General Pharmacology Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Refers to the amount of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation

A

Bioavailability

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2
Q

Used to determine the safety and efficacy of generic drugs

A

Bio equivalence

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3
Q

Measures the dose or concentration required to bring about 50% of the drug’s maximal effect

A

Potency

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4
Q

Dose at which 50% of the individuals exhibit the specified quintal effect

A

Median Effective Dose

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5
Q

Dose at which 50% of animals manifest a particular toxic effect

A

Median Toxic Dose

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6
Q

Transfer of drug from site of administration to bloodstream

A

Absorption

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7
Q

Refers to the apparent volume into which the drug is able to distribute

A

Volume of distribution

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8
Q

Elimination of drug at a constant rate

A

Zero Order Kinetics

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9
Q

Elimination at a rate that is proportional to the serum concentration of the drug

A

First Order Kinetics

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10
Q

Addition of a polar moiety (sulfate, acetate, or glucoronate)

A

Phase II Metabolism

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11
Q

Use of CYP450 system (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, or deamination)

A

Phase I Reactions

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12
Q

Describes the rate at which a specific drug is cleared from the system

A

Clearance

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13
Q

Refers to the amount of time required for the amount of the drug in the body to decrease to half of its value after the administration of the drug has been stopped

A

Half-life

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14
Q

Defined as the single amount of drug that is needed to achieve a desired plasma concentration quickly

A

Loading dose

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15
Q

Amount of drug that must be given over time in order to maintain desired plasma concentration

A

Maintenance dose

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16
Q

Used as a measure of drug safety

A

Therapeutic Dose

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17
Q

Formula for therapeutic index

A

TD50/ED50

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18
Q

Refers to the dosage range between the minimum effective therapeutic concentration of dose and minimum toxic concentration or dose

A

Therapeutic Window

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19
Q

Substance that shifts the graded dose-repose curve to the right

A

Competitive Antagonist

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20
Q

Substance that does not produce the same maximum effect and is exhibited by a decrease in the Emax

A

Partial Agonist

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21
Q

Substance that depresses the graded dose-response curve in the presence of the natural substrate

A

Irreversible/Non-competitive Antagonist

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22
Q

An antagonist that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally with the receptor

A

Chemical Antagonist

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23
Q

The action of the drug on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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24
Q

The action of the body on the drug

A

Pharmacokinetics

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25
Q

Permeation that is governed by Fick’s Law

A

Aqueous Diffusion

Lipid Diffusion

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26
Q

Permeation that is saturable and inhibitable

A

Carrier Transport

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27
Q

Adverse effec that is infrequently observed in most patients

A

Idiosyncratic

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28
Q

Responsiveness decreases as a consequence of continued drug administration

A

Tolerance

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29
Q

Responsiveness diminishes rapidly after drug administration

A

Tachyphylaxis

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30
Q

Induction of developmental defects in the fetus

A

Teratogenesis

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31
Q

Induction of malignant characteristics in cells

A

Carcinogenesis

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32
Q

Induction of changes in the genetic material of animals of any age

A

Mutagenesis

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33
Q

Cytochrome P450 Inducers

A
Phenytoin
Rifampicin
Ethanol
St. John's Wort
Smoking

Barbiturates
Griseofulvin
Carbamazepine

34
Q

Cytochrome P450 Inhibitors

A

Sulfonamides
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole

Quinidine

Grapefruit juice
Erythromycin
Amiodarone
Ritonavir

35
Q

Route of administration providing 100% bioavailability

A

Intravenous

36
Q

Route of administration exhibiting first pass effect

A

Oral

37
Q

Route of administration providing partial avoidance of the first pass effect

A

Rectal

Sublingual

38
Q

Application to skin for local effect

A

Topical

39
Q

Application to skin for systemic effect

A

Transdermal

40
Q

Phase of drug studies involving a small number of normal volunteers

A

Phase I

41
Q

Phase of drug studies involving post-marketing surveillance

A

Phase IV

42
Q

Phase of drug studies that asks “Does it work in patients?”

A

Phase II

43
Q

Phase of drug studies involving randomized, double-blind, controlled trials

A

Phase III

44
Q

A drug for a rare disease

A

Orphan drug

45
Q

What agent will you use to hasten urinary excretion in a case of overdose with a weak acid (ex. Aspirin)?

A

Alkalinizing agent (ex. Sodium bicarbonate)

46
Q

What agent will you use to treat a case of overload with a weak base?

A

Acidifying agent (ex. Ammonium chloride)

47
Q

There is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite the risk (ex. ACE inhibitors, anticonvulsants)

A

Class D

48
Q

Controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters), and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.

A

Class A

49
Q

Either animal reproduction studies have not demonstrated a fetal risk but there are no controlled studies in pregnant women, or animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect (other than a decrease in fertility) that was not confirmed in controlled studies in women in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in later trimesters.)

Example: Zidovudine

A

Class B

50
Q

Either studies in animals have revealed adverse effects on the fetus (teratogenic or embryocidal or other) and there are no controlled studies in women, or studies in women and animals are not available. Drugs should be given only when the potential benefits justifies the potential risk to the fetus.

Example: Aspirin

A

Class C

51
Q

Studies in animals or human beings have demonstrated fetal abnormalities or there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience or both, and the risk of the use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible benefit. The drug is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant.

Examples: Statins, OCPs, clomiphene, misoprostol, high-dose Vitamin A

A

Class X

52
Q

Causes fetal renal damage.

Potter syndrome: fetal renal hypoplasia secondary to oligohydramnios

A

ACE Inhibitors

53
Q

Causes neural tube defects (spina bifida secondary to folate deficiency)

A

Antiepileptic drugs, especially Valproic Acid (“Valproate ate the folate”)

54
Q

Causes fetal hydantoin syndrome

A

Phenytoin (diphenylhydantoin)

55
Q

Causes neonatal hypoglycemia

A

Oral hypoglycemic agents

56
Q

Causes neonatal dependence

A

Barbiturates

57
Q

Causes vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

58
Q

Causes fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Ethanol

59
Q

Causes Ebstein’s anomaly (abnormal development of ventricles)

A

Lithium

60
Q

Causes craniofacial malformations

A

Isotretinoin

61
Q

Causes congenital hypothyroidism

A

Iodide

62
Q

Causes Möbius sequence (paralysis of facial muscles and EOMs, can have development abnormalities in extremities).

A

Misoprostol

63
Q

Causes cutis laxa

A

Penicillamine

64
Q

Causes phocomelia

A

Thalidomide (previously commonly used to treat morning sickness)

65
Q

May cause IUGR, and autism-spectrum disorders

A

Smoking

66
Q

May cause tooth discoloration

A

Tetracycline

67
Q

May cause ototoxicity

A

Streptomycin

68
Q

May cause aplasia cutis congenita (patches of alopecia and occasionally absent skin)

A

Methimazole

69
Q

May cause kernicterus

A

Sulfonamides

70
Q

May cause cartilage damage

A

Fluoroquinilones

71
Q

May cause chondrodysplasia when used in the first trimester

A

Warfarin

72
Q

May cause CNS malformations when used in the 2nd trimester

A

Warfarin

73
Q

May cause bleeding diastheses when used in the 3rd trimester

A

Warfarin

74
Q

A standard in vitro test for mutagenicity that uses a special strain of Salmonella that naturally depends on specific nutrients (ex. Histidine). The loss of this dependence signals a mutation.

A

Ames Test

75
Q

Use to calculate the patient’s creatinine clearance

A

Cockroft-Gault Equation

Clearance = [(140-age) X Weight in kg] / [72 X Serum creatinine (mg/dL)]

76
Q

Drugs that display tachyphylaxis

A

“MED students Love to watch CNN in HD”

Metro loperamide
Ephedrine
Desmopressi

LSD

Calcitonin
Nicotine
Nitroglycerin

Hydralazine
Dobutamine

77
Q

Most important pharmacokinetic parameter to be considered in defining a rational steady state during dosage regimen

A

Clearance

78
Q

What drugs display Zero Order Elimination Kinetics?

A

Tolbutamide
Heparin
Aspirin
Theophylline

Phenytoin
Ethanol
Warfarin

79
Q

Which topical preparation displays the greatest ability to retard evaporation?

A

Ointments

80
Q

Which topical preparation displays the least ability to retard evaporation?

A

Tinctures