes of interest. There are fewer aspects you need to consider. It’s cheaper and faster because you’ve narrowed your scope.

Gene sequencing: when there’s a problem but the cause is unknown. Mutations occur throughout the gene, or even the genome! More expensive, slower, and interpretation is tricky because there are millions of benign “mutations” or differences from a reference genome.

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14
Q

Other terms for large scale genomic analysis

A

Shotgun sequencing, genome sequencing, massive parallel sequencing, next generation sequencing

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15
Q

What are some difficulties with whole genome analysis?

A

The reference isn’t a golden standard, so there are millions of differences that don’t matter. Any given person will have 3 million variants. 100,000 variants will occur within genes. 25,000 occur in exons or near exons. 1000-5000 associated with diseases, 99% of these are still benign mutations.

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16
Q

What does VUS stand for?

A

Variants of uncertain significance (we don’t know if these mutations matter, or how they change expression) “it is common to find a rare variant”

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17
Q

What is the 5-class scale for pathogenicity?

A

1 (benign) 2 (likely benign) 3 (variant of uncertain significance) 4 (likely pathogenic) 5 (pathogenic) 4 and 5 are deemed “positive” results

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18
Q

What is genetic linkage?

A

Genetic linkage is a modern argument against Mendel’s law of Independent Assortment (this is the idea that each allele is independent of other alleles). Linkage is the idea that genes close to each other on a chromosome are more likely to be expressed in a pattern.

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19
Q

What is linkage disequilibrium?

A

Non-random association of alleles within a population. If two alleles present more commonly together than expected from independence, you get linkage disequilibrium

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20
Q

What is linkage disequilibrium?

A

Non-random association of alleles within a population. If two alleles present more commonly together than expected from independence, you get linkage disequilibrium

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21
Q

What would a fully linked system look like?

A

Dominant would go with dominant, recessive would go with recessive, no combinations

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22
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

Apply a charge gradient to a gel and watch substances (if controlled for charge/surface area) will move through the gel at speeds dependent on size. DNA is uniform regardless of size, proteins will be denatured with SDS PAGE to guarantee uniform charge-to-mass ratio

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23
Q

How do you read a blot? Draw

A

Same for western, northern, southern, just different molecule type being analyzed. Look for presence or absence of bands at different weights based on what you know about the molecules.

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24
Q

Describe the types of chromosome abnormalities that are routinely detected using both traditional and molecular cytogenetic techniques.

A

you can find translocation (balanced with karyotyping or metaphase FISH, unbalanced with karyotyping, metaphase FISH, interphase FISH, and microarrays) you can find deletions and duplications of genes (FISH, microarrays) or whole chromosomes (karyotyping or microarrays)

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25
Q

Describe some of the phenotypic and reproductive risks associated with chromosome abnormalities

A

If you have a chromosomal abnormality there is a chance you’ll pass it on to your kid, since they’re getting their chromosomes from you. Considering phenotypes, over-expression of genes from duplicates causes a lot of trouble, and missing genes from deletion can be even worse. Monosomy is when you’re missing a chromosome. Trisomy is when you have one extra

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26
Q

What are the two types of chromosomal abnormalities? What is a condition caused by each type?

A

Structure and number abnormalities. Down Syndrome is a number abnormality. Philadelphia chromosome seen in some leukemias is a structure abnormality

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27
Q

What is the p arm of a chromosome? the q arm?

A

P arm is “petite” smaller arm, Q arm is bigger

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28
Q

What are some limitations to karyotyping?

A

Expensive, limited by resolution greater than 3-5Mb. Sometimes hard to know exactly what’s missing (crossover of genes and such)

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29
Q

What is gene product alteration/fusion?

A

If the regulatory region of one gene is fused with the functional region of another gene you may get an unexpected amount of expression from a gene (example, not rule)

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30
Q

What phenotypes (physical manifestations) are associated with chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Cancer, Abnormal growth or development in children (developmental disabilities, birth defects), early death (spontaneous abortion often indicates translocation or monosomy)

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31
Q

What is one way a carrier of a genetic condition passes along that condition to their offspring?

A

A carrier may have a balanced translocation error. So they have all of the DNA they need. But their offspring will receive only one of the chromosomes, so they’re almost guaranteed to have some trouble.

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32
Q

What do the following cytogenetic nomenclatures represent?

  1. 45, XX, - 16
  2. 46, XY
  3. 46, XX, del(5) (q:13;q:22)
  4. mos 45[5] X, 46[15] XX
A
  1. female, monosomy 16th chromosome
  2. Male, typical karyotype
  3. Male, deletion of regions 13-22 on the fifth chromosome.
  4. Female, mosaic of monosomy (5 of 20 cells missing X) and normal (15 of 20 having both X chromosomes)
33
Q

What do the following cytogenetic nomenclatures represent?

  1. 45, XX, - 16
  2. 46, XY
  3. 46, XX, del(5) (q:13;q:22)
  4. mos 45[5] X, 46[15] XX
A
  1. female, monosomy 16th chromosome
  2. Male, typical karyotype
  3. Male, deletion of regions 13-22 on the fifth chromosome.
  4. Female, mosaic of monosomy (5 of 20 cells missing X) and normal (15 of 20 having both X chromosomes)
34
Q

What are the steps of FISH?

A
  1. Chromosome preparation
  2. Denature and hybridize labelled probe (this is where you need to know what you’re looking for)
  3. Visualize
35
Q

How does a microarray identify number of copies of a gene in a genome?

A

Hybridization: low hybridization means deleted gene. medium means normal genes, lots means duplicated gene

36
Q

How are FISH and massive genome analysis paired?

A

Often FISH will be used to confirm the results of massive genome analysis testing, since FISH is specific and pretty easy to run once you know what to look for. And you can use FISH instead of the massive genome sequencing on family members to identify if they’re also at risk for whatever condition or disease.

37
Q

What is consanguinity? What are the risks associated with consanguinity?

A

Mating between people who are closely related? Offspring are more likely to have a genetic/recessive disorder, because it’s being passed down in the family.

38
Q

What do proteins do?

A
  1. Structural support
  2. Enzymatic activity
  3. Transport
  4. Signaling
  5. replicate and fix DNA
  6. serve as chemical messengers (hormones)
  7. generate coordinated movement on body-scale (muscles)
  8. act as part of the immune defense system
39
Q

Write all the 3 letter codes for amino acids

A

Glu (glutamic acid) gln (glutamine), asp (aspartic acid) asn (asparagine) arg (arginine) his (histidine) ser (serine) thr (threonine) val (valine) leu (leucine) ile (isoleucine) trp (tryptophan) tyr (tyrosine) ala (alanine) phe (phenylalanine) gly (glycine) pro (proline) met (methionine) lys (lysine) cys (cysteine)

40
Q

What amino acids are polar?

A

his, asp, glu, arg, lys, asn, gln, ser, thr, tyr, cys

41
Q

What amino acids are negatively charged?

A

asp, glu

42
Q

What amino acids are positively charged?

A

arg, lys, his

43
Q

What amino acids are hydrophobic?

A

met, val, ile, leu, gly, ala, phe, pro, trp

44
Q

What are the special properties of proline, glycine, and cysteine?

A

Proline is “bent” glycine doesn’t have a side group, cysteine can form disulfide bonds with other cysteines

45
Q

What are the special properties of proline, glycine, and cysteine?

A

Proline is “bent” glycine doesn’t have a side group, cysteine can form disulfide bonds with other cysteines

46
Q

Four levels of protein structure?

A

Primary (amino acid sequence) secondary (hydrogen bonding between donor and acceptors near each other) tertiary (hydrophobic/hydrophilic, ionic interactions, disulfide bonding) quarternary (like tertiary but on a grander scale, considering peptide chains interacting with each other)

47
Q

What are the differences between globular, integral membrane, and fibrous proteins?

A

Fibrous often have multiple levels of patterned structure. Fibrous are elongated strands. Globular are not patterned, and are hydrophilic on the outside, hydrophobic on the inside. Integral membrane proteins are hydrophobic wherever they would interact with the membrane, hydrophilic on the tips, and hydrophilic enough in the middle to get ions and other molecules through

48
Q

Amino acid sequence for collagen?

A

Gly-X-Y (X is often proline, Y is often 4-hydroxyproline). these prolines and hydroxyprolines give the protein its kinks. Hydroxyprolines are modified prolines (takes vitamin C as a cofactor), and they allow for hydrogen bonding between molecular strands of collagen

49
Q

What stabilizes the structure of antibody heavy and light chains?

A

Disulfide bonds between the light chains - heavy chains and between the two heavy chains keeps everything in place

50
Q

What are five types of post-translational modification?

A
proteolytic processing
phosphorylation
methylation
acetylation
hydroxylation
51
Q

What are five types of post-translational modification?

A

proteolytic processing - breakdown of proteins into smaller functional protein chains
phosphorylation - tyrosine, serine, threonine often get phosphorylated (change charge environment to open or close protein). phosphorylation is adding (kinase) or removing (phosphatase) phosphate
methylation - add methyl group to cytosine to stop gene expression
acetylation - add acetyl groups to histone to open up DNA for gene expression
hydroxylation - add a hydroxyl group (OH) to something. used to stabilize collagen

52
Q

What do proteins need to be able to transiently interact with RNA and DNA molecules?

A

A polar interface/domain where hydrogen bonds and charged interactions can take place. You’d prefer hydrogen bonds over charged if you wanted it to be a temporary interaction

53
Q

How are proteins used to translate cellular signals?

A

Proteins can have multiple domains. If there is a ligand binding domain, the protein will experience a conformation change (to optimize thermodynamic stability). That same protein may also have functional domains where it acts on the cell, or it may just change shape and allow something else to act. Transmembrane proteins often have a ligand binding site and a functional site

54
Q

Are proteins limited to one function?

A

No! Some proteins are able to change their function based on the environment or the ligands/signalling molecules that are provided to them.

55
Q

Are proteins limited to one function?

A

No! Some proteins are able to change their function based on the environment or the ligands/signalling molecules that are provided to them.

56
Q

What is conformational change in proteins?

A

if the environment changes or a molecule binds to the protein sometimes the protein’s structure will shift a bit and its functionality will change. Potentially going from active to inactive. Phosphorylation is a common way to cause conformation change. Kinase adds phosphate (adp to atp) and phosphatase takes phosphate away (atp to adp)

57
Q

What determines protein stability?

A

Hydrogen bonding, hydrophilic/hydrophobic interactions, electrostatics, steric interactions (protein may be spatially constrained), torsional energy (twisting can cause a “non ideal” state, add tension, make the protein less stable)

58
Q

Draw and describe a way that a mutation in a protein (point mutation, or larger mutations) impacts protein stability

A

Example: a hydrophilic residue in the core of the protein will decrease hydrophobic interaction surface area and cause internal strain, probably changing ultimate shape

59
Q

Draw and describe a way that a mutation in a protein (point mutation, or larger mutations) impacts protein stability

A

Example: a hydrophilic residue in the core of the protein will decrease hydrophobic interaction surface area and cause internal strain, probably changing ultimate shape

60
Q

What is the p53 tumor suppressor protein, and what happens when it experiences mutations?

A

p53 is a transcription factor that manages genes important for DNA repair, growth arrest, and cell death. When p53 is mutated cells are able to grow without any checks and balances, and cancer is often the result. 50% of cancers have p53 turned off. p53 can either be messed up by mutating the functional domain or the DNA binding domain

61
Q

Predict the effect of the following mutations:

  1. residues in center of protein
  2. big to small mutation in center of protein
  3. Nonpolar to polar
  4. Switching charge
  5. Removing polar group
  6. Removing group that bound to cofactor
A
  1. change the middle of a protein and stability will drop off
  2. less surface area for hydrophobic interactions decreases stability
  3. Nonpolar to polar (in center of protein) will cause a massive realignment in an attempt to push the polar residue to the surface of the protein.
  4. Switching charge will be destabilizing
  5. Unless the hydrogen bond donor/acceptor is able to find another partner, the polar group’s disappearance
  6. if you lose stabilizing interactions with co-factors you will destabilize protein
62
Q

What are molecular chaperones?

A

Molecular chaperones help proteins optimize their 3D folding. Proteins fold as they leave the ribosome, but it is locally optimized and not globally optimized. Molecular chaperones often use ATP to break protein structure and refold the protein in a more stable conformation. Thermodynamic vs. kinetic.

63
Q

What is GroEL? How does it work?

A

GroEL is a protein folding chaperone. GroEL has a hydrophobic interior which is favorable for partially folded proteins with exposed hydrophobic cores. the GroES cap (and ATP) bind to GroEL after the protein has been trapped inside, and refolding occurs. It takes ATP because you’re breaking locally stable folding

64
Q

What are amyloid fibrils and where do they present?

A

Amyloid sheets show up in Alzheimer’s and some other diseases. It seems like amyloid sheets are a way for these proteins to maximize hydrophobic/hydrophobic interactions. they occur spontaneously. Amyloid sheets may cause trouble in the body by aggressively taking up space and disrupting tissue

65
Q

What does an enzyme do?

A

Enzymes bind substrates and rapidly facilitate biochemical reactions. Enzymes are not used up in reactions. Enzymes are regulated by noncompetitive and competitive inhibitors.

66
Q

Examples of proteins in their different functions?

  1. carriers
  2. receptors
  3. enzymes
  4. structural
  5. signaling
A
  1. hemoglobin (o2) transferrin (fe2+) albumin (fatty acids)
  2. membrane bound receptors for hormones outside cell. immunoglobins for antigens.
  3. regulate biochemical reactions for specific ligand binding
  4. collagen, keratin, actin, myosin
  5. peptide hormones, growth factor
67
Q

what does nuclease stand for? protease? lipase?

A

nuclease means hydrolase of nucleotides. Means nuclease cuts nucleotide sequences.
protease cuts protein sequences.
lipase cuts fatty acid and lipid sequences

68
Q

what is a zymogen?

A

a precursor to proteins that require proteolysis to split the protein into functional units

69
Q

How are enzymes made specific for a given reaction?

A

By the way they bind to substrates (optimized for size, charge, polarity)

70
Q

Draw how an enzyme impacts the free energy curve for a reaction?

A

Changes activation energy does not change overall energy bump

71
Q

Why do enzymes break down at different pH levels?

A

Accumulation of positive or negative charges destabilize enzymes.

72
Q

What is the value of a fever?

A

Our enzymes operate at significantly higher temperatures than bacterial enzymes. A fever decreases the functionality of bacterial enzymes and hopefully slows growth or even kills the cells.

73
Q

What is Km mathematically and in words?

A

Km= [e][s]/[es] Km is the concentration at which the reaction’s velocity is 1/2 of Vmax

74
Q

What does an inhibitor do for enzymes?

A

Competitive inhibitors keep an enzyme from getting to its desired substrate. Noncompetitive inhibitors decrease the binding affinity between the enzyme and the target substrate

75
Q

What are the axes of a michaelis-menten graph? Draw one!

A

velocity (y) vs. substrate concentration gives you an asymptotic graph but mostly increased over substrate

76
Q

What are the axes of the lineweaver burk plot?

A

1/v and 1/(s) gives you a linear plot with a calculated y-intercept (Vmax)

77
Q

What is enzymatic efficency?

A

kcat/km (so high kcat means highly actve/fast) (low km means you don’t need much protein at all for rRNA to jump up and start coding your work.

78
Q

What does Kcat represent?

A

if you have a high kCat you are extremely fast at getting through proteins

79
Q

High Km represents?

A

High Km means you don’t have a very strong affinity to the enzyme