General Review - Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Under the double basis rule, no ______ is recognized if the donee sells the property at a price that is _____

A

no gain/loss is recognized if the donee sells the property at a price that is between the donor’s adjusted basis and the FMV on the date of the gift

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2
Q

Are proceeds from an installment sale considered earned income for Social security purposes?

A

NO

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3
Q

Social security benefits may be reduced for individuals ______ with _____

A

under full retirement age with earned income above certain levels

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4
Q

If you reach full retirement age and have earned income, can your social security be reduced?

A

NO

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5
Q

Individuals can deduct up to ______ of rental real estate losses against active and portfolio income, provided they are ______ and own more than ______ of all interests in the activity

A

$25k, provided they are active in the management and own more than 10% of all interests in the activity - reduced by 50% of AGI in excess of $100k up to $150k

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6
Q

Defined contribution plans must vest at LEAST as rapidly as ____- or _____

A

3 year cliff or 2-6 year graded vesting

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7
Q

The ratio percentage test for nondiscrimination =

A

(% of NHC employees covered) / (% of HCE covered) > 70%

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8
Q

The average benefits test for nondiscrimination =

A

NHC % benefit / HCE % benefit

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9
Q

Fluctuating cash flows can make a _____ a good plan type

A

profit-sharing plan

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10
Q

Imputed interest on an interest-free loan is considered a gift if the loan is over ______ or if the recipient has _____ in excess of ______

A

loan over $100k or net investment income over $1k

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11
Q

A CRUT pays a particular _____ of the trust assets each year

A

particular %

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12
Q

Gift loans of ____ or less are not subject to gift tax unless the donee uses the proceeds to ______

A

gift loans less than $10k not subject, unless used to buy income-producing property

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13
Q

Premiums for excess group life insurance over ______ have to be included in gross income

A

over $50k - use the IRC group term premium per $1,000

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14
Q

SMAs offer _______ portfolios and ______

A

customized and asset-based fee structures

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15
Q

Employee elective deferrals into section 401(k) plans are subject to _____ but not to _____

A

subject to FICA but not to federal income tax

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16
Q

To qualify as a CRAT, CRUT, or CLAT, the trust has to be _____

A

irrevocable

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17
Q

If you expect to die within 3-5 years and have a big life insurance policy, what is the most pressing estate consideration?

A

transfer the life insurance policy to someone else

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18
Q

If you supplied all the consideration for an account, will changing it to JTWROS help your estate plan?

A

NO - because 100% of the account will be included in your estate

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19
Q

What is the maximum LTCL you can take in one year against income?

A

$3k

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20
Q

Is child support excluded from gross income?

A

YES

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21
Q

Is alimony excluded from gross income?

A

NO

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22
Q

Are gifts included in gross income?

A

NO

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23
Q

Under the at-risk rules, you cannot deduct more than your ______

A

invested capital “at risk”

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24
Q

For involuntary conversion of real property due to natural events, the reinvestment period is _____; for acts of government/eminent domain, it is _____; if into cash, nonrecgonition is ______

A
nature = 2 years
govt = 3 years
cash = norecognition is elective
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25
Q

To get to net capital gain/loss, can you net ST and LT against each other?

A

YES

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26
Q

For the related party rule, if you sell something to a related party (e.g. son) for a gain or loss, you cannot _______

A

recognize it

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27
Q

For the related party rule, if you were the recipient of the property and then subsequently sell it, you can reduce your gain up to the amount of the gain by the original seller’s ______

A

loss

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28
Q

Is the grant date of an NQSO or ISO the date that W-2 income is created?

A

NO for either

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29
Q

Once vested, can NQSOs and ISOs be exercised and the stock sold immediately?

A

YES

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30
Q

Only defined benefit pension plans (including ______ ) are _____

A

including cash balance pension plans are covered by the PBGC

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31
Q

Because SEPs are funded with IRAs, it cannot have a ____-

A

loan provision

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32
Q

Do SEPs require a specific employer contribution each year?

A

NO

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33
Q

Age-based profit sharing plans favor _____

A

older employees

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34
Q

All pension plans must provide a qualified ______ annuity and ______annuity

A

preretirement survivor annuity and a joint and survivor annuity

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35
Q

If you defer your RMD until April 1 following reaching 70.5, you must then take _____

A

another RMD in that same year (can’t wait till April 1 for subsequent RMDs)

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36
Q

Tenants by entirety can only be owned by ____

A

spouses

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37
Q

Each owner for tenants by entirety have an _____ interest

A

equal ownership interest

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38
Q

For tenants by entirety, transfer of property requires _____

A

consent from both owners

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39
Q

Probate does not include any property that passes by ____, ____, or ______

A

by law, by contract, or under the terms of a trust

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40
Q

If a stock is not traded on a gift date, then the stock price is the value before and after the gift date multiplied and divided by the number of ____-

A

TRADING days

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41
Q

For gifts where the FMV is less than the donor’s adj basis, the donee’s basis for determining a loss is the ____, the donee’s basis for a gain is the donor’s ______

A

for a loss, it is the FMV, for a gain it is the donor’s adjusted basis

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42
Q

In determining adj basis for the donee of loss property, are gift taxes paid included in the basis?

A

NO

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43
Q

If someone has diminished capacity, is referring them to medical providers part of your fiduciary responsibility?

A

YES

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44
Q

A transfer to a spouse or ex-spouse, regardless of age, is or is not subject to GSTT?

A

IS NOT

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45
Q

A spouse or former spouse of the transferor’s lineal descendant is assigned to the same ______

A

generation as the lineal descendant

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46
Q

If a grandchild’s parents die, can you give them a gift and avoid GSTT?

A

YES

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47
Q

Would adjusted basis in a property be listed on a statement of financial position?

A

NO - only FMV

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48
Q

If you’re thinking of moving in 3-5 years, what kind of mortgage should you consider?

A

ARM

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49
Q

Are contributions to a CESA tax deductible?

A

NO

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50
Q

Elementary school and secondary school tuition up to ____ per year is considered qualified expense under section 529 plans

A

up to $10k

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51
Q

Can Series EE bonds be used for high school expenses?

A

NO

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52
Q

Debts that are not dischargeable under chapter 7 are:

A

international tort claims, alimony obligations, child support, student loans, govt loans, and recent federal income taxes due

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53
Q

Does FDIC insure an IRA in addition to a joint or individual account?

A

YES, separate account category

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54
Q

Option A for UL policies is the ____

A

level death benefit option (only includes face amount)

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55
Q

Option B for UL policies the ______

A

increasing death benefit (death benefit equals the face plus cash value)

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56
Q

Are perkins loans needs-based?

A

YES

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57
Q

Medicare Part A pays for skilled nursing for the first ____ days

A

20

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58
Q

Does Medicare part A provide coverage for custodial care provided in a nursing home?

A

NO

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59
Q

Voluntary or involuntary termination qualifies an individual for _____ months of COBRA

A

18 months

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60
Q

Whenever a position created from an ISO is sold, it will have a ____ AMT adjustment

A

negative

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61
Q

Is selecting a random set of stocks for a portfolio indicative of a belief in EMH?

A

YES - for the test

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62
Q

A coupon rate and duration have a direct or inverse relationship?

A

inverse

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63
Q

AMTI calculation includes:

A
  • excess depletion deduction over the adjusted basis

- excess of FMV above the exercise price for freely transferable ISOs

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64
Q

Can you claim a dependent for yourself and your spouse?

A

YES - you would get 2 dependents

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65
Q

For charitable contributions you can deduct the FMV up to ____ of AGI, or the adjusted basis up to ____ of AGI

A

FMV up to 30% of AGI, or adjusted basis up to 50% of AGI

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66
Q

Under the kiddie tax rules, unearned income in excess of ______ will be taxed at estates and trusts tax rate

A

in excess of $2,100

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67
Q

Section 1202 stock must be held for ____ years in order to exclude the gain from taxable income

A

5 years

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68
Q

The section 121 gain exclusion for a primary residence (gains up to $250k are not taxable) does NOT apply to ______

A

vacation or other use properties

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69
Q

If you reinvest the dividends in a mutual fund, then the dividends are _____ to your cost basis

A

added to

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70
Q

The shortcut for calculated alimony recapture in year 3 =

A

P1 + P2 - 2xP3 - $37,500

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71
Q

Can you make a one time trustee-to-trustee transfer from an IRA to an HSA?

A

YES - but subject to the max HSA contribution ($3,450 for 2018)

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72
Q

HCE is anyone who owns more than _____ of had comp greater than _____

A

5% or comp greater than $120k

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73
Q

The max benefit under a traditional def bene plan is the lesser of _______ for 2018 or the average of the highest consecutive three years of comp

A

$220k

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74
Q

For trad IRA, you can contribute the lesser of your _______ or the IRS limit

A

earned income

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75
Q

Can you collterize a SCIN?

A

YES

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76
Q

Private annuities cannot be secured by collateral T/F

A

TRUE

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77
Q

Qualified disclaimers must be made within ____ months of creation of the interest

A

9 months

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78
Q

The only two exceptions to the alternate valuation date for estates are _____ assets and assets _____ before the AVD

A

wasting assets (patents, annuities, installment notes) and assets disposed of before the AVD

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79
Q

Traditionally, a financial planner does NOT owe contractual duties to a third person, however an exception exists when the third party ______

A

relies on statements prepared by the financial planner

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80
Q

If you withdraw funds from a Roth IRA (after 5 year holding period) for college tuition, will you get hit with the 10% penalty?

A

NO - but you will have to pay income tax on earnings after all contribution and conversion amounts are withdrawn

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81
Q

For an employer-employee loan, the corporation will accrue ______ and additional _____, but their taxable income will _____

A

accrue interest income and additional comp expense, but their taxable income will not be affected

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82
Q

If you use a corporate loan to go on vacation, do you incur imputed interest as an addition to your net income?

A

YES

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83
Q

If a loan is classified as a corporation-shareholder loan, will the corporations taxable income increase due to imputed interest?

A

YES

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84
Q

Can you reduce your basis in a property by construction costs?

A

NO

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85
Q

A private placement is limited to ______ unaccredited investors but is available to an unlimited number of accredited investors

A

35

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86
Q

Are defined benefit plans more costly than defined contribution plans?

A

YES

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87
Q

Insurance proceeds payable to a divorced spouse because of death of the former spouse are taxable income or not?

A

NOT

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88
Q

LIFO recapture applies only to _____

A

S CORPS

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89
Q

A C corp could be subject to the following three taxes:

A
  • personal service corporation tax
  • accumulated earnings tax
  • personal holding company tax
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90
Q

Is a niece considered a skip person for GSTT?

A

NO

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91
Q

A non-related person more than _____ years younger than the transferor is considered a skip person for GSTT

A

37.5 years

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92
Q

Employers with more than ____ cannot offer a SIMPLE

A

100 employees

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93
Q

Are money purchase pension plan contributions flexible?

A

NO - fixed percentage of compensation

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94
Q

IF you are an older business owner, would you benefit more from a money purchase pension plan or a traditional defined benefit plan?

A

traditional defined benefit because you have fewer years till retirement

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95
Q

Standard deviation is a measure of ______ risk

A

TOTAL (systematic and unsystematic)

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96
Q

If you think a meeting will not be productive because the client is not focused, what should yo do?

A

RESCHEDULE

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97
Q

Do ESOPs and stock bonus plans INCREASE or DECREASE cash flow for the company?

A

INCREASE because contributions are made in stock

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98
Q

When can a professional corporation NOT establish an ESOP or stock bonus plan?

A

when state law requires all shareholders of a prof corp to be licensed professionals

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99
Q

If a business owners annual retirement funding goal exceeds allowable contributions for other plans, what should they adopt?

A

defined benefit pension plan (part-time employees need not be covered)

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100
Q

Personal casualty losses are only deductible if they are caused by a ______ disaster

A

federally declared

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101
Q

Are alimony payments deductible for AGI?

A

YES

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102
Q

Can you deduct union dues?

A

NO

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103
Q

In a community property state, spouses own an ______ in all community property accumulated during their marriage

A

equal and undivided interest

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104
Q

Only the portion of property owned by the decedent can be transferred by ____

A

will

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105
Q

What is the maximum % premium for COBRA?

A

102%

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106
Q

Does a market average or a market index reflect the average price behavior or a group of stocks at any given point in time?

A

market AVERAGE

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107
Q

Gift taxes paid out of pocket are ONLY excluded from the gross estate if the donor’s date of death is not within _____ of the gift

A

3 years

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108
Q

The current value of a gift for a GRAT or GRUT is equal to the FMV of the assets transferred less the PV of the _____ retained by the grantor

A

PV of the income interest retained by the grantor

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109
Q

A retirement plan can cover any portion of the workforce, as long as it satisfies ______ under section 410(b)

A

1 out of 3

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110
Q

The three tests under section 410(b) are ______

A

percentage test, ratio test, the average benefit percentage test

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111
Q

Pretax retirement plan contributions can be converted to a Roth IRA by any of 4 methods:

A
  1. An amount distributed from a traditional IRA can be rolled over to a Roth IRA within 60 days after the distribution.
  2. An amount in a traditional IRA can be transferred in a trustee-to-trustee transfer from the trustee of the traditional IRA to the trustee of the Roth IRA.
  3. An amount in a traditional IRA can be transferred to a Roth IRA maintained by the same trustee.
  4. Amounts in a qualified plan described in IRC Section 401(a) can be converted directly to a Roth IRA.
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112
Q

If you retain a life estate in a gifted property and then die, is the FMV at death included in your gross estate?

A

YES

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113
Q

Is the sharpe ratio useful for measuring non-diversified as well as diversified portfolios?

A

YES - because it uses TOTAL risk

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114
Q

Even if you use a credit card to pay for tuition, does that get discharged in bankruptcy?

A

YES - all credit card debt, no matter the use of the funds

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115
Q

What form does an INDIVIDUAL use to register with FINRA?

A

U-4 (firms use ADV)

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116
Q

Do phantom stock plans have an exercise date controlled by the employer?

A

YES

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117
Q

How to phantom stock plans pay benefits?

A

in CASH

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118
Q

Are phantom stock plans funded or unfunded?

A

UNFUNDED

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119
Q

Does ERISA or the DOL monitor fiduciaries for retirement plans?

A

DOL

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120
Q

Does a SEP plan allow employee contributions or loans?

A

NO, neither

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121
Q

Does a cash balance pension plan require mandatory funding?

A

YES

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122
Q

does a SIMPLE allow loans?

A

NO

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123
Q

The collateral source rule states that a person who commits a tort is liable for _____

A

full damages

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124
Q

The collateral source rule states that a person who commits a tort is liable for full damages, even if the plaintiff has ____

A

other sources available for recovery

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125
Q

The collateral source rule prevents a person who commits a tort from benefiting from _____

A

fortuitous circumstances

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126
Q

Under the Employer Educational Assistance Program, an employer can reimburse an employee’s tuition, enrollment fees, books, supplies, and equipment up to _____ per year

A

$5,250

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127
Q

Would you disclose your compensation arrangement prior to having a client fill out a risk management questionnaire?

A

YES

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128
Q

Can you ever be reinstated if your CFP marks have to revoked?

A

NO - permanent

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129
Q

The Principle of Diligence includes properly ______ subordinates or other who provide professional advice in the engagement

A

supervising

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130
Q

If someone has no savings, would you have them start a savings account or defer into a 401(k) as a first step?

A

start savings account

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131
Q

Are the CFP Principles legally binding?

A

NO

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132
Q

Are the Rules of Conduct legally binding on all certificants, regardless of a title, position, type of employment, or method of comp?

A

YES

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133
Q

Any act that violates state criminal law constitutes ground for CFP discipline, even if the act did not occur in the course of a ______ or if they are acquitted of criminal charges

A

in the course of a client relationship

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134
Q

Bait and switch advertising is prohibited by the _____

A

FTC

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135
Q

Consumer debts should be no more than ______ of net income

A

20%

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136
Q

Are UGMA assets considered for financial aid?

A

YES - they are in the child’s name

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137
Q

If you have a written contract and fail to provide the services contained within, you may be liable for _____

A

breach of contract

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138
Q

Changing a client’s beliefs and attitudes towards financial decision making is using the _____ approach to financial counseling

A

cognitive-behavioral

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139
Q

Land can never be depreciated for income tax purposes T/F

A

TRUE

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140
Q

The IRS limit for audits on a tax return with a demand to pay additional taxes is ______

A

3 years after the taxpayer filed the return in question

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141
Q

Under the transfer-for-value rules, when the transfer is to a transferee whose basis in the policy is determined by reference to the transferor’s basis (tax-free exchange or gift), the resulting death benefit is _____

A

not taxable to the transferee

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142
Q

Regular C corps with gross income greater than _____ for their most recent 3 years are prohibited from using the _____ method

A

cash

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143
Q

Stepped-up basis is not available when a donor gives property to a donee in anticipation of their death, and their will has the property going back to the donor. T/F

A

TRUE - no stepped up basis

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144
Q

If a child of a taxpayer is under the age of ____ or if the child is full-time student under the age of ____, then the _____ is waived

A

if they are under the age of 19 or full-time student under the age of 24, then the income test is waived

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145
Q

What is the max deduction for student loan interest?

A

$2,500

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146
Q

Life insurance policy dividends are not _____ unless the aggregate dividends received exceed the _______

A

are not taxable unless the agg dividends exceed the basis int the contract

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147
Q

Section 1231 defines property used in a trade or business as ______ or _____

A

depreciable or real property

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148
Q

Section 1231 property must be held for more than _____ and excludes:

A

more than 12 months and excludes

  • inventory
  • property primarily for sale
  • copyrights
  • certain publications of the US gov’t
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149
Q

The capital gains rate on section 1202 stock is _____

A

28%

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150
Q

S corp elections must be made no later than the _____ of the ____ month of the current tax year

A

15th day of the 3rd month of the current tax year

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151
Q

Do all S corp shareholders have to be US citizens or residents?

A

YES

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152
Q

To determine the loss on the sale of a gift, the donee’s basis is the lower of the ____ or the _____

A

lower of the donor’s basis or the FMV at the time of the gift

153
Q

Is a GP considered a distinct separate entity for tax purposes?

A

NO

154
Q

Can S corps deduct salaries, group health insurance, entertainment reimbursements, or premiums for group term insurance?

A

NO - S corps are pass-through entities

155
Q

MLPs trade on an _____ or ____

A

organized exchange or OTC

156
Q

Can you deduct passive rental real estate losses against other non-passive income?

A

YES, but up to phase outs

157
Q

When is a C corp subject to the accumulated earnings tax?

A

when they unreasonably accumulate earnings and don’t pay a dividend

158
Q

Non-business bad debts are deductible only as ______

A

short-term capital losses and must be taken in the year the debt becomes completely worthless

159
Q

When determining gain of property acquired by gift, the general rule is that when a person has property given to him as a gift, the recipient’s basis is _________ who did not acquire the property by gift. The recipient, however, is entitled to adjust the basis for any _______ he or the donor is required to pay on the net appreciation in the value of the gift.

A

same as the donor’s or last preceding owners basis who did not acquire the property by gift - can adjust for any gift taxes

160
Q

For additional taxes owed due to negligence, the penalty is _____ on the amount due to negligence

A

20%

161
Q

Is your state tax deduction on your federal returns reduced by any state tax refund?

A

NO

162
Q

The amortization period for intangibles is generally ______

A

180 months

163
Q

The day or disposition is included in the holding period for LT/ST gains T/F

A

TRUE - the day of acquisition is NOT

164
Q

S corp income on a K-1 is or is not considered self-employment income?

A

IS NOT

165
Q

Can you establish a Keogh plan as an S corp?

A

NO because Keogh plans require self-employment income and S corp income is NOT self-employment income

166
Q

A defaulted loan is only deductible as a bad debt if the loan consists of a ______ for repayment and isn’t based on some other _____

A

legal obligation for repayment, not based on some other event

167
Q

Is a business computer a capital asset or section 1231 property?

A

section 1231 property

168
Q

A ______ is any asset that is not a copyright or creative work, accounts or notes receivable, depreciable property used in a trade or business or for production of income (such as a computer), or inventory.

A

capital asset

169
Q

Are built-in gains for S corps that were formerly C corps paid by the shareholders or the S corp?

A

the S corp itself, not its shareholders

170
Q

Why might a corporation elect S corp status?

A

when losses are anticipated at the start up of the business (can use to offset individual tax returns)

171
Q

Is gain/loss from section 1231 property considered ordinary or capital?

A

ordinary

172
Q

Are losses from oil and gas working interests for which taxpayers are personally liable deductible from active or portfolio losses without limit?

A

YES

173
Q

The standard deduction for a dependent is limited to the greater of ______ or _______

A

$1,050 or earned income plus $350

174
Q

Dividends are taxable to the recipient as dividend income to the extent of _______ and ____

A

accumulated earnings and profits

175
Q

Suspended passive losses are allowed as a reduction of AGI if it is a ______ of the property

A

disposition

176
Q

Is municipal bond interest included in AGI?

A

NO - although could be in AMT

177
Q

All inherited property is considered ______ upon disposition

A

long term

178
Q

Are US savings bond subject to state income tax?

A

NO - but they are subject to federal income tax

179
Q

If the premiums for life insurance are NOT tax deductible, are the proceeds considered income?

A

NO

180
Q

Material participation criteria:

A
  • more than 500 hours
  • material participant for 5 of last 10 years
  • participates more than 100 hours and more than number of hours by partners
  • if your participation constitutes substantially all of the participation
181
Q

A C corp that is not a personal service corporation may offset active income (but not portfolio income) with _____

A

passive losses

182
Q

If a security becomes worthless, the loss is treated as if it occurred on the ____ and the holding period is _____

A

occurred on last day of the year and the holding period is long term

183
Q

For a limited partnership, can you use passive losses from the partnership to offset interest or dividend income?

A

NO - has to be other passive income

184
Q

If your car gets damaged can you deduct the property/casualty loss?

A

NO - only if it is because of a federally declared disaster

185
Q

If you accelerate items into income in this tax year are your more or less likely to incur AMT?

A

LESS - because it is more likely that your regular taxable income will be greater than your AMTI

186
Q

When would you capitalize expenses related to investigating business opportunities?

A

ONLY when you aren’t currently in that business - if you’re in the business already, you just expense them

187
Q

The loss on the sale of a personal-use asset is _____ for income tax purposes

A

non-deductible

188
Q

If you trade property and the newly acquired property is used for the same thing, the tax code does not require you to ______ any gain

A

recognize

189
Q

If you have a casualty loss from a federally declared disaster, what amount can you deduct?

A

The amount that exceeds 10% of AGI

190
Q

Should you sell or gift loss property for your own tax purposes?

A

SELL IT

191
Q

Can you contribute to an IRA if you don’t have earned income?

A

NO

192
Q

Constraints for an IP statement are time horizon, liquidity, _____, laws and regulation, and unique circumstances/preferences

A

taxes - market conditions are NOT a constraint

193
Q

Are STRIPS subject to reinvestment risk?

A

NO - they do not have coupon payments

194
Q

Do high duration bonds have high or low convexity?

A

HIGH

195
Q

Is semiweak an actual form of EMH?

A

NO - doesn’t exist

196
Q

Fundamental analysis is useful under the ____ form of EMH

A

weak

197
Q

Is a portfolio above the efficient frontier attainable?

A

NO

198
Q

Does a higher indifference curve indicate more or less satisfaction?

A

MORE - the higher the curve the higher the satisfaction

199
Q

The relationships between bond prices (premium, par, discount) and YTM, CY, and CR are:

A

Premium bonds: CR > CY > YTM

Par bonds: CR = CY = YTM

Discount bonds: CR < CY < YTM

200
Q

Are shares of a closed-end fund redeemable by the fund?

A

NO - they trade on the exchange

201
Q

Can closed-end funds issue more shares to raise money?

A

NO - have fixed capitalization

202
Q

Does the fed sell zero-coupon bonds?

A

NO - created by brokerage firms

203
Q

Do TBills have semiannual interest payments?

A

NO - only t notes and bonds

204
Q

The securities market line shows a security’s expected return as a function of its _____ risk

A

systematic

205
Q

Does a weak view of EMH imply that technical analysis is useless?

A

YES - because says that all historical stock price info is already in the current stock price

206
Q

If the bond price-yield relationship is linear, does that mean that over time the bond’s duration remains the same?

A

YES - remains constant

207
Q

Are convertible bonds usually secured by assets of the issuing company?

A

NO - most are not

208
Q

Do convertible bonds usually have a higher or lower YTM than non-convertible debt?

A

LOWER

209
Q

Is unsystematic risk relevant to the CAPM?

A

NO - assumes you will diversify away all unsystematic risk (uses BETA, not STDEV for the calculation)

210
Q

A limit order is an order to buy or sell at a _____ or _____ price

A

specified or better

211
Q

a stop order is an order specifying a _____ at which a market order is to take effect

A

specifying a certain price

212
Q

A market order has the _____ priority

A

HIGHEST

213
Q

If you use a DRIP, can shareholders purchase stock with a substantial reduction in commissions?

A

YES

214
Q

Seed financing is specifically for the purpose of ______

A

research and development of an idea

215
Q

Investors would like to purchase securities that show high _______ skewness and a _____ distribution

A

high positive skewness and leptokurtic distributions

216
Q

Should a portfolio manager ever adopt a STRICT buy and hold strategy regardless of client needs and changing circumstances?

A

NO

217
Q

Along with market prices, what other technical data point is important for technical analysis?

A

VOLUME

218
Q

For Series EE bonds to get tax advantaged income, the purchaser must be the _____ and must be at least _____ years old

A

must be the taxpayer and must be at least 24 years old

219
Q

If small cap stocks tend to achieve higher returns than large cap, does this provide evidence against the semistrong form of EMH?

A

YES - because market cap is public information

220
Q

Are diagnostic tests and x-rays covered under medicare part B?

A

YES - along with physicians services and outpatient hospital services

221
Q

In calculating life insurance needs , human life value is the family’s share of the _______ of the breadwinner

A

earnings of the breadwinner

222
Q

A spendthrift clause in a life insurance policy prevents a beneficiary from _______ in the policy proceeds to ______

A

from assigning their interest to someone else

223
Q

Can LT disability policies include coverage for both sickness and accidents?

A

YES

224
Q

Corporate owned life insurance (COLI) provides funds to pay the benefit in the event of an executive’s death before retirement, accumulate _____ to pay said benefit, and the employer may not ______ borrowed from COLI policies (except under limited circumstances)

A

accumulate CV to pay the benefit and the employer cannot deduct interest paid on loans borrowed from the COLI (exceptions apply)

225
Q

A proportionate benefit is paid to an insured whose earned income is reduced because of a disability - this is called a ______ disability benefit

A

residual

226
Q

S&P, AM Best, Fitch, and Moody’s all _______

A

rate insurance agencies

227
Q

If you are disabled but still able to work, the disability benefit paid is at a reduced rate and is considered ______

A

partial

228
Q

Can you exchange a variable annuity in exchange for a qualified LTC contract in a 1035 exchange?

A

YES

229
Q

Can you exchange an annuity for a life insurance policy in a 1035 exchange?

A

NO

230
Q

If you have a substantial cognitive impairment requiring substantial assistance, does that qualify you for LTC benefits?

A

YES

231
Q

Is an own occupation LTC policy the least or most expensive?

A

MOST

232
Q

What are four defenses against negligence?

A
  • contributory negligence
  • comparative negligence
  • last clear chance rule
  • assumption of risk
233
Q

In determining COBRA coverage, if an employer has 18 full time employees and 8 part time employees, do they still have to provide COBRA coverage under the 20 employee rule?

A

YES - the part time employees count as 0.5 each ,putting them over the 20 person rule

234
Q

Employer payments for group insurance premiums are ____ for the employer and _____ to the employee

A

deductible to the employer and not taxable income the employee

235
Q

There are three nonforfeiture options available when surrendering or discontinuing premium payments on a whole life insurance policy:

A
  1. policyowner can surrender the policy in return for receiving the cash surrender value of the policy.
  2. policyholder leaves the cash value with the company and receives a smaller amount of fully paid-up insurance.
  3. policyholder leaves the cash value with the insurance company in exchange for retaining the full amount of the original policy’s death benefit, but as a term insurance policy for a guaranteed period.
236
Q

Does an agent have to have contractual capacity to act as an agent of a principal?

A

NO - only the principal has to have that

237
Q

For guaranteed renewable disability policies, can a company increase premiums for a single individual?

A

NO, but they can for a class of insureds

238
Q

For life insurance, an insurable interest must exist at the ______ but not at death; for property insurance, an insurable interest must exist at both _____ and _____

A
  • life insurance must exist at inception, but not at death

- property must exist at both inception and time of loss

239
Q

Are installed sound systems, camper bodies/trailers not listed, radar detection devices, or mechanical/electrical breakdown exclusions under Part D of PAP?

A

YES

240
Q

For someone worried about forgetting a premium payment, what provision in a life insurance policy would be most appropriate?

A

automatic premium loan provision (takes the premium fro the cash value)

241
Q

Under the endorsement method split-dollar life insurance, the _____ is the owner of the policy and is also the beneficiary to the extent of premiums paid

A

the EMPLOYER

242
Q

Can both employers and employees establish HSAs?

A

YES

243
Q

Can individuals between ages 55 and 65 with a high-deductible plan made additional catch-up contributions to an HSA?

A

YES

244
Q

Particular risk is the risk of _____ and _____ risk

A

personal and individual

245
Q

Fundamental risk is risk that affects ______ and only involves the possibility of ____ or _____

A

affects large groups of people, only involves prob of loss or no loss

246
Q

A chronically ill person under HIPPA is unable to perform ____ ADLs for at least ____ days

A

2 ADLs for 90 days

247
Q

When designing a life insurance program, is retirement for the surviving spouse a consideration?

A

YES

248
Q

A term life insurance should contain both a renewal provision as well as a conversion provision, which allows the insured to exchange the policy for a _______ without evidence of insurability

A

permanent contract

249
Q

In ratings for auto coverage, does farm use receive the most favorable rating?

A

YES - because usually off road and away from traffic

250
Q

If an agent who is a minor (or some other disqualifying thing) gets you to sign a contract with a principal, can you then break the contract when you find out the issue with the agent?

A

NO - because you are really making the contract with the principal

251
Q

When an agent lacks the capacity to act as an agent, can the principal void the contract?

A

NO - only the agent can

252
Q

Coverage F for homeowner’s policies pay up to _____ for ______

A

pay up to $1k for medical expenses incurred by someone who is injured on the insured premises

253
Q

Are volcanic eruptions one of the 12 basic perils?

A

YES

254
Q

Coverage on a dwelling is on a ____ basis provided coverage is at least 80% of the replacement cost

A

on a replacement cost basis

255
Q

AM best uses public information and _____ to rate insurance agencies

A

interviews

256
Q

Coverage B for homeowners policy for detached structures = _____% of coverage A

A

10%

257
Q

Investment in an insurance contract =

A

premiums paid - dividends received - outstanding loans/withdrawals

258
Q

Gain at surrender for insurance contract =

A

CSV - investment in contract

259
Q

Liability due to negligence has ______ liability

A

UNLIMITED

260
Q

Option B death benefit for VUL is the ______ death benefit option and provides the bene with the cash value + the ______

A

increasing death benefit option, bene gets cash value and death benefit

261
Q

Coverage F covers medical payments to ____ from incidents that occur _____ the premises

A

others for incidents that occur on or off the premises

262
Q

Does coverage F (HO policies) exclude residence employees?

A

YES

263
Q

Does coverage F (HO policies) apply to the insured or members of the insured’s household?

A

NO - has to be an injury to someone else

264
Q

Under transfer-for-value rules, if a partner in a firm buys another partners life insurance, is that subject to the transfer-for-value rule?

A

NO - the death benefit would be excluded from the transferee’s gross income in that case

265
Q

To receive workers comp, must work in a _____ occupation and have a ______ accident or disease

A

work in a covered occupation and have a work-related accident or disease

266
Q

Medicare Part B is a ____ annual deductible and requires _____ coinsurance

A

$183 annual deductible and a 20% coinsurance

267
Q

The cash and coin limit for HO policies is ______

A

$200

268
Q

Special damages represent compensation for _____ losses

A

measurable

269
Q

If your out-of-pocket for a health plan is over the $6,650 limit, is it a high deductible plan and can you open an HSA?

A

NO because it is over the limit

270
Q

Does a health care plan have to be employer sponsored for you to be eligible for an HSA?

A

NO

271
Q

Is there a penalty for drawing a loan on a MEC prior to age 59.5?

A

Yes 10% on the amount that is a taxable gain (CSV - investment in contract)

272
Q

A section 162 plan is an executive bonus plan and the ____ is the policyowner

A

employee, employer contributes the premiums and gets a tax deduction (often will pay the taxes to cover the taxable income for the employee as a result)

273
Q

COBRA benefits are for ___ months if the covered empliyee dies

A

36 months

274
Q

Limited-pay whole life premiums are paid over a _____

A

specific time frame

275
Q

For ISO proceeds upon sale to be considered LTCG, it has to be sold more than ____ after exercise and _____ from the grant date - otherwise it is W-2 comp

A

1 year from exercise, 2 years from grant date

276
Q

If an agent issues conditional receipts, which form of authority is this under?

A

express authority because her agency agreement states she can do this

277
Q

The max salary reduction for dependent care FSA is _____

A

$5k

278
Q

The maximum amount for reimbursement of incurred medical expenses of an employee under the health FSA is _____ for 2018

A

$2,650

279
Q

Can FSAs be used for self-employed persons or partners?

A

NO

280
Q

When a non-natural person such as a corporation owns an annuity, gains on the contract are taxed as ____ and losses are treated as _____

A

gains taxed as ordinary income, losses treated as ordinary losses

281
Q

Is a PLUP applicable during any of the life cycle phases?

A

YES

282
Q

Did ERISA set up the PBGC?

A

YES - but remember only for defined benefit plans

283
Q

LESOPs and ESOPs are the most commong types of ____ plans

A

stock bonus

284
Q

A defined contribution plan can satisfy the permitted disparity (integration) rules only if it uses the _____ method integration formula

A

excess

285
Q

Defined Contribution plans cannot use the ______ method formula because they have no promised ______

A

cannot use the offset method because there is no promised benefit

286
Q

Defined benefit pension plans can use either the _____ or the _____ method for integration

A

offset or excess

287
Q

If a qualified plan is terminated, the law provides that participants in the plan become _____ in account balances or ______

A

account balances (def contribution) or accrued benefits (defined bene)

288
Q

The only plans that are exempt from the 10% limit on investing in employer securities are ______, stock bonus plans, ______, and any other kind of profit-sharing plan

A

profit sharing plans, stock bonus plans, and thrift/savings plans and any other kind of profit sharing plan

289
Q

Do stock bonus plans provide the employer with a deduction for plan contributions?

A

YES

290
Q

Do section 457 plans have early withdrawal penalties?

A

NO

291
Q

Is tax destructibility of contributions a consideration when establishing a TSA or 457 plan?

A

NO because set up by already tax-exempt entities

292
Q

Qualified nonelective and qualified matching contributions are two methods an employer may use if the _____/_____ tests are violated - both are 100% vested

A

ADP/ACP

293
Q

Matching contributions that are designed to meet safe harbor rules are ______ vested

A

100%

294
Q

Top-heavy employer contributions are full vested or subject to vesting rules?

A

subject to vesting rules (3 year cliff or 2-6 yr graded)

295
Q

A top-heavy defined benefit pension plan must provide ______ vesting

A

accelerated

296
Q

A top-heavy plan is one that provides more than _____ of its agg accrued benefits to key employees

A

60%

297
Q

Can you avoid the 10% penalty if you remain with an employer and take systematic payments over the life of the participant and spouse?

A

NO

298
Q

A roth IRA conversion becomes more appropriate the longer the period of ________

A

distributions

299
Q

Is a profit sharing plan a defined contribution plan?

A

YES

300
Q

Can a profit sharing plan permit in-service distributions?

A

YES

301
Q

Permitted disparity is a method of integrating Social Security benefits and qualified plan benefits so that a permissively ___________ can be paid to the highly compensated workers in a qualified pension plan.

A

discriminatory benefit

302
Q

All plans are allowed to integrate with social security except _____, _____, and _____

A

ESOPs, SIMPLEs and SARSEPs

303
Q

The excess method for integration is allowed for all plans allowing integration except for _____

A

defined benefit pension plans

304
Q

Can you have a 457 plan and SIMPLE at the same time?

A

YES because a 457 is a nonqual def comp plan

305
Q

Which tests can you avoid by implementing a safe harbor 401(k) plan?

A

ADP/ACP/top-heavy

306
Q

Are SIMPLE 401(k) plans subject to the ADP test?

A

NO

307
Q

How are employer contributions to SIMPLE 401(k) plans vested?

A

100% immediately

308
Q

Are small company retirement plans (50 employees or less) required to file a detailed annual report Form 5500 each year?

A

LIKELY NOT

309
Q

Does a professional services corporation with less than 25 employees with a defined benefit plan have to be covered by PBGC?

A

NO

310
Q

For a defined benefit plan, are employee contributions 100% at normal retirement age regardless of years employed?

A

YES

311
Q

For an owner of the corporate sponsor to be considered a party-in-interest for a qualified plan, they must own ________ or more

A

50%

312
Q

Are plan earnings for a defined contribution plan considered when considering the maximum annual additions limit?

A

NO

313
Q

The top-heavy test requires answers to which employers will be treated as a single employer for purposes of top-heavy testing and who is a ______

A

key employee

314
Q

Can a defined contribution plan have integration levels greater than the social security wage base?

A

NO

315
Q

Can a trustee be forced to distribute assets from a plan by a QDRO even if the plan document does not allow it?

A

NO

316
Q

For a SIMPLE IRA, an employer must satisfy one of the two contribution formulas: match dollar-for-dollar employee contributions up to _____ or contribute ____ nonelective contribution per employee

A

3% dollar for dollar, 2% nonelective

317
Q

To deter employers segregating out their key employees, the IRS uses the following aggregation rules for _____ employees, controlled groups, and ______ groups

A

leased employees, controlled groups and affiliated service groups

318
Q

The permitted disparity limit for a defined benefit pension plan is _______ above covered compensation level

A

26.25%

319
Q

Does participation in a 457 plan count as active participation for contributing to an IRA?

A

NO

320
Q

Can TSAs and 457 plans be entirely funded by participant contributions?

A

YES

321
Q

Do TSA and 457 plans allow for NUA for lump sum distributions?

A

NO

322
Q

The safe harbor test is that the employer must cover _____ of all eligible nonhighly compensated employees

A

70%

323
Q

If there are eligible participants who DON’T participate in a plan, why might that be?

A

They belong to an excluded class (hourly, geographic location, union, etc.)

324
Q

The 50/40 test is for defined ____ pension plans and states that the plan must benefit no fewer than the lesser of ______ employees or _____ or more of all eligible employees

A

defined benefit plans, must benefit no fewer than the lesser of 50 employees or 40% or more of all eligible employees

325
Q

Actual deferred percentage test (ADP) applies to _____ plans

A

401(k)

326
Q

The ADP test =

A

actual deferrals / eligible employee comp

327
Q

The first ADP test is that ADP for eligible HCEs is not more than ______ ADP for NHCs

A

not more than 1.25x

328
Q

The second test for ADP is that ADP for HCs cannot exceed ADP for NHCs by more than ____

A

2%

329
Q

The actual contribution test (ACP) is for all qualified defined ______ plans

A

contribution plans

330
Q

The ACP test =

A

actual contributions / eligible employee compensation

331
Q

The ACP test applies to employer matching contributions, mandatory employee contributions, and _______contributions (excluding _______ deferrals)

A

and employee after tax contributions (excluding Roth 401(k) deferrals)

332
Q

To avoid ADP and ACP testing, the safe harbor contributions can be made as either _____ match or a nonelective contribution of _____

A

match 100% up to 3%, 50% from 3-5% (max is 4% total); or nonelective 3% for all NHC

333
Q

Tax deductible contribution limits for DC plans are ____ of aggregate covered compensation

A

25%

334
Q

If you start SS at age 62, 50% of an earned income over ______ reduces your benefit

A

over $17,040

335
Q

Only gifts of _____ within 3 years and gifts with a _____ are included in the gross estate at death

A

gifts of life insurance and incomplete gifts (with retained interests) are included

336
Q

Will a SCIN result in a taxable gift?

A

NO - sale of property

337
Q

Overqualification occurs when there is an _____ of the decedent’s applicable credit amount

A

underutilization

338
Q

Underqualification occurs when _____ property qualifies for the marital deduction than should have

A

less property

339
Q

Will GRAT property be included in the gross estate if the grantor survives the trust term?

A

NO

340
Q

If a majority owner of a small, closely-held business gifts a small amount of stock to their child, could that invoke the minority discount?

A

YES

341
Q

Would a QTIP election for death proceeds qualify them for the marital deductions?

A

YES

342
Q

IF insurance proceeds on death are payable to the surviving spouse in the form of an annuity with a 6 month survivorship provision and they live more than 6 months, are the proceeds eligible for the marital deduction?

A

YES

343
Q

If you die after the ex-dividend date, would you include the dividend in your estate?

A

YES

344
Q

A QDOT is used to establish the marital deduction for an _____ surviving spouse

A

alien

345
Q

For a CRAT, the fixed income must be at least ____ of the original value but no more than _____

A

5% not greater than 50%

346
Q

Adjusted taxable gifts are taxable gifts made after _____ that are not included in the gross estate

A

after 1976

347
Q

Special-use valuation requires that either the decedent or a family member must have owned and used property as a farm or business for at least ____ of the last ____ years immediately before the decedent’s death

A

5 of the last 8 years

348
Q

When spouses are joint tenants, _____ of the value of the property is included in the decedent’s gross estate regardless of _____

A

50% of value regardless of who paid for it

349
Q

Will income payments vary with a CRAT or with a CRUT?

A

with a CRUT - CRATs pay a fixed amount

350
Q

If you establish an irrevocable trust but retain the power to allocate income distributions, will those assets be included in the gross estate at death?

A

YES - because you retain the right to affect beneficial enjoyment or control the income

351
Q

Can an executor elect QDOT treatment after death of the decendent?

A

YES

352
Q

Would entity-redemption business buyout insurance proceeds paid to the deceased business owner be included in their gross estate

A

NO - because they had no incident of ownership in the policies

353
Q

Is the gift that occurs with a GRAT eligible for the annual gift exclusion?

A

NO because it is not a present interest

354
Q

Gift taxes paid within ____ years of death are included in the gross estate

A

within 3 years

355
Q

Are target benefit pension plans subject to the annual additions limit of $55,000?

A

YES

356
Q

Are traditional defined benefit plans subject to the annual additions limit of $55,000?

A

NO

357
Q

Any divorced spouse age 62 and older and unmarried or remarried after age 60 and was married to person A for more than ____ years may receive retirement benefits if person A is ______

A

10 years, if they are retired

358
Q

Can a current spouse collect social security benefits if their spouse is not retired?

A

NO - must be retired. Ex-spouses can if over age 62 and was married more than 10 years

359
Q

The max salary that can be considered for retirement benefits is _____ but the max defined benefit is _____

A

max salary is $275k, max benefit is $220k

360
Q

To cover full replacement, can you just buy 80% coverage of a home’s value?

A

NO - that is just to avoid the coinsurance requirement

361
Q

Do IRAs permit loans?

A

NO NO NO

362
Q

Is a money purchase pension plan more administratively easy than a 401(k)?

A

YES

363
Q

If a retirement plan purchases stock on margin, how are the dividends and capital gains treated?

A

AS unrelated business taxable income (UBTI) and the plan has to pay

364
Q

Are loans from a qualified plan ever subject to the 10% penalty?

A

NO

365
Q

Can an ESOP or a stock bonus plan be integrated with social security?

A

ONLY a stock bonus plan - ESOPs cannot

366
Q

The following disclosures must be made either VERBALLY or IN WRITING BEFORE ENTERING INTO AN AGREEMENT to provide financial planning services:

A
  • obligations and responsibilities or each party
  • compensation to be received
  • terms under which the agreement permits proprietary products
  • terms under which agreement will use other entities to meet obligations (outside help)
367
Q

Does a written agreement for financial planning have to be just one document?

A

NO - can be multiple

368
Q

The CFP board requires a written agreement to be in place _____ the scope of the engagement is defined and _____ material elements of the planning process have begun

A

AFTER the scope is defined and PRIOR TO engaging in the actual planning

369
Q

The following information and disclosures MUST be in WRITING:

A
  • parties to the agreement
  • date and duration of the agreement
  • how or on what terms agreement can be ended
  • services to be provided
  • precise compensation
  • summary of conflicts of interest
  • any material information about the CFP certificant or employer
  • contact information for certificant and/or employer
370
Q

What are the exceptions to borrowing or lending money to a client?

A
  • member of your family

- certificant or client is in the business of lending money and is unrelated to services for financial planning

371
Q

Must disclose to the CFP board within ___ days for contact info change, ___ days for crime (does not include misdemeanor traffic offenses unless involving drugs/alcohol), ____ days for professional suspension

A

45 days for contact info, 30 days and 30 days

372
Q

How long can a suspension last from the CFP DEC?

A

5 years

373
Q

If your CFP marks are revoked, is that permanent?

A

YES

374
Q

PAP part A liability coverage of 100/300/50 means:

A

$100k for bodily injury to one person, $300k total for all persons injured in an accident, and $50k for property damage - all limited to one accident

375
Q

Part B coverage for a PAP is _____ and typically ranges from $1k to $10k per person

A

medical payments coverage

376
Q

Part C for a PAP is ______

A

uninsured motorists coverage

377
Q

Part D coverage for a PAP is ______

A

coverage from damage to your automobile

378
Q

Does tenancy in common avoid probate?

A

NO

379
Q

If you want something to pass through your will at death, will JTWROS work as an ownership category?

A

NO - avoids probate but will pass by law, not will