General Principles Flashcards
HOX genes encode _________ that play an important role in the segmental organization of the embryo along the cranio-caudal axis
transcription regulations/factors
It takes _____ half life intervals to eliminate 75% of a drug. T1/2 =
a drug is almost completely eliminated after _____ half life intervals
2
(0.7xVd)/CL
5
_______ is the probability of not having a disease when the test result is negative
negative predicative value
drugs administered orally are subject to _________ while drugs administered anally are capable of partially bypassing this as a portion of rectal blood flow enters the systemic circulation directly, therefore these drugs will have a higher bioavailability if they typically undergo ________
first pass metabolism
extensive first pass metabolism
RT-PCR is used to detect and quantify levels of _________
mRNA
________ is the most abundant amino acid in collagen which occupies every 3rd amino acid sequence within each alpha chain
glycine
culture on antibiotic agar is called
selective media
________ is a rare AR condition caused by mutations in the BLM gene encoding _______, which unwinds DNA during replication. Patients present with growth retardation, facial anomalies, photosensitive skin rash, and immunodeficiency
Bloom syndrome
helicase
transport mechanisms using protein carriers are able to be ________, which shows a plateau curve on transport graph
saturated
________ is the single most important measure to reduce the risk of transmission of hospital acquired infections
hand hygiene
a ________ is defined as a preventable medical error that resulted in delayed diagnosis due to failure to follow evidence based best practice guidelines
preventable adverse event
DNA binding proteins include TFs (myc, CREB), ___________(Testosterone, Progesterone), fat soluble vitamin receptors (Vit D, Retinoic acid), and DNA transcription and replication proteins
steroid receptors
Risk of wrong site surgery can be reduced by requiring ___________ (usually a nurse and physician) to independently confirm they have the correct patient, site, and procedure
dual identifiers
____________ make eukaryotic DNA replication quick and effective despite large size
multiple origins of replication
competitive inhibitors change ______ and shift ______
Noncompetitive inhibitors change _______ and shift _____
ED50, right
Emax, down
DNA replication occurs in the _____ on both strands. In contrast to the continuous synthesis of the leading strand, the lagging strand synthesis occurs ________ and is composed of ___________. This process requires reptitive action of DNA primase and ligase
5’ -> 3’ direction
discontinuously
Okazaki fragments
during continuous infusion of a drug metabolized by first order kinetics, the steady state concentration is reached in ______ half lives
4-5
________ is a measure of the maximum pharmacodynamic effect achievable with a drug
_______ refers to the dose of drug that is required to produce a given effect
efficacy
potency
a key step in the ubiquin proteasome pathway is controlled by ________, which recognizes specific proteins and attach a ubiquitin tag. The proteins are then degraded to an appropriate size and coupled with the MHC I in the ER. Finally they are presented on the cell surface for recognition by ______
ubiquitin ligase
CD8+ CTL
lesions on the __________ cause superficial inguinal LAD, whereas lesions on the _________ are more likely to cause LAD in both the popliteal and inguinal areas.
The glans penis and penile urethra drain via the _________
medial foot
lateral foot
deep inguinal lymph nodes
flushed skin and dilated pupils (mydriasis) results from _______ blockade
muscarinic receptor
an increase in the number of trinucleotide repeats on the HTT gene is associated with _________. The larger number of repeats, the _________ of the disease. Trinucleotide expansion occurs more frequently during paternal transmission, causing a genetic phenomenon called ________
Huntingtons
earlier onset
anticipation
_______ describes instances where multiple phenotypic manifestations result from a single genetic mutation. Most syndromic genetic illnesses exhibit this.
pleiotrophy
the ______ is a promoter region that binds transcription factors and RNA polymerase II during the initiation of transcription. It is located approx. 25 bases upstream from the beginning of the coding region
TATA box
__________ may be located upsteram, downstream, or within a transcribed gene
enhancers and silencers
no change in radioactivity with increasing antigen concentrations on radioassy indicates
no epitopes shared
_________ play an important role in mRNA translation regulation and mRNA degradation. Intron splicing, 5’ capping, poly A tail addition all occur in the ______
cytoplasmic P bodies
nucleus
in prokaryotes, _______ has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity, which removes RNA primers created by RNA primase, in addition to 5’ to 3’ polymerase and 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activities.
DNA polymerase I
in the presence of oxygen, pyruvate produced during glycolysis is converted by _______ to acetyl CoA
in inadequate oxygen, pyruvate is converted to lactate by _______, leading to lactic acidosis
pyruvate dehydrogenase
lactate dehydrogenase
a highly lipophilic IV drug will be rapidly distributed to organs with high blood flow (brain, liver, kidneys, lungs), then redistributed to tissues with lower perfusion (_________, fat, bone)
skeletal muscle
UAA, UAG, UGA are
stop codons
hypobaric hypoxia due to high elevation presents with _____ respiratory rate with development of _______, which is compensated by renal excretion of HCO3 within 24-48 hours
increased
respiratory alkalosis
the RER is covered with ribosomes and is involved in the transfer of proteins to ________
the cell membrane and Extracellular space
increased _________ causes activation of phosphorylase kinase, stimulating glycogen phosphorylase to increase glycogenolysis
intracellular Ca+
Isoniazid is metabolized by ________. THe presence of fast and slow _________ within the same population results in a bimodal distribution of the speed of isoniazid metabolism
acetylation
acetylators
the __________ is most likely to bind to deoxythymidine residues fixed to the latex beads
poly A tail of mature mRNA
the _____ tail of tRNA serves as the amino acid binding site.
3’ CCA
in AR disease, an unaffected individual with unaffected parents but has an affected sibling has a ______ chance of being a carrier
2/3
________ alter the reading frame of the genetic code, dramatically changing the protein structure and often resulting in the formation of a premature stop codon
frameshift mutations
individual differences in phenotype of ______ alter treatment efficacy and drug toxicity
CYP450 enzymes
_________ detect target mRNA in a sample and assess gene expression
northern blots
high plasma protein binding, high MW, high charge, hydrophilicity result in
low Vd (3-5)
_______ recognizes stop codons and terminates protein synthesis
releasing factors
EBV is typically transmitted from an asymptomatic virus shedder to a susceptible individual through _________
saliva transfer
first gen histamines, alpha blockers, TCAs, benzos, antipsychotics, most antiarrhythmics, and skeletal muscle relaxants, according to the Beers criteria, should be used with caution in
geriatric patients
when phenylephrine binds to an alpha 1 receptor on vascular sm muscle cells, the alpha subunit of G(q) activates ________, which breaks down PIP2 into IP3 and DAG. IP3 increases intracellular Ca++, which also activates ________
PLC
PKC
________ slow down a reaction, but do not change Vmax
competitive inhibitors
the _______ states that the first two nucleotide positions on the mRNA codon require traditional base pairing, whereas the third _______ nucleotide position may undergo nontraditional base pairing
Wobble hypothesis
wobble
________ have long telomeres due to high telomerase activity allowing them to proliferate indefinitely in a controlled manner
stem cells
________ refers to the phenomenon in which an offsprings genes are expressed in a parent specific manner. This is caused by DNA methylation, an epigenetic process in which genes can be silenced by attaching methyl groups to cytosine residues in the DNA molecule
genomic imprinting
pyridoxal phosphate (vitmain B6) serves as a cofactor in _____________________ reactions
______ is a cofactor for carboxylase enzymes
_______ is essential for nucleic acid synthesis
______ forms NAD+ and NADP+
_______ is used in FMN and FAD reactions
________ is cofactor for dehydrogenase enzymes
amino acid transamination and decarboxylation
Biotin B7
folic acid B9
Niacin B3
Riboflavin B2
Thiamine B1
transmission of mitochondrial inherited diseases occurs through affected ________ and never through _______
females
males
_______ blotting is used to detect DNA binding proteins such as c-Jun
Southwestern blotting
the ______ and TATA box are promoters of tanscription
CAAT
Trisomy 21, unbalanced Robertsonian translocations, and _______ are all causes of Down Syndrome
mosaicism
high lipophilicity = _________ metabolism
hepatic
________ is a process by which a single gene can code for various uniqu proteins by selectively including or exlcuding different DNA coding regions (exons) into mature mRNA
Alternative splicing
_______ is an arrangement in which a payer pays a fixed, predetermined fee to provide all services required by a patient.
Capitation
the total resistance for a group of vessels arranged in parallel is equal to _____
1/TPR = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + … 1/Rn
M6P residues ensure transit from the Golgi to the
lysosome
________ is the failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during cell division
nondysjunction
Nucleosomes are composed of DNA wrapped around a core of 8 histone proteins = 2x(H2A, H2B, H3, H4). ____ is located outside of the histone core and helps package nucleosomes into more compact structures
H1
all 3 _______ can remove mismatched nucleotides via their 3’-5’ exonuclease proofreading activity
prokaryotic DNA polymerases
________ refers to coinfection of a host cell by 2 viral strains, resulting in progeny virions that contain nucleocapsid proteins from one strain and the unchanged parental genome of another strain
Phenotypic mixing
in ________ a constant amount of drug is metabolized per unit of time, independent of serum levels
zero order kinetics
_______ neutralizes ROS
superoxide dismutase
_______ is condensed chromatin composed of heavily methlyated DNA in tight association with deacetylated histones, and has low transcriptional activity. In contrast, ______ is loosely arranged and exhibits a high level of transcriptional activity
heterochromatin
euchromatin
