General, Week 2 Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

what do patients with restrictive cardiomyopathy present with?

A

congestive heart failure or sudden death

decreased filling, back up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do you see in histo of:

viral myocarditis
transplant rejection myocarditis
hypersensitivity myocarditis
fungal/TB myocarditis:
bacterial myocarditis:
A

viral myocarditis: lymphocytes
transplant rejection myocarditis: lymphocytes
hypersensitivity myocarditis: eosinophils
fungal/TB myocarditis: giant cells
bacterial myocarditis: neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

will the RV hypertrophy in a VSD?

what will happen?

A

no, blood doesn’t stay in for long enough

pulmonary hypertension, L heart dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is natriuretic peptide ? what does it do?

A

a peptide hormones secreted from the atria

promotes salt and water excretion and lowers blood volume, lowers blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Vasopressin

receptor(s)
effect

use

A

Vasopressin 1 (V1) on blood vessels

vasoconstriction –> increase SVR –> increase MAP

can add to NE for septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

in what congenital heart defects do you see early cyanosis?

general concept
specific names (5):
A

R to L shunts

Tetralogy of Fallot
Transposition of the great vessels
patent Truncus arteriosus
Tricuspid atresia
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what myopathy has a dilatation of the R ventricle and fatty deposits in the RV?

A

arrythmogenic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why does the resting HR decrease in an athlete?

A

after training, there is an increase in heart mass (LVH), allowing for increased contractility, HR can decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do you see on histology of the L ventricle in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

high yield

A

disarrayed myofibers with hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

name the equation for blood flow (Q) to an organ:

A

Q = perfusion pressure/resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

vascular ________ receptors are more sensitive to epinephrine than _______ receptors

thus, at low levels, epi release causes ____________
at high levels, epinephrine release causes __________

A

beta-2, alpha-1

vasodilation
vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the treatment for an AVSD?

A

fix by 1 year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what three organs get the greatest blood flow/gram?

A

kidneys, then heart, then brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

systemic reduction in tissue perfusion resulting in decreased tissue oxygen delivery

A

shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what problems do you see in dilated cardiomyopathy?

in terms of electrical
valves
output

A

electrical - arrhythmias due to stretching

valves: pull down, tricuspid and mitral regurgitation
output: decrease, can’t contract as strongly
- -> biventricular heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Preload = EDV, ______ pressure

A

wedge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in tricuspid atresia/single ventricle, what happens to the L ventricle?

A

hypoplastic L ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

in an organ that shows autoregulation, if the perfusion pressure falls, the vascular resistance must _______ to maintain flow

A

fall

vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the murmur in a PDA?

A

continuous, machine-like murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

initial emergent treatment for the transposition of great arteries (2):

long term?

A
  1. give prostaglandin E (keep PDA)
  2. balloon atrial septostomy (rip open - make ASD)

switch surgery is long term (including coronary arteries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the ABCDEFG’s of reading a radiograph

A

A – airway – should be in midline (trachea)
B – bones
C – cardiac silhouette (heart size, less than half of angle-angle)
D – diaphragm (should have nice curve)
E – edges of heart (pneumonias will obliterate certain edges)
F – lung fields
G – gas bubble (below L diaphragm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

coartaction of the aorta is most commonly seen with what other CHD:

A

bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

benazepril

what is this?
adverse effects

A

ACE-I

cough, angioedema, TERATOGEN, hypotension, hyperkalemia, renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

sodium nitroprusside

use
mechanism
hemodynamics
side effects

A

hypertensive emergencies

release NO (cGMP - vascular smooth muscle relaxation)

Balanced arteriolar and venous dilation (decrease in preload and SVR)

hypotension, possible cyanic and thiocyanate intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

myogenic theory:

When blood pressure in arterioles increases, SMCs _________, causing an ___________ in vascular resistance, which decreases the blood flow.

When blood pressure in arterioles decreases, SMCs _______, causing a ________ in vascular resistance, and increase in blood flow

A

contract, increase

relax, decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what explains the phenomenon flow induced vasodilation?

A

shear stress activating endothelial cells to release NO, relaxation/dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

in isolated aortic valve stenosis (CHD) what do you see in the heart structure?

A

LVH
mitral regurgitation
LA dilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Filling pressure (volume) = wedge pressure = pre-load estimation of ____

A

EDV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

major side effects (2) of the diuretics (chlorthalidone):

drug-disease effect:

drug-drug interaction:

A
  1. hypokalemia
  2. electrolyte imbalance

increases risk of gout

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

why is there cyanosis in tricuspid atresia/single ventricle?

A

because there is one pump for the whole body, the RA must give deoxy blood to LA, and LV.

in the common ventricle, all of the blood mixes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

drugs that end in “-pril” are -

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the most important factor in pulmonary vascular smooth muscle tone?

A

local metabolic control (intrinsic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

in aortic valve atresia with intact ventricular septum, what do you see in the heart?

A

PDA needed to live

mitral valve, ascending aorta, LV all hypoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how do patients with myocarditis present?

A

with arrhythmia, heart failure, fever, dyspnea, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

during exercise, what is the most important factor in vascular smooth muscle tone?

A

local metabolic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when a left to right shunt shifts to right to left because of pulmonary hypertension, this is called _________ syndrome. What do you note about the color of the patient?

A

Eisenmenger

turns acyanotic to cyanotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the most common ASD?

A

esteem secundum type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

list the 5 classes of 1st line antihypertensives:

A
  1. Thiazide type diuretics
  2. ACE-I
  3. Angiotensin receptor block
  4. Calcium channel blocker
  5. Beta blocker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

in an organ that shows autoregulation, if the perfusion pressure increases, the vascular resistance must _______ to maintain flow

A

increase

vasoconstrict

(think about equation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a MAP < _______ means hypotension

A

[MAP] <65 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the features of a partial AVSD?

A

primum type ASD, mitral valve cleft (mitral regurgitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

drugs that end in “-olol” are:

A

beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

amlodipine

use/class
mechanism 
hemodynamic effect
A

antihypertensive, dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

Bind to L-type Ca++ channel, decrease amount of calcium available for vascular smooth muscle and cardiac muscle contraction.

vasodilation, decrease SVR, increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

the net result of direct sympathetic input to the heart results in what tone of the coronaries? why?

A

vasodilation

the alpha and beta counteract, the local metabolites due to the increased rate and force of the heart (sympathetic input) predominate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

IMAGING: a term that you lose a portion of the anatomy or visualization of the normal structure since there is an adjacent disease

A

silhouette sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Phenylephrine

receptor?
function?

A

alpha-1 purely.

vasoconstriction, increase SVR, increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the most common comorbidity (of CHD) in people with a coarcted aorta?

A

bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

to regulate how much blood flow an organ gets, what is changed at the organ level?

A

vascular resistance (at arteriolar level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what do you see on microscopic examination of hypertensive heart disease?

grossly?

A

increased myocyte diameter with increase in nuclear size nuclei often appear “squared off” or “box-car” shaped

L ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the characteristic primary physiologic derangement of disruptive shock

A

afterload increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, what is the main finding grossly?

is the problem systolic or diastolic? why?

A

massive hypertrophy of LV ventricular septum

diastolic - decreased LV compliance, decreased filling, decreased CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when first line antihypertensive drugs fail or can’t be used, __________ is used

A

hydralazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are some examples of metabolites that locally affect blood vessel diameter?

A

K+, H+, lactate, adenosine, CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

metropolol

use/class
mechanism
hemodynamic effect
A

antihypertensive (first line only in special cases)

cardioselective beta blocker

decrease cardiac output (HR and contractility), decrease renin secretion, decrease in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what organs show autoregulation of vessel tone?

A

brain, kidneys, heart, skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are the three things to look for when determining a chest x-ray quality? how do you check them?

A

R - rotation (is the spinner process between the clavicular heads?)
I - inspiration (5-6 anterior ribs)
P - penetration (should perceive spine behind the heart, and descending aorta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Turner syndrome is associated with what two congenital heart defects?

A

coarctation of the aorta

bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

tricuspid atresia/single ventricle what do you need in order to live?

A

ASD/VSD or PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

chlorthalidone

use/class
mechanism 
hemodynamic effect
A

antihypertensive
thiazide type diuretic

Blocks the Na+/Cl- cotransporter of the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. Increased secretion of water.

Over time, lower TPR for the long term hypotensive effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

compelling indications for beta blockers

A

Heart failure with reduced EF mortality After myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

the Swan-Ganz catheter measures _____ _____ pressure. This is the “wedge pressure”. Wedge pressure = __________ pressure

A

left atrial

filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are the two most important factors in local control of the coronary artery vascular tone?

A

adenosine, hypoxia (decreased O2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

why does metabolic acidosis occur in shock?

A

with hypoxia, can’t get sufficient ATP from aerobic respiration

produce lactate through the utilization of anaerobic respiration

64
Q

what organ gets the most cardiac output?

A

liver, then kidneys

65
Q

how do you diagnose myocarditis?

A

RV sample (biopsy)

66
Q

what would you find in terms of preload (central venous pressure measurement), pump function (cardiac output) and after lad (SVR) in HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK

A

preload decreases
cardiac output decreases
afterload increases (increased SVR as a reflex)

67
Q

what septal defect is most commonly found in patients with Down syndrome?

A

AVSD

68
Q

what factors dominates vascular tone in skeletal muscle at rest?

A

the sympathetic input - tends to vasocsontrict

69
Q

what do histamine and bradykin do?

to arteries/veins
permeability

A

arteriolar vasodilation, venous constriction

increase in permeability

70
Q

define a cardiomyopathy:

A

myocardial disease leading to cardiac dysfunction

abnormality of cardiac muscle cells

71
Q

list some humeral factors? (4)

A

circulating catecholamines (indirect from the ANS)
Nitric Oxide
Vasopressin
Angiotensin 2

72
Q

what is the most important factor in skin vascular smooth muscle tone?

A

sympathetics - ANS (extrinsic)

73
Q

what is the main feature of restrictive cardiomyopathy grossly? secondary problems?

what does this mean hemodynamically? diastolic or systolic?

A

increased wall stiffness, biatrial dilation

limits ventricular stretch - causes decreased filling
DIASTOLIC dysfunction

74
Q

explain the basis of the myogenic theory: what happens when a vessel is stretched?

A

when vascular smooth muscle is stretched, it contracts

75
Q

Norepinephrine

receptor(s)?
function?

most commonly used to treat:

A

alpha-1 and beta-1 adrenergic receptors

potent vasoconstriction as well as an increase in cardiac output (HR, force)

septic shock

76
Q

what is the most common finding in the sudden death of a young athlete?

what would you find on autopsy? grossly, histo

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (genetic)

hypertrophy LV septum
disarray of muscle fibers on autopsy pathology

77
Q

what are the two key findings in a NORMAL lateral CXR

A
  1. The clear triangles (should be clear in a normal patient)
    Retrosternal
    Retrotracheal
    Retrocardiac
  2. The spine should become more visible towards the diaphragm
78
Q

what happens to the heart anatomy with an ASD over time?

lungs?

A

RV hypertrophy, RV/RA dilatation (right heart enlargement)

could cause pulmonary vascular occlusive disease

79
Q

what could cause blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on chest x-ray?

A

PLEURAL EFFUSIONS

80
Q

why does cardiac output increase during exercise?

A

HR and SV increased significantly

81
Q

the formation of NO is stimulated by two things, what are they?

A
  1. Agonists (Ach, bradykinin, thrombin, substance P)

2. Shear stress

82
Q

what are the (2) methods to help prevent formation of pulmonary edema?

A

1) starling forces favor fluid resorption in lung (oncotic pressure high)
2) significant lymphatic system

83
Q

what is the largest problem in the persistent truncus arteriosus after the baby is born?

A

since the circulations are mixed, the decreasing pulmonary resistance in the lungs after birth makes all the blood flow there

early CHF

84
Q

what are the findings grossly of arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy?

is it a systolic or diastolic finding?

A

fibrosis and fatty replacement of ventricles, especially the R ventricle! R ventricular dilatation

systolic - decreased contractility with arrhythmias, can result in sudden death at a young age

85
Q

what would you find in terms of preload (central venous pressure measurement), pump function (cardiac output) and after lad (SVR) in CARDIOGENIC SHOCK

A
preload increases (backup of blood)
cardiac output decreased (impaired heart function)
afterload increases (SVR increased as a reflex)
86
Q

list the 5 common features of shock:

A
  1. hypotension
  2. cold/clammy skin
  3. oliguria
  4. change in mental status
  5. metabolic acidosis
87
Q

vasopressin (ADH) does what (2)?

what releases it?

A

released by posterior pituitary

acts on collecting ducts to decrease secretion water, also a potent vasoconstrictor

88
Q

how does a child compensate for coarctation of the aorta if they survived infancy (2)?

what physical findings (3)?

A

LV hypertrophy
collateral flow

hypertension in arms, decreased femoral pulses, rib notching

89
Q

K+, H+, lactate, adenosine, CO2

tend to cause:

A

smooth muscle relaxation - vasodilation

90
Q

calcium channel blockers

adverse side effects
DDI

A

hypotension, headache (vasodilation), constipation, heart failure, AV block
DDI - with drugs acting on AV node (do not take diltiazem and a beta blocker or digoxin for example)

91
Q

what is the primary way by which the coronary blood flow is regulated?

A

local metabolic control

92
Q

when severe, pulmonary hypertension can cause _____________ syndrome

A

Eisenmenger

93
Q

what would you find in terms of preload (central venous pressure measurement), pump function (cardiac output) and after lad (SVR) in DISTRIBUTIVE SHOCK

A
preload (less or equal)
cardiac output (increases to try to make up for decreased SVR)
afterload decreases (SVR decreased significantly)
94
Q

the __________ (diastolic, systolic) cardiomyopathies generally result in arrhythmias

A

systolic

dilatation!

95
Q

in dilated cardiomyopathy, what is the main finding grossly?

is the problem systolic or diastolic? why?

A

massive dilation of all 4 chambers (BIG HEART)

systolic - unable to contract as strongly, biventricular heart failure

96
Q

in TAPVR - total anomalous pulmonary venous return, what is the problem?

A

there is no connection between pulmonary veins and L atrium

atrium does not get oxygenated blood (obligate R to L shunt - CYANOSIS)

97
Q

what are the most common causes/associations of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A
amyloidosis (50%) - lodge in myocardium - stiff
blood eosinophilia (35%)
sarcoidosis

NOT necessarily familial

98
Q

what are the features of a complete AVSD?

A

ASD, VSD, and a COMMON AV valve (batman logo)

99
Q

what is the most important factor in cerebral vascular smooth muscle tone?

A

local metabolic control (intrinsic)

100
Q

what is the most important factor in coronary vascular smooth muscle tone?

A

local metabolites (intrinsic)

101
Q

what are the main cause(s) of arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy?

A

familial

102
Q

why does stroke volume increase during exercise?

A

sympathetic input to beta-1, increased contractility, decreased ESV

increased venous return (many mechanisms), increased EDV

103
Q

what are the most common causes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

GENETIC (100%) in cardiac sarcomeric proteins

104
Q

what is the most important factor in renal vascular smooth muscle tone?

A

local metabolic control (intrinsic)

105
Q

what is the characteristic primary physiologic derangement of cariogenic shock

A

decrease in pump function

106
Q

what is the murmur in pulmonary valve stenosis?

A

harsh, systolic ejection murmur

107
Q

Dobutamine

receptor(s)
effect

A

beta-1 agonist (selective)

increase HR and force

108
Q

what determines the prognosis in tetralogy of fallot?

A

degree of sub-pulmonic stenosis

109
Q

what are the two key findings in a NORMAL lateral CXR

A
  1. The clear triangles (should be clear in a normal patient)
    Retrosternal
    Retrotracheal
    Retrocardiac
  2. The spine should become more visible towards the diaphragm
110
Q

what is the incidence of Eisenmengers syndrome in atrial septal defects?

Large VSDs? Small VSDs?

A

10% - ASD

100% - large VSD

0% small VSD

111
Q

who should you NOT give beta blockers to? (6)

5 - conditions
1 - drug adverse reaction

A

people with asthma, COPD, AV block, severe unstable heart failure, occlusive peripheral vascular disease

OR anyone that is taking drugs that impair AV conduction (digoxin, some Ca channel blockers)

112
Q

what blood vessel has the most amount of vascular basal tone?

A

skeletal muscle

113
Q

hydrazine

use
mechanism
hemodynamics
adverse effects

A

antihypertensive - second line

Mechanism: Direct relaxation of smooth muscle by actions that are not well understood.
Hemodynamics: Decrease in SVR.
Adverse effect: Reflex tachycardia lupus-like syndrome.

114
Q

how is the microcirculation of the heart designed to most efficiently extract O2 from blood? (2)

A

the capillary density of the heart is much greater

the cardiac muscle cells are smaller

decreased travel distance –> increased efficiency

115
Q

in what types of shock is administration of fluids the initial treatment needed?

next line?

A

hypovolemic and distributive shock

vasopressors (sympathomimetics)

116
Q

what are the main problems and outcomes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

decreasing filling because of decreased LV compliance, ventricular arrhythmias can cause sudden death at a young age

ALSO can block outflow track (syncope with exercise)

117
Q

pulmonary hypertension is seen most common with what congenital heart defect?

what histo changes can be seen due to the increased blood pressure in lungs?

A

ventricular septal defects

hypertrophy, plexiform lesions

118
Q

Blood flow in coronary arteries ________ during heart contraction. why? (2)

A
  1. the arteries are compressed (increased resistance, decreased flow)
  2. the aortic valve flaps up against the openings
119
Q

what kind of murmur would you hear with a AVSD?

A

a systolic ejection murmur at the pulmonic valve

increased flow

120
Q

drug for hypertensive emergencies:

A

sodium nitroprusside

121
Q

which has a higher basal tone? kidney or skeletal muscle?

why?

A

skeletal muscle, there is a greater vasodilatory reserve

122
Q

what is the ebstein anomaly?

A

displacement of tricuspid valve leaflets downward into RV

Associated with tricuspid regurgitation and right HF.

123
Q

what is the initial problem in embryology leading to transposition of the great arteries??

A

the conotruncal septum does not spiral. it divides but does not spiral

124
Q

define the blood pressures for hypertension

A

systolic > 140, diastolic > 90

125
Q

name three general mechanisms in which to change the basal tone of a vessel:

A
  1. direct autonomic control (sympathetics)
  2. humeral factors
  3. local myogenic and metabolic factors
126
Q

on histology, you find inflammatory cells in the myocardium, causing myocyte damage. What is this disease?

A

myocarditis

127
Q

how does NO (once formed) cause vasodilation?

A

produces cGMP, activating the phosphatase to dephosphorylate myosin, relaxation

128
Q

what are causes of myocarditis? (4)

A
  1. infectious (viral, bacterial, etc)
  2. autoimmune reactions (SLE, drug reactions)
  3. rejection of heart transplant
  4. idiopathic (i.e. sarcoidosis)
129
Q

what is the treatment for a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

indomethacin - decreases prostaglandin E, which closes the shunt

130
Q

diltiazem

use/class
mechanism
hemodynamic effect
A

antihypertensive, non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

Bind to L-type Ca++ channel, decrease amount of calcium available for vascular smooth muscle and cardiac muscle contraction.

ALSO decreases AV node and contractility.

vasodilation, decrease SVR, increase BP

131
Q

what is the prevalence of Eisenmengers in PDA? what does it cause?

A

80%, causes lower extremity cyanosis

132
Q

losartan:

use/class
mechanism 
hemodynamic effect
A

antihypertensive

angiotensin receptor blocker

decreases SVR (heart rate and output unchanged), decreasing BP

133
Q

do not take a calcium channel blocker (L-type Ca channels) and a medication that decreases _________ firing, such as:

A

AV node firing

a beta blocker, digoxin

134
Q

what happens to blood pressure in a trained individual? why?

A

it decreases due to more compliant large arteries

135
Q

what are the 4 things you see in tetralogy of fallot?

A
  1. Sub-pulmonic valve stenosis
  2. R ventricular hypertrophy
  3. VSD
  4. overriding aorta
136
Q

benazepril

use/class
mechanism 
hemodynamic effect
A

antihypertensive, ACE-I

inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) to reduce formation of angiotensin 2 and aldosterone, also inhibits lysis of bradykinin

decreases SVR, decreasing BP

137
Q

what is the main goal of surgery in tricuspid atresia/single ventricle

A

separate the pulmonary and systemic circulations

138
Q

Dopamine

low dose
medium dose
high dose

A

Low dose: dopamine-1 receptors in the renal, mesenteric, cerebral, and coronary beds, resulting in selective vasodilation

Moderate dose: beta-1 adrenergic receptors and increases cardiac output (HR, force)

High doses, alpha-1 receptors –> vasoconstriction with an increased SVR.

Dopamine may be used in hypotension due to sepsis or cardiac failure, but is not a first line drug for either

139
Q

NO is released by __________ cells and promotes ________

A

endothelial cells

vasorelaxation

140
Q

what does bradykinin do?

what breaks it down?

A

vasodilator - releases NO

ACE

141
Q

metropolol

what is it
adverse effects

A

cardioselective beta blocker

aggravation of severe HF, aggravation occlusive arterial disease, slows AV conduction

142
Q

what are the most common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?

what is the treatment?

A

familial (60%)
alcoholism
pregnancy
previous myocarditis

transplant

143
Q

why is the baby cyanotic in persistent truncus arteriosus?

A

the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are mixed in the common trunk before getting to their circulations

144
Q

what do patients do in response to cyanotic spells (tet spells) when they have tetralogy of fallot?

A

they squat

kink femoral arteries, increase SVR, decrease the R to L degree of shunting

145
Q

what is the characteristic primary physiologic derangement of hypovolemic shock

A

decreased preload

146
Q

sympathetic direct innervation will cause vasoconstriction at the ______ receptors and vasodilation of vessels that have ______ receptors

A

alpha-1 - vasoconstriction

beta-2 (skeletal muscle)

147
Q

in pulmonary valve atresia with an intact ventricular septum, what do you need? what do you find in the heart secondarily?

A

need intact PDA

hypoplasic tricuspid valve and RV

148
Q

what cardiomyopathy is unique in mainly affecting the Right Ventricle?

A

arrythmogenic cardiomyopathy

fibrosis, fatty replacement, and dilatation of RV

149
Q

in a sedentary person vs an athlete, what is the difference in CO? why?

A

there is no difference in CO

the HR decreases and SV increases in an athlete

150
Q

in isolated pulmonary valve stenosis (CHD), what are the secondary cardiac findings?

A

RVH
tricuspid regurgitation
dilatation pulmonary artery RA

151
Q

Epinephrine

receptor(s)
function (low dose/high dose)

uses

A

beta-1, beta-2, alpha-1

Low doses: increase CO (beta-1), vasoconstriction (alpha-1) is offset by the vasodilation (beta-2).

Higher doses, the alpha-1 effect predominates beta-2 producing an increase in SVR in addition to an increase in CO.

anaphylaxis

152
Q

drugs that end in “-sartan” are:

A

angiotensin receptor blockers

153
Q

losartan

what is it?
adverse drug effects

A

a angiotensin receptor blocker

TERATOGEN, renal failure, hyperkalemia
*less of a cough and less angioedema than ACEI

154
Q

is the ability of the organ to maintain its blood supply in the face of changing perfusion pressure
(without even help from innervation - an extrinsic factor)

A

autoregulation

155
Q

the difference between what two things is vascular tone?

A

basal flow to maximal flow

156
Q

how (molecularly) is NO activated?

A

shear stress or an agonist opens calcium channels on the surface of endothelial cells

calcium –> nitric oxide synthase –> NO formed –> smooth muscle

157
Q

what is the initial problem in embryology leading to tetralogy of fallot?

A

the conotruncal septum deviating anteriorly