Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Autonomic Drugs > Flashcards

Autonomic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

These receptors are found on smooth muscles and cause vasoconstriction

A

A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

These receptors are found on nerve terminals, and inhibit release of neurotransmitters.

A

A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

These receptors are found in the heart, and increases heart rate and contractility

A

B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

These receptors are found on respiratory smooth muscles and the uterus. Its actions include bronchodilation and vasodilation.

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These receptors are found in splanchnic and renal vessels, and are responsible for vasodilation of renal blood vessels.

A

D1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

These receptors are found in the nerve terminals of the CNS, and functions to regulate neurotransmitters.

A

D2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

These muscarinic Gq-coupled receptors are found in the CNS, and stimulates the IP3, DAG cascade.

A

M1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

These muscarinic Gi-coupled receptors are found in the heart, and functions to decrease cAMP and activate K channels.

A

M2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

These muscarinic Gq-coupled receptors are found in the smooth muscles of the GI, GU, respiratory tract, and eyes. It triggers the IP3, DAG cascade. It promotes GUT and GIT peristalsis, bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, and pupillary constriction.

A

M3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

These nicotinic receptors are found in the ANS ganglia, and its function include depolarization to evoke action potential.

A

Nn (or N2) receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

These nicotinic receptors are found in the neuromuscular end plate, and functions to depolarize and evoke action potentials through sodium ion channels.

A

Nm (or N1) receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the spinal roots of origin of the PANS?

A

“SS 1973”

Sacral segments of the Spinal cord

CN 10, 9, 7, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the rate limiting step in the synthesis of acetylcholine

A

Uptake of choline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What inhibits choline transport?

A

Hemicholinium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The active transport of acetylcholine into vesicles for storage by vesicles-associated transporter (VAT) is inhibited by what drug?

A

Versamicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This toxin alters synaptobrevins to prevent release of acetylcholine

A

Botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

These inhibit the degradation of acetylcholine into choline and acetate by acetylcholinesterase.

A

Indirect-acting cholinomimetics

Examples: Neostigmine, Carbamates, and Organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Used for bowel and bladder atony

A

Bethanicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Used for Sjogren syndrome (xerostomia, xerophthalmia, and rheumatoid arthritis)

A

Pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Used for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, and to differentiate myesthenic and cholinergic crisis.

A

Edrophonium (Tensilon Test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment of myesthenia gravis

A

Neostigmine (indirect-acting cholinomimetic)

Pyridostigmine (longer duration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular block

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Diagnosis of bronchial hyperreactivity

A

Methacholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment of Alzheimer’s disease

A

Rivastigmine, galantamine, donepezil, tacrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Autoimmune destruction of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at motor end plate characterized by fluctuating muscle weakness

A

Myesthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Myesthenic crisis or cholinergic crisis?

Acute worsening of symptoms due to infection, stress, or undermedication

A

Myesthenic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Myesthenic crisis or cholinergic crisis?

Excessive activation of cholinoreceptors (skeletal muscle weakness and parasympathetic signs) due to over medication

A

Cholinergic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does edrophonium differentiate myesthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis?

A

Increased muscle strength in myesthenic crisis.

Worsens muscle strength in cholinergic crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Small cell cancer may present with a myesthenia-like paraneoplastic syndrome called ________________.

A

Lambert Eaton myesthenic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning or cholinergic overdose.

A

“DUMBBEELSS”

Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Excitation (skeletal muscle and CNS)
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
Sweating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Induction of mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Tropicamide, Homatropine, Scopolamine, Cyclopentolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Indicated for sinus bradycardia (EXCEPT in infants, and in patients with BPH or acute angle closure glaucoma)

A

Atropine

34
Q

Treatment for Parkinson’s disease

A

” TRI to park your BENZ, BIP here.”

Trihexyphenidyl
Benztropine
Biperiden

35
Q

Used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

Ipratropium

36
Q

Used for motion sickness or sea sickness

A

Scopolamine

37
Q

Used to treat gastrointestinal spasms by competitively blocking M3 receptors.

A

Dicylomine, Hyoscamine, Glycopyrrolate

38
Q

Treatment for organophosphate poisoning/nerve gas poisoning

A

Atropine + Pralidoxime (cholinesterase regenerator; useful before 6-8 hours have elapsed from exposure)

39
Q

Why is Ipratropium the preferred bronchodilator in patients with comorbids COPD and heart disease?

A

Less likely to cause tachycardia and cardiac arrthymias

40
Q

What are the signs of atropine (anticholinergic) toxicity?

A 
Hot as a hare
Dry as a bone
Red as a beet
Blind as a bat
Mad as a hatter
41
Q

DOC for anaphylactic shock. Used as an adjunct to local anesthesia. Used in cardiac arrest, and croup.

A

Epinephrine

42
Q

Used in acute CHF, cardiac stress testing, B1 receptor agonist

A

Dobutamine

43
Q

Used in acute CHF, cardiogenic and septic shock.

A

Dopamine

44
Q

Drug of last resort for shock

A

Norepinephrine

45
Q

Used for nasal congestion, mydriasis without cycloplegia

A

Phenylephrine

46
Q

Its side effect include rebound hypertension upon discontinuation

A

Clonidine

47
Q

SE: hemolytic anemia (positive Coombs test)

A

Methyldopa

48
Q

Used for bronchial asthma

A

Salbutamol

49
Q

Used for tocolysis

A

Terbutaline, Ritodrine

50
Q

Used for the preoperative treatment of pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

51
Q

Used for treatment of rebound hypertension

A

Phentolamine

52
Q

Used for benign prostatic hyperplasia.

SE: first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin

53
Q

Used for angina prophylaxis, hyperthyroidism, masks hypoglycemia in diabetics

A

Propranolol

54
Q

SE: Bronchospasm, erectile dysfuction

A

Propanolol

55
Q

Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

A

Pindolol, Acebutolol

56
Q

Displays beta-1 selectivity

A

Atenolol

57
Q

Used for treatment of glaucoma

A

Timolol

58
Q

Combined alpha and beta blockade

A

Carvedilol, Labetalol

59
Q

Used for BP control in pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine, Labetalol

60
Q

What is the advantage of alpha-1 selectivity?

A

Less severe and less common reflex tachycardia

61
Q

Beta blocker with the shortest half-life

A

Esmolol

62
Q

Beta blocker with the longest half-life

A

Nadolol

63
Q

Used for smoking cessation

A

Varenicline (Direct-acting, nicotinic cholinomimetic)

64
Q

Competitively blocks all muscarinic receptors.

A

Atropine

65
Q

Antidote for organophosphate poisoning and nerve gas poisoning.

A

Pralidoxime

66
Q

Competitively blocks Nn nicotinic Ach receptors
Used in hypertension (obsolete) and hypertensive emergencies

SE: Postural hypotension, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, sexual dysfunction

A

Hexamethonium, Trimethaphan (Cholinergic nicotinic antagonist)

67
Q

Rate limiting step of norepinephrine synthesis

A

Hydroxylation of tyrosine to DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase

68
Q

Hydroxylation of tyrosine to DOPA is inhibited by __________.

A

Metyrosine

69
Q

Vesicular transport of dopamine is inhibited by _________.

A

Reserpine

70
Q

Entry of calcium to trigger interaction among SNARE proteins is inhibited by ____________.

A

Guanethidine

71
Q

Entry of calcium to trigger interaction among SNARE proteins is promoted by ____________.

A

Amphetamines and Tyramine

72
Q

Diffusion and reuptake via NET and DAT in synaptic clefts are inhibited by ___________.

A

Cocaine and TCAs

73
Q

Transport of NE and dopamine into vesicles is inactivated by _____________ in the cytoplasm.

A

Monoamine oxidase and COMT

74
Q

Dopamine dose to cause:

  • Vasodilation in splanchnic and renal vasculature via D1 receptors
  • Increased renal blood flow and urine output
A

Low dose (1-5 mcg/kg/min)

75
Q

Dopamine dose to cause:

- Increased renal blood flow, heart rate, cardiac contractility, and cardiac output via B1 receptors

A

Medium dose (5-15 mcg/kg/min)

76
Q

Dopamine dose to cause:

- Vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure via alpha receptors

A

High dose (>15 mcg/kg/min)

77
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

Causes ciliary muscle contraction, opening of trabecular mesh work, and increases outflow

A

Pilocarpine, physostigmine

78
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

Increased outflow through canal of Schlemm

A

Latanoprost (Prostaglandin)

79
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

Increased outflow via uveoscleral veins

A

Epinephrine (Nonselective alpha-agonist)

80
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

Decreased aqueous humor secretion from the ciliary epithelium

A

Timolol (beta blocker), Mannitol (osmotic agent), Apraclonidine (A2 agonists), Acetazolamide and Dorzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

Pharmacology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions