General Pharmacology Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Refers to the amount of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation

A

Bioavailability

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2
Q

Used to determine the safety and efficacy of generic drugs

A

Bio equivalence

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3
Q

Measures the dose or concentration required to bring about 50% of the drug’s maximal effect

A

Potency

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4
Q

Dose at which 50% of the individuals exhibit the specified quintal effect

A

Median Effective Dose

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5
Q

Dose at which 50% of animals manifest a particular toxic effect

A

Median Toxic Dose

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6
Q

Transfer of drug from site of administration to bloodstream

A

Absorption

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7
Q

Refers to the apparent volume into which the drug is able to distribute

A

Volume of distribution

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8
Q

Elimination of drug at a constant rate

A

Zero Order Kinetics

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9
Q

Elimination at a rate that is proportional to the serum concentration of the drug

A

First Order Kinetics

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10
Q

Addition of a polar moiety (sulfate, acetate, or glucoronate)

A

Phase II Metabolism

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11
Q

Use of CYP450 system (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, or deamination)

A

Phase I Reactions

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12
Q

Describes the rate at which a specific drug is cleared from the system

A

Clearance

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13
Q

Refers to the amount of time required for the amount of the drug in the body to decrease to half of its value after the administration of the drug has been stopped

A

Half-life

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14
Q

Defined as the single amount of drug that is needed to achieve a desired plasma concentration quickly

A

Loading dose

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15
Q

Amount of drug that must be given over time in order to maintain desired plasma concentration

A

Maintenance dose

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16
Q

Used as a measure of drug safety

A

Therapeutic Dose

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17
Q

Formula for therapeutic index

A

TD50/ED50

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18
Q

Refers to the dosage range between the minimum effective therapeutic concentration of dose and minimum toxic concentration or dose

A

Therapeutic Window

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19
Q

Substance that shifts the graded dose-repose curve to the right

A

Competitive Antagonist

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20
Q

Substance that does not produce the same maximum effect and is exhibited by a decrease in the Emax

A

Partial Agonist

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21
Q

Substance that depresses the graded dose-response curve in the presence of the natural substrate

A

Irreversible/Non-competitive Antagonist

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22
Q

An antagonist that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally with the receptor

A

Chemical Antagonist

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23
Q

The action of the drug on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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24
Q

The action of the body on the drug

A

Pharmacokinetics

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25
Permeation that is governed by Fick's Law
Aqueous Diffusion | Lipid Diffusion
26
Permeation that is saturable and inhibitable
Carrier Transport
27
Adverse effec that is infrequently observed in most patients
Idiosyncratic
28
Responsiveness decreases as a consequence of continued drug administration
Tolerance
29
Responsiveness diminishes rapidly after drug administration
Tachyphylaxis
30
Induction of developmental defects in the fetus
Teratogenesis
31
Induction of malignant characteristics in cells
Carcinogenesis
32
Induction of changes in the genetic material of animals of any age
Mutagenesis
33
Cytochrome P450 Inducers
``` Phenytoin Rifampicin Ethanol St. John's Wort Smoking ``` Barbiturates Griseofulvin Carbamazepine
34
Cytochrome P450 Inhibitors
Sulfonamides Isoniazid Cimetidine Ketoconazole Quinidine Grapefruit juice Erythromycin Amiodarone Ritonavir
35
Route of administration providing 100% bioavailability
Intravenous
36
Route of administration exhibiting first pass effect
Oral
37
Route of administration providing partial avoidance of the first pass effect
Rectal | Sublingual
38
Application to skin for local effect
Topical
39
Application to skin for systemic effect
Transdermal
40
Phase of drug studies involving a small number of normal volunteers
Phase I
41
Phase of drug studies involving post-marketing surveillance
Phase IV
42
Phase of drug studies that asks "Does it work in patients?"
Phase II
43
Phase of drug studies involving randomized, double-blind, controlled trials
Phase III
44
A drug for a rare disease
Orphan drug
45
What agent will you use to hasten urinary excretion in a case of overdose with a weak acid (ex. Aspirin)?
Alkalinizing agent (ex. Sodium bicarbonate)
46
What agent will you use to treat a case of overload with a weak base?
Acidifying agent (ex. Ammonium chloride)
47
There is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite the risk (ex. ACE inhibitors, anticonvulsants)
Class D
48
Controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters), and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.
Class A
49
Either animal reproduction studies have not demonstrated a fetal risk but there are no controlled studies in pregnant women, or animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect (other than a decrease in fertility) that was not confirmed in controlled studies in women in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters.) Example: Zidovudine
Class B
50
Either studies in animals have revealed adverse effects on the fetus (teratogenic or embryocidal or other) and there are no controlled studies in women, or studies in women and animals are not available. Drugs should be given only when the potential benefits justifies the potential risk to the fetus. Example: Aspirin
Class C
51
Studies in animals or human beings have demonstrated fetal abnormalities or there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience or both, and the risk of the use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible benefit. The drug is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant. Examples: Statins, OCPs, clomiphene, misoprostol, high-dose Vitamin A
Class X
52
Causes fetal renal damage. Potter syndrome: fetal renal hypoplasia secondary to oligohydramnios
ACE Inhibitors
53
Causes neural tube defects (spina bifida secondary to folate deficiency)
Antiepileptic drugs, especially Valproic Acid ("Valproate ate the folate")
54
Causes fetal hydantoin syndrome
Phenytoin (diphenylhydantoin)
55
Causes neonatal hypoglycemia
Oral hypoglycemic agents
56
Causes neonatal dependence
Barbiturates
57
Causes vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
58
Causes fetal alcohol syndrome
Ethanol
59
Causes Ebstein's anomaly (abnormal development of ventricles)
Lithium
60
Causes craniofacial malformations
Isotretinoin
61
Causes congenital hypothyroidism
Iodide
62
Causes Möbius sequence (paralysis of facial muscles and EOMs, can have development abnormalities in extremities).
Misoprostol
63
Causes cutis laxa
Penicillamine
64
Causes phocomelia
Thalidomide (previously commonly used to treat morning sickness)
65
May cause IUGR, and autism-spectrum disorders
Smoking
66
May cause tooth discoloration
Tetracycline
67
May cause ototoxicity
Streptomycin
68
May cause aplasia cutis congenita (patches of alopecia and occasionally absent skin)
Methimazole
69
May cause kernicterus
Sulfonamides
70
May cause cartilage damage
Fluoroquinilones
71
May cause chondrodysplasia when used in the first trimester
Warfarin
72
May cause CNS malformations when used in the 2nd trimester
Warfarin
73
May cause bleeding diastheses when used in the 3rd trimester
Warfarin
74
A standard in vitro test for mutagenicity that uses a special strain of Salmonella that naturally depends on specific nutrients (ex. Histidine). The loss of this dependence signals a mutation.
Ames Test
75
Use to calculate the patient's creatinine clearance
Cockroft-Gault Equation Clearance = [(140-age) X Weight in kg] / [72 X Serum creatinine (mg/dL)]
76
Drugs that display tachyphylaxis
"MED students Love to watch CNN in HD" Metro loperamide Ephedrine Desmopressi LSD Calcitonin Nicotine Nitroglycerin Hydralazine Dobutamine
77
Most important pharmacokinetic parameter to be considered in defining a rational steady state during dosage regimen
Clearance
78
What drugs display Zero Order Elimination Kinetics?
Tolbutamide Heparin Aspirin Theophylline Phenytoin Ethanol Warfarin
79
Which topical preparation displays the greatest ability to retard evaporation?
Ointments
80
Which topical preparation displays the least ability to retard evaporation?
Tinctures