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BDS3 > General Overview > Flashcards

General Overview Flashcards

1
Q

% teeth effected in localised perio

A

<30%

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2
Q

% of teeth effected in generalised perio

A

30% or more

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3
Q

Stage of periodontitis

A

The severity of the disease

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4
Q

Grade of periodontitis

A

Susceptibility of the disease

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5
Q

Stages of periodontitis and their meaning

A

1 - less than 15% or 2mm bone loss
2 - coronal third bone loss
3 - middle third bone loss
4 - apical third bone loss

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6
Q

Grades of periodontitis and their meaning

A

Grade A - <0.5
Grade B - 0.5-1.0
Grade C - >1.0

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7
Q

How is periodontitis grade calculated?

A

% bone loss at worst site/patient age

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8
Q

What does currently stable periodontitis mean?

A

<10% BOP, no sites of PPD more than 4mm, no BOP at 4mm sites

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9
Q

What does currently in remission periodontitis mean?

A

BOP 10% or more, no sites more than 4mm PPD, no bleeding at 4mm sites

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10
Q

What does currently unstable periodontitis mean?

A

BOP at sites of 4mm or sites of more than 4mm PPD

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11
Q

What must be included in diagnostic statement for periodontitis?

A

Extent, periodontitis, stage, grade, stability, risk factors

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12
Q

BPE and BOP expected for localised gingivitis

A

0/1/2 with <30% bleeding and no obvious interdental recession

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13
Q

BPE and BOP expected for patient with generalised gingivitis

A

0/1/2 with >30% BOP and no obvious interdental recession

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14
Q

Clinical gingival health (BPE and BOP)

A

0/1/2 with no obvious interdental recessions and <10% BOP

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15
Q

Pathway for a code 3 sextant with no obvious interdental recession

A

Periapical
Periodontal hygiene therapy and review after 3 months with 6ppc of the sextant

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16
Q

Pathway for code 4 BPE

A

Periapicals or OPT
Full 6ppc
Perio diagnosis

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17
Q

Reversible pulpitis presentation (3)

A

Discomfort on hot/cold lasting few seconds
No spontaneous pain
No significant radiographic changes in periapical region of suspected tooth

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18
Q

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis presentation (3)

A

Not TTP
Pain on hot or cold
Spontaneous pain at random times (lying down, bending over)

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19
Q

Pulp necrosis presentation (4)

A

Poor oral health
Pt not c/o symptoms
Multiple TTP teeth NOT responding to thermal testing

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20
Q

Symptomatic Apical Periodontitis presentation (3)

A

Pt complains of pain when biting down
Severe pain on percussion
No radiographic change

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21
Q

Asymptomatic apical periodontitis presentation (2)

A

Apical radiolucency
No symptoms/pain to percussion or palpation

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22
Q

Chronic apical abscess presentation (2)

A

Radiolucency suggesting bone resorption
Sinus that intermittently discharges pus through sinus tract

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23
Q

Acute apical abscess presentation

A

Spontaneous pain, extreme tenderness of tooth to pressure, pus formation, swelling
No radiographic bone loss
Fever, malaise
Lymphadenopathy upon e/o exam

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24
Q

Eruption dates of upper teeth

A

1 at 7
2 at 8
3 at 11
4/5 at 10
6 at 6
7 at 12

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25
Q

Eruption dates of lower teeth

A

1 at 6
2 at 7
3 at 9
4/5 at 10
6 at 6
7 at 12

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26
Q

Irrigation protocol for endo treatment

A

EDTA 17% for one minute
Sodium hypochlorite 3%, 30ml for 10 minutes

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27
Q

Watch winding motion

A

Back and forth oscillation 30-60 degrees
Light apical pressure
Effective with small K files

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28
Q

Balanced force motion

A

Rotate file 90 degrees clockwise
Apply apical pressure and rotate the file anticlockwise between 90 and 180 degrees

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29
Q

Appropriate instances to use Hall crown technique (2)

A

Occlusal caries (cavitated lesion)
Approximal caries

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30
Q

When would you seal caries with fissure sealant?

A

Occlusal caries - non cavitated lesion

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31
Q

Indications for preformed metal crown (6)

A

> 2 surfaces affected by caries
High caries risk
Developmental defects
Space maintainer
Poor OH
Excess tooth surface loss

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32
Q

Steps for placing preformed metal crown (7)

A

Give appropriate LA
Removed caries
Reduce mesial and distal surfaces to width that bur can pass through
Reduce occlusal surface so that straight probe can pass through in occlusion
Select correct size of PMC
Cement using glass ionomer cement
Remove excess cement and floss between the contacts

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33
Q

What is the difference between Hall crown technique and preformed metal crown?

A

Hall technique seals caries with NO LA, tooth prep or caries removal
PMC uses LA, caries removal and tooth prep of mesial, distal and occlusal surfaces

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34
Q

How many ppm fluoride is in silver diamine fluoride (SDF)

A

44,800ppmF

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35
Q

When does the apex of a tooth close?

A

~3 years after eruption

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36
Q

A 10 year old has had a small pulpal exposure of upper canine following trauma less than 24 hours ago. How would you treat this?

A

Pulp cap
- arrest haemorrhage with pressure (moistened cotton wool with ferric sulphate)
- CaOH placed over exposure
- Cover with GIC
- Definitive restoration

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37
Q

A 12 year old has a large pulpal exposure of upper central incisor following trauma and attends the practice within 2 days. U/E the pulp is partially necrotic, how would you treat this?

A

Pulpotomy - partial removal of pulp tissue (2-3mm)
Arrest haemorrhaged (moistened cotton wool with ferric sulphate)
Place CaOH over pulp
GIC over CaOH
Definitive restoration

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38
Q

A child attends with a large pulpal exposure in an open apex tooth following trauma. U/E the pulp is non vital, how would you treat this?

A

Pulpectomy - remove all of the necrotic pulp
If apical constriction larger than 60K file, use mineral trioxide aggregate MTA to provide apical barrier before condensing GP
Place at least 5mm MTA, allow to dry for 10-15min
Obturate with GP system

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39
Q

Properties of CaOH making it good for pulp cap

A

High alkaline pH which decreases microbial activity

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40
Q

Immediate first aid for avulsed permanent tooth (5)

A

Store in saliva, or fresh milk
Do not allow to dry out
Wash under cold water for 10s if obvious debris
Handle only crown
Reimplant quickly

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41
Q

Treatment following reimplantation of avulsed permanent tooth

A

Flexible splint for 2 weeks
Start RCT at 2 weeks
(unless open apex tooth reimplanted within 30-45min)

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42
Q

When is RCT not necessary after avulsion of permanent tooth?

A

Open apex reimplanted within 30-45min

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43
Q

Splinting time following avulsion or extrusion

A

2 weeks

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44
Q

Splinting time for a luxation, apical and middle third root fracture or dentoalveolar fracture?

A

4 weeks

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45
Q

Fluoride concentration in fluoride varnish

A

22,600ppmF

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46
Q

Indications for pulp treatment in a child (5)

A

Cooperative
MH makes extraction unsuitable
Missing permanent successor
Necessity to retain tooth (e.g. as space maintainer)
Child under 9 years old

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47
Q

Contraindications for pulp treatment of a child (6)

A

Poor cooperation
Poor attendance
Cardiac defect
Multiple grossly carious teeth
Advanced root resorption
Severe/recurrent pain or infection

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48
Q

In vital pulpotomy of a child, what materials are used to a) cover root stumps, b) as a core, c) for final restoration

A

a) reinforced ZOE, CaOH, MTA, biodentine
b) GIC
c) preformed metal crown

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49
Q

How to differentiate between inflamed/uninflamed pulp

A

Abnormal/normal bleeding
Abnormal - deep crimson, continued bleeding after pressure
Normal - bright red, good haemostasis

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50
Q

For pulpectomy of a primary molar what is used a) to obturate, b) as a core and c) as a final restoration

A

a) Vitapex (CaOH and iodoform paste) orZOE
b) GIC
c) stainless steel crown

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51
Q

Materials used for fissure sealants (2)

A

Bis-GMA resin
Glass ionomer cement

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52
Q

How to place a fissure sealant with bis-GMA resin

A

Moisture control
Clean occlusal surface
Enamel etch (35% phosphoric acid) then wash and dry
Apply bis-GMA to fissure pattern (use microbrush or probe/similar instrument)
Light cure
Check with probe

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53
Q

When should fissure sealants be reviewed clinically?

A

4-6 months

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54
Q

When should fissure sealants be reviewed radiographically?

A

High risk - 6 months
Low risk - 12-18 months

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55
Q

How to place a fissure sealant with glass ionomer cement

A

Dry the tooth
Apply GI, smoothing into fissures with gloved finger
Keep finger over GI until set or cover with petroleum jelly to decrease moisture contamination before GI is set

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56
Q

Indications for glass ionomer fissure sealant

A

Not possible to get good moisture control (poor cooperation/children with additional needs)
High sensitivity due to developmental or hereditary enamel defects (e.g. amelogenesis imperfecta)

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57
Q

Age of patient suitable for amalgam

A

15+

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58
Q

When is it appropriate to extract first permanent molars in paediatric patient for orthodontic reasons?

A

Bifurcation of lower 7s (age 8-10.5)
5s and 8s present and in good position on OPT
Mild buccal crowding
Class 1 incisor relationship

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59
Q

Contraindications for preformed metal crown

A

Irreversible pulpitis
Periapical pathologies
Insufficient tooth tissue to retain crown

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60
Q

Tomographic slice of interest where structures outside the slice appear faint and out of focus

A

Focal trough

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61
Q

3 instructions for patient during OPT

A

Stand still
Tongue to hard palate
Do not talk or swallow

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62
Q

Drugs with suffix -pril (e.g. Lisinopril)

A

ACE inhibitors
Lower BP

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63
Q

Drugs with suffix -olol (e.g. propanolol)

A

Beta blockers
Slow heart rate

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64
Q

Drugs with suffix -artan (e.g. Eprosartan)

A

Angiotensin II blockers/ angiotensin receptor blockers
Reduce BP

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65
Q

Drugs with suffix -pine (e.g. amlodipine)

A

Calcium channel blockers
Reduce BP

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66
Q

3 drugs known to cause gingival hyperplasia

A

Calcium channel blockers
Cyclosporine (immunosuppressant)
Phenytoin (anti-epilepsy)

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67
Q

Drugs with the suffix -zide (e.g. chlorothiazide)

A

Thiazide diuretics
Reduce BP and used to treat heart failure

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68
Q

Drugs with suffix -mide (e.g. furosemide)

A

Loop diuretics
Reduce BP and used to treat heart failure

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69
Q

Drugs with suffix -statin (e.g simvastatin)

A

Statins
Lower cholesterol

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70
Q

Which class of drugs should you avoid during antifungal treatment?

A

Statins

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71
Q

Drugs with the suffix -zole (e.g. clotrimazole)

A

Antifungals

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72
Q

Main difference between aspirin and clopidogrel

A

Aspirin causes irreversible change for the life of the platelet

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73
Q

Following an extraction, what is the difference between patient taking an anticoagulant and an antiplatelet?

A

Patients on antiplatelet will have more immediate bleeding and those on anticoagulant will have an increase in post treatment bleeding

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74
Q

Example of commonly used antiplatelet drug

A

Aspirin
Clopidogrel

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75
Q

Warfarin method of action

A

Inhibits vit K synthesis which inhibits production of vit K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C and protein S

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76
Q

Suitable INR for extraction

A

2-3.9

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77
Q

Clamp used for molars

A

A clamp

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78
Q

Clamp used for all teeth other than molars

A

E clamp

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79
Q

How often should bitewings be taken?

A

High risk - 6 months
Moderate risk - annually
Low risk - primary 12-18 months, permanent 2 years

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80
Q

OVD definition

A

Occlusal vertical dimension - superior-inferior relationship between the maxilla and the mandible when the teeth are occluded in maximum intercuspation

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81
Q

RVD definition

A

Resting vertical dimension - measured at rest where there is no contact between teeth

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82
Q

How is freeway space calculated?

A

RVD - OVD

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83
Q

Ideal freeway space

A

2-4mm

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84
Q

What is Willis bite gauge used for?

A

Recording the vertical dimension in mm between the maxilla and mandible, used with dividers

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85
Q

Function of Foxes occlusal plane

A

Determine the orientation of the occlusal plane when a record block is in the patients mouth

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86
Q

Reference lines used for anterior and posterior occlusion for Foxes occlusal plane

A

Post - ala tragus line
Ant - interpupillary line

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87
Q

How long should lab work be disinfected in perform?

A

10 min

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88
Q

What is the cast composition for a cast made using a primary impression on a stock tray?

A

50% dental stone, 50% dental plaster (gypsum)

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89
Q

What is the composition of a master cast? (made using a master impression)

A

100% dental stone

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90
Q

Primary and secondary support for an upper complete denture

A

Primary - hard palate
Secondary - ridge crest

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91
Q

Primary and secondary support for a lower complete denture

A

Primary - buccal shelf and retromolar pad
Secondary - ridge crest, genial tubercles

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92
Q

Relief areas for lower complete denture

A

Lingual ridge incline, mylohyoid ridge

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93
Q

How much spacing in needed in the special tray for alginate?

A

3mm

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94
Q

What is ICP?

A

Intercuspal position - when teeth are in maximum intercuspation regardless of condylar position

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95
Q

What is RCP?

A

Retruded contact position - when the teeth are in occlusion occurring at the most retruded position of the condyles in the joint cavities. This is the most reproducible position

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96
Q

Impairment definition

A

Loss of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function

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97
Q

Disability definition

A

Lack of ability to perform an activity that is considered normal for a human being

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98
Q

Handicap definition

A

A disadvantage resulting from an impairment or disability that prevents the fulfilment of a role that is normal for that individual

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99
Q

Contraindications for metronidazole (antibiotic)

A

Alcohol
Warfarin
Pregnancy

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100
Q

Usual antibiotic for periapical asbcess

A

Amoxicillin 500mg 3 times daily for 5 days

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101
Q

Antibiotic regime for patient with acute disease including necrotising gingivitis/periodontitis

A

200mg or 400mg Metronidazole 3x per day for 3 days

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102
Q

Presentation of necrotising gingivitis (6)

A

Necrosis and ulceration of interdental papilla
Bleeding
Pain
Pseudomembrane formation
Halitosis
Lymphadenopathy

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103
Q

Presentation of necrotising periodontitis (9)

A

Pain
Bleeding
Necrosis of interdental papilla
Pseudomembrane formation
Halitosis
Lymphadenopathy
Periodontal attachment loss
Bone resorption
Extraoral swelling

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104
Q

Presentation of necrotising stomatitis (2)

A

Bone resorption
Bone sequestrum

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105
Q

Stages of conventional denture design

A

1 - Assessment
2 - Primary impressions
3 - Master impressions
4 - Jaw registration
5 - Tooth trial
6 - Denture delivery
7 - Maintenance/review
8 - Aftercare

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106
Q

Stages in replica denture design

A

1 - Assessment
2 - Replica impressions
3 - Master impressions and occlusion (jaw reg)
4 - Tooth trial
5 - Denture delivery
6 - Maintenance/review
7 - Aftercare

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107
Q

Compressive strength definition

A

Stress required to cause fracture

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108
Q

Elastic modulus definition

A

Rigidity of a material, stress required to cause strain (stress/strain ratio)
(strain is change of shape)

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109
Q

Brittleness/ductility definition

A

Ability to experience dimensional change before fracture

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110
Q

Hardness

A

Resistance of surface to indentation or abrasion

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111
Q

Tensile strength

A

Resistance to fracture when pulled

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112
Q

Porcelain characteristics

A

Rigid, hard, high compressive strength
NOT ductile, low tensile strength

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113
Q

Tensile strength

A

Resistance of a material to breaking under tension

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114
Q

Creep

A

Prolonged application of minor stresses (<EL), causing permanent strain

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115
Q

Stressed skin effect

A

Slight differences in the thermal contraction coefficients lead to compressive forces which aid in bonding. Occurs between porcelain and metal bond

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116
Q

Cobalt chromium alloy characteristics

A

High melting point, high Young’s Modulus, high tensile strength, high hardness
Low bonding strength, low compressive strength

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117
Q

BSP step 1 of perio treatment

A

Explain the disease, risk factors and importance of OH
Reduce the risk factors and plaque retentive factors
Carry out OHI and PMPR

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118
Q

BSP step 2 of perio treatment

A

Reinforce step 1
Subgingival (>4mm) instrumentation
Systemic antimicrobials
Re-evaluate after 3 months

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119
Q

BSP Step 3 for perio treatment

A

Re-evaluate earlier steps
Manage non-responding sites - for >4mm pockets re-perform subgingival instrumentation

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120
Q

BSP step 4 for perio treatment

A

Supportive periodontal therapy (SPT)
Reinforce step 1
PMPR
Recall 3-12 months depending on individual

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121
Q

Engaging perio patient plaque and bleeding scores

A

Plaque 20% or less
Bleeding 30% or less
OR
50% or greater improvement in plaque and bleeding

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122
Q

Non-engaging perio patient plaque and bleeding scores

A

Plaque >20%
Bleeding >30%

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123
Q

Criteria to check for success of perio treatment

A

No BoP
No pockets >4mm
No increasing mobility
Plaque scores 20% or less
Functional and comfortable dentition

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124
Q

Which anatomical landmark should the postdam be situated on

A

Vibrating line

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125
Q

Curve of spee

A

Antero- posterior curvature of the occlusal plane

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126
Q

Curve of Wilson

A

Medio-lateral curve of the occlusal plane

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127
Q

What is used to check tooth position on a denture, and what are the geometric guides to tooth position?

A

Alma gauge
Vertical - 7mm
Horizontal - 5mm to the incisive papilla

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128
Q

Neutral zone (in complete dentures)

A

Position where the forces between tongue and cheeks or lips are equal
Ideal position of a lower complete denture

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129
Q

What is a wrought alloy?

A

An alloy that can be manipulated/shaped by cold working

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130
Q

Composition of austenitic stainless steel

A

Iron 72%
Chromium 18%
Nickel 8%
Titanium 1.7%
Carbon 0.3%

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131
Q

What is an alloy?

A

Mixture of two metals forming a lattice structure

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132
Q

What is the result of quenching (rapid cooling) austenite?

A

Martensite

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133
Q

3 phases of steel

A

Ferrite
Austenite
Cementite

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134
Q

When does steel become stainless?

A

> 12% chromium

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135
Q

3 dental uses of austenitic stainless steel

A

Dental equipment and instruments (not cutting edge)
Wires e.g. ortho
Denture bases

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136
Q

Cold working

A

Work done on a metal/alloy at a low temperature, below recrystallisation temperature

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137
Q

5 differences between self cure and heat cure acrylic

A

HC higher molecular weight, stronger
HC curing process may cause porosity and contraction
SC higher monomer levels, irritant
SC fits cast better but water absorption in mouth makes it oversized
SC poorer colour stability (tertiary amines susceptible to oxidation)

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138
Q

Initiator in self and heat cure acrylic

A

Bezoyl peroxide

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139
Q

What type of polymerisation does acrylic undergo?

A

Free radical polymerisation - chemical union of two molecules to form a large molecule WITHOUT elimination of a smaller molecule

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140
Q

Properties of acrylic

A

Non toxic
Unaffected by oral fluids
High hardness
Low density
High softening temperature
Dimensionally accurate
Poor mechanical properties
Poor thermal conductivity

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141
Q

Retention definition (pros)

A

Resistance of a denture to vertical displacement

142
Q

Definition of stability (pros)

A

Resistance of a denture to displacement by functional forces in a horizontal direction

143
Q

4 displacing forces of a denture

A

Gravity
Muscle activity
Sticky foods
Function

144
Q

Difference between concussion and subluxation

A

Concussion - PDL injury where tooth TTP but has not been displaced, no bleeding
Subluxation - PDL injury where tooth is TTP, has increased mobility but has not been displaced, bleeding from the gingival crevice

145
Q

Difference between lateral luxation, intrusion and extrusion

A

Lateral luxation - tooth displaced usually lingual or labial direction
Intrusion - tooth usually displaced through the labial bone plate or can impinge on permanent tooth bud
Extrusion - partial displacement of tooth out of its socket

146
Q

Avulsion

A

Tooth is completely out of its socket

147
Q

Information included on a trauma stamp

A

Mobility
Colour
TTP
Sinus
Percussion note
Radiograph
EPT
ECL

148
Q

Who should use 1000ppmF toothpaste?

A

First eruption - 3 years

149
Q

Who should use 1000-1500ppmF toothpaste?

A

4-16 years

150
Q

Who should be prescribed 2800ppmF toothpaste?

A

High caries risk age 10+

151
Q

Who should be prescribed 5000ppmF toothpaste?

A

High caries risk age 16+

152
Q

How long is the splint time for alveolar fracture?

A

4 weeks

153
Q

Possible after effects of trauma to primary teeth

A

Discolouration
Infection
Delayed exfoliation

154
Q

What is the splint time for avulsion or extrusion?

A

2 weeks

155
Q

How long should intrusion or luxation been splinted?

A

4 weeks

156
Q

Enamel hypomineralisation

A

Qualitative defect of enamel, normal thickness but poorly mineralised, white/yellow defect

157
Q

Enamel hypoplasia

A

Quantitative defect of enamel, reduced thickness but normal mineralisation. Yellow/brown defect

158
Q

What is dilaceration?

A

Abrupt deviation of the long axis of the crown or root portion of a tooth

159
Q

Factors affecting trauma injury prognosis

A

Stage of root development
Type of injury
If PDL damaged
Time between injury and treatment
Infection

160
Q

How to manage an enamel fracture

A

Bond fragment to tooth
OR
Smooth sharp edges
Take 2 periapicals to rule out root fracture or luxation
Follow up 6 weeks, 6 months, 1 year

161
Q

How to manage enamel-dentine fracture

A

Bond fragment to to tooth with composite bandage (line the restoration if the fracture is close to pulp)
2 periapicals to rule out root fracture or luxation
Sensibility testing and evaluate tooth maturity
Follow up 6 weeks, 6 months, 1 year

162
Q

Follow up review for a trauma incident

A

Check radiographs for
- root development (width and length of canal)
- comparison with other side
- inflammatory resorption
- periapical pathology

163
Q

How to manage enamel dentine pulp fracture - 1mm exposure within past 24 hours

A

Direct pulp cap
Trauma sticker and radiographic assessment - not TTP and positive sensibility tests
LA and rubber dam
Clean area with water then disinfect with sodium hypochlorite
Apply calcium hydroxide or MTA to pulp exposure
Restore with composite
Review 6 weeks, 6 months, 1 year

164
Q

How to manage enamel dentine pulp fracture with >1mm exposure, more than 24 hours ago

A

Partial pulpotomy
Trauma sticker and radiographic assessment
LA and dental dam
Clean area with saline then disinfect area with sodium hypochlorite
Remove 2mm of pulp with high speed round diamond bur
Saline soaked cotton wool pellet over exposure until haemostasis
If no bleeding or can’t arrest bleeding proceed to full coronal pulpotomy
Apply Ca OH then GI (or white MTA) then restore with composite
Follow up 6 weeks, 6 months, 1 year

165
Q

How to treat non vital immature incisor following enamel dentine pulp fracture

A

Pulpectomy
Extipate pulp and place CaOH for max 4-6 weeks (to avoid problems with CaOH apexification)
MTA plug and heated GP obturation

166
Q

How to treat crown root fracture with no pulp exposure

A

Fragment removal and restoration
Fragment removal and gingivectomy indicate in crown root fractures with palatal subgingival extension
Orthodontic extrusion of apical portion
Surgical extrusion
Decoronation - preserve bone for future implant
Extraction

167
Q

How to treat crown root fracture with pulp exposure

A

1) preparation
2) temporisation
3) Impressions and occlusal records
4) Cementation

168
Q

What is an inlay?

A

Intra coronal restorations fabricated in a lab

169
Q

Uses of inlays (3)

A

Occlusal cavities
Occlusal/interproximal cavities
Replace failed direct restorations

170
Q

Advantages of inlays compared with direct restorations?

A

Superior materials and margins

171
Q

Disadvantages of inlays compared with direct restorations

A

Time and cost

172
Q

What are onlays?

A

Extra-coronal restorations fabricated in a lab, similar to an inlay but with cuspal coverage

173
Q

Uses of onlays (4)

A

Tooth wear
Increase OVD
Fractured cusps
Restoration of root treated teeth
Replace failed direct restorations

174
Q

Indications for onlay (6)

A

Sufficient occlusal tooth substance loss
Buccal and/or palatal/lingual cusps remaining
Remains tooth substance is weakened
Caries
Pre-existing large restoration
MOD with large isthmus

175
Q

Indications for veneers (7)

A

Improve aesthetics
Correct peg laterals
Reduce or close proximal spaces and diastemas
Hypoplasia or hypomineralisation
Erosion and abrasion
Fluorosis
Discolouration

176
Q

Contraindication to veneers

A

Poor OH
High caries rate
Gingival recession
If extensive prep would be required
Heavy occlusal contacts

177
Q

Veneer preparation cervical/midfacial/incisal

A

Cervical - 0.3mm
Midfacial - 0.5mm
Incisal - 1-1.5mm

178
Q

Class I incisor relationship

A

Lower incisor edges occlude on the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors

179
Q

Class II division I incisor relationship

A

Lower incisor edges occlude behind the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors and the upper incisors are normally proclined

180
Q

Class II division 2 incisor relationship

A

The lower incisor edges occlude behind the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors and the upper incisors are retroclined

181
Q

Class III incisor relationship

A

Lower incisor edges occlude anterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors

182
Q

Class I molar relationship

A

Buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar should occlude with the mesio-buccal cusp of the maxillary first molar

183
Q

Class II molar relationship

A

Buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar occludes posterior to the mesio-buccal cusp of the maxillary first molar

184
Q

Class III molar relationship

A

Buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar occludes anterior to the mesiobuccal cusp of the first maxillary molar

185
Q

Canine guidance

A

Canines cause disengagement of the posterior teeth in the lateral movement of the mandible

186
Q

What is a group function?

A

Simultaneous contact of the canine and posterior teeth during lateral mandibular excursions

187
Q

Indications for restoring a tooth with a crown (4)

A

To protect weakened tooth structure
To improve or restore aesthetics
For use as a retainer for fixed bridgework
To restore tooth function e.g restore in OVD

188
Q

When shouldn’t you restore a tooth with a crown? (5)

A

Active caries and perio
More conservation options available
Lack of tooth tissue for preparation
Unable to provide post and core
Unfavourable occlusion

189
Q

Electromagnetic spectrum from greatest wavelength to smallest

A

Radiowaves
Microwaves
Infrared
Visible light
Ultraviolet
Xrays
Gamma rays

190
Q

What material is the filament in the cathode in an Xray tube?

A

Tungsten

191
Q

What is the focussing cup in the cathode of an Xray tube made from?

A

Molybdenum

192
Q

Penumbra effect

A

Blurring of a radiographic image due to focal spot not being a single point but rather a small area

193
Q

What is the collimator made of and what is it’s purpose?

A

Lead
Reduce patient radiation dose by approx 50%

194
Q

Compare continuous vs characteristic radiation

A

Continuous - produces continuous range of Xray photon energies, maximum photon energy matches peak voltage, bombarding electron interacts with nucleus of target atom
Characteristic - Produces specific energies of Xray photon, characteristic to the element used for the target, photon energies depend on the binding energies of electron shells, bombarding electron interacts with inner shell electrons of target atom

195
Q

How long to splint a subluxation with excessive mobility?

A

2 weeks

196
Q

What is the treatment for an extrusion?

A

Reposition the tooth by gently pushing it back into the tooth socket under LA
Flexible splint for 2 weeks

197
Q

Clinical findings of an extrusion (3)

A

Tooth appears elongated
Tooth mobile
Bleeding from gingival sulcus

198
Q

Clinical findings of lateral luxation (5)

A

Tooth appears displaced in socket
Tooth immobile
High ankylotic percussion tone
May be bleeding from gingival sulcus
Root apex may be palpable in sulcus

199
Q

Treatment for lateral luxation

A

Reposition under LA
Flexible splint 4 weeks
Monitor
Endodontic evaluation

200
Q

Likely prognosis of a lateral luxation for an incomplete root formed tooth

A

Spontaneous revascularisation may occur
If pulp becomes necrotic and signs of inflammatory external resorption, commence endodontic treatment

201
Q

Likely prognosis of lateral luxation for a complete root formed tooth

A

Pulp necrosis
- Commence endo treatment and corticosteroid antibiotic or calcium hydroxide as intra-canal medicament to prevent development of inflammatory external resorption

202
Q

Clinical findings of intrusion (3)

A

Crown appears shortened
Bleeding from gingivae
High ankylotic percussion note

203
Q

Treatment for an intrusion for an immature root formation tooth

A

Spontaneous reposition independent of the degree of intrusion possible
If no re-eruption within 4 weeks, orthodontic repositioning
Monitor pulp condition
Spontaneous pulp revascularisation possible
If pulp becomes necrotic and infected or signs of inflammatory external resorption, commence endo treatment

204
Q

What is the treatment for intrusion of a mature root formed tooth>

A

If <3mm spontaneous repositioning may occur. If no re-eruption within 8 weeks, reposition surgically and splint for 4 weeks or reposition orthodontically before ankylosis develops
3mm+ - reposition surgically
In mature teeth, pulp will always become necrotic, start endo at 2 weeks

205
Q

What emergency advice would you give for an avulsed tooth?

A

Ensure it is a permanent tooth
Hold by crown
Rinse in cold water, milk or saline if debris
Reimplant immediately if possible
Seek immediate dental care
If reimplantation not possible store in saliva, milk, saline, water DO NOT LET DRY

206
Q

Treatment for avulsion of a closed root apex tooth

A

Rinse debris
History and exam with tooth in storage medium (saliva, milk, saline, water)
Reimplant tooth under LA
Splint for 2 weeks
Suture any gingival lacerations
Consider antibiotics, check tetanus status
Provide post-op instructions
Start endo within 2 weeks
Intracanal medicament CaOH up to 1 month or corticosteroid/antibiotic paste for 6 weeks

207
Q

When would you not reimplant an avulsed tooth?

A

Immunocompromised patient
Other serious injuries requiring emergency treatment
Very immature apex and time since trauma >90min
Very immature lower incisors in young child finding it difficult to cope

208
Q

Clinical findings of dento-alveolar fracture

A

Complete alveolar fracture extending from the buccal to the palatal/lingual bone
Segment mobility and displacement with several teeth moving together
Occlusal disturbance

209
Q

How to treat dento-alveolar fracture

A

Reposition any displaced segment
Stabilise by splinting 4 weeks
Suture gingival lacerations if present
Monitor pulp condition of all involved teeth

210
Q

Splint time for lateral luxation

A

4 weeks

211
Q

Possible sequalae of trauma to primary teeth

A

Discolouration
Infection
Delayed exfoliation

212
Q

Warfarin mechanism of action

A

Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K depending clotting factors (2, 7, 9, 10, protein C, protein S)

213
Q

Dilaceration

A

Abrupt deviation of the long axis of the crown or root portion of the tooth

214
Q

After primary impression what is the cast composition?

A

50% dental stone 50% dental plaster

215
Q

Indications for veneers

A

Aesthetic
Peg laterals
Reduce or close proximal spaces and diastemas
Hypoplasia or hypomineralisation
Erosion or abrasion
Fluorosis
Discolouration

216
Q

How long to splint avulsion or extrusion

A

2 weeks

217
Q

When can you seal caries with fissure sealant?

A

If the caries is occlusal and is a non cavitated lesion

218
Q

In complete dentures what is the neutral zone?

A

Position where the forces between the tongue and cheeks or lips are equal, the ideal position for a lower complete denture

219
Q

What does necrotising stomatitis present with?

A

Bone denudation
Osteitis and bone sequestrum

220
Q

Contraindications for preformed metal crown

A

Irreversible pulpitis
Periapical pathology
Insufficient tooth tissue to retain the crown

221
Q

What is cold working?

A

Work done on a metal or alloy at a low temp, lower than recrystallisation temp

222
Q

Management of orofacial granulomatosis

A

Oral hygiene support
Symptomatic relief as per oral ulceration
Dietary exclusion (does not cure just reduces orofacial inflammation)
Topical steroids
Topical tacrolimus
Short courses of oral steroids (if severe or unresponsive to topical)
Intralesional corticosteroids
Surgical intervention - unresponsive long standing disfigurement

223
Q

What viral infections can Coxsackie A Virus cause?

A

Herpangina - vesicles in tonsillar region
Hand, foot and mouth - ulceration on the gingiva/tongue/cheeks and palate
Maculopapular rash on the hands and feet
Management of these lesions is as with Herpes Simplex virus 1

224
Q

Ranula

A

Mucocele in the floor of the mouth

225
Q

Treatment of necrotising periodontal diseases

A

Debridement and chlorhexidine mouth rinses 0.2% twice daily
If systemic effects use metronidazole 400mg

226
Q

Contraindications for fluoride varnish

A

Hospitalised due to severe asthma
Allergy in the last 12 months
Allergy to sticking plaster
Allergy to colophony

227
Q

Signs and symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

Fluid filled vesicles - rupture to painful ragged ulcers on gingivae, tongue, lips, buccal and palatal mucosa
Sever oedematous marginal gingivitis
Fever
Headache
Malaise
Cervical lymphadenopathy

228
Q

What is the difference between the stainless steel wire for ortho vs trauma splint

A

Trauma splint 0.4mm in diameter
Ortho wire 0.7mm diameter

229
Q

SDCEP plaque scores and their meaning

A

10 perfectly clean tooth
8 Line or plaque around cervical margin
6 Cervical 1/3rd of crown covered
4 Middle 1/3rd of crown covered

230
Q

Tests that must be carried out on a type B sterilizer DAILY

A

Steam penetration test
- Bowie Dick or Helix

231
Q

How to manage oral ulceration

A

Nutritional deficiencies
Avoid sharp or spicy food
Prevention of superinfection
Protect healing ulcers
Symptomatic relief

232
Q

Active ingredient in alkaline peroxides

A

Sodium perborate

233
Q

Bohn’s nodules

A

Gingival cysts filled with keratin that occur in alveolar ridge

234
Q

How long to splint a mid or apical third root fracture?

A

4 weeks

235
Q

How do you respond to someone choking?

A

ASK - are you choking? Can you cough?
5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts

236
Q

At what stages are proteins and prions removed in a washer disinfector cycle?

A

Pre wash and main wash

237
Q

How many times should children in Scotland receive fluoride varnish per year?

A

2 minimum, up to 4

238
Q

What temperature must types N, B and S sterilisers reach and for what duration?

A

134-137C for 3 min minimum

239
Q

Mucocele

A

Cyst in the mouth due to salivary glands collecting under a mucous membrane

240
Q

3 medications which cause gingival hyperplasia

A

Calcium channel blockers (ipine)
Phenytoin
Clyclosporine

241
Q

Where can tap water be used in the decontamination process?

A

Mechanical cleaning
Washer disinfector
CANNOT be used for sterilisers or ultrasonic

242
Q

3 big risks of ortho treatment

A

Decalcification
Relapse
Root resorption

243
Q

Annual background radiation dose

A

2.2mSv

244
Q

What is external infection related inflammatory root resorption?

A

Root resorption initiated by PDL damage
Root canal toxins reaching the external root surface causing resorption
The tooth is non-vital

244
Q

What is external infection related inflammatory root resorption?

A

Root resorption initiated by PDL damage
Root canal toxins reaching the external root surface causing resorption
The tooth is non-vital

245
Q

Adults with incapacity act 2000

A

Protect individuals (age 16+) who lack capacity to make decisions for themselves and to support their families and carers in managing the individuals welfare and financing

246
Q

Index teeth used in simplified BPE (sBPE)

A

16 11 26
36 31 46

247
Q

What does the Equality Act 2010 do?

A

Legally protects people from discrimination in society

248
Q

What can you not process in a Type N steriliser?

A

Wrapped instruments
Channelled or lumened instruments

249
Q

Treatment for primary herpetic gingivostomatistis

A

Bed rest
Soft diet
Hydration
Paracetamol
Antimicrobial gel or mouthwash
Topical Acyclovir

250
Q

Definition of prevalence

A

Number of disease cases in a population at a given time
Prevalence = number of affected individuals/total number of persons in population

251
Q

What does angle ANB represent?

A

Angle that represents the relative anteroposterior position of the maxilla to the mandible

252
Q

Types of splint

A

Composite and SS wire
Titanium trauma splint
Acrylic
Orthodontic bracket and wire

253
Q

How to know whether an individual lacks capacity?

A

AMCUR
The individual is incapable of acting or making decisions or communicating decisions or understanding decisions or retaining memory of decisions

254
Q

Minimum age for fluoride varnish

A

2 years

255
Q

Epstein pearls

A

Small cystic lesions found along palatal midline

256
Q

What is Spaulding classification

A

Strategy for sterilisation based on the degree of risk involved in their risk
Critical device - penetrates soft tissues (e.g. forceps)
Semi critical device - comes into contact with non-intact skin or mucous membranes (e.g. dental mirror)
Non critical device - only comes into contact with skin and intact mucous membranes (e.g. dental chair)

257
Q

Load bearing structures of a complete lower denture

A

Buccal shelf
Residual alveolar ridge

258
Q

Advice following fluoride varnish

A

30 mins no food or drinks
4 hours no brushing or hard/sticky foods

259
Q

When are the only times manual cleaning of instruments should be carried out?

A

Recommended by the manufacturer’s instructions
No other alternatives
Ultrasonic or WD has failed to remove contamination

260
Q

Management of TMJDS

A

Manage stress
Avoid habits such as clenching, grinding, chewing gum, nail biting or leaning on the jaw
A bite raising appliance may be considered if there is nocturnal grinding/clenching
Avoid wide opening
Soft diet
Ibuprofen
Alternate hot and cold packs

261
Q

Treatment for internal and external related inflammatory root resorption

A

Endo treatment
CaOH 4-6 weeks
Obturate with GP

262
Q

Necessary properties of a trauma splint

A

Flexible and passive
Ease of placement and removal
Facilitate sensibility testing
Allow oral hygiene
Aesthetic

263
Q

How long to splint lateral luxation

A

4 weeks

264
Q

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

Acute infectious disease caused by herpes simplex virus I

265
Q

How would you manage an oroantral communication with the maxillary sinus following extraction of 17?

A

Inform the patient
If small or sinus intact - encourage clot, suture margins, antibiotic, post-op instructions
If large or lining torn - close with buccal advancement flap, antibiotics and nose blowing instructions

266
Q

4 main post trauma complications

A

Pulp necrosis and infection
Pulp canal obliteration
Root resorption
Breakdown of marginal gingiva and bone

267
Q

Emergency scenario
A - swelling, stridor
B - increased rate, wheeze
C - increased rate, hypotension
D - loss of consciousness
E - rash, swelling
Diagnosis and treatment

A

Anaphylaxis
Adr 1:1000 0.5mg intramuscular

268
Q

What type of denture cleaners can be used on metal based dentures?

A

Alkaline peroxide cleansers such as Steradent max of 15 min
Alkaline hypochlorite cleansers such as Dentural or Milton for 10 min

269
Q

What are epiludes?

A

Common solid swelling of the oral mucosa
Benign hyperplastic lesions

270
Q

3 main types of epiludes

A

1) fibrous epulis
2) pyogenic granuloma
3) peripheral giant cell granuloma

271
Q

Steps of disinfection and sterilisation from acquisition to use

A

Acquisition
Cleaning
Disinfection
Inspection
Packaging
Sterilisation
Transport
Storage
Use
Transport

272
Q

What should you not clean metal containing dentures with?

A

Acid cleaners

273
Q

What type of items can a Type S steriliser process?

A

Non lumened instrumend or specific kits (does not process wrapped instruments)

274
Q

What is the first stage of the decontamination cycle?

A

Washer disinfector

275
Q

Ramjford’s teeth

A

16 21 24
36 31 34

276
Q

Definition of incidence

A

Number of new cases of a disease developing over a specific period of time in a defined population
Rate = number of new cases of a disease in a period/number of individuals in the population at risk

277
Q

Two bacteria usually found in necrotic lesions

A

Fusobacterium
Spirochetes

278
Q

What effect does lowering kV have on the Xray unit?

A

Lowering Xray tube potential difference means there are overall lower energy photons produced, increased photoelectric effect interactions and increased contrast between tissues with different Z BUT there is also an increased dose being absorbed by the patient

279
Q

Fibroepithelial polyp

A

Firm pink lump thought to be initiated by minor trauma, surgical excision is curative

280
Q

How long do you splint a cervical third root fracture?

A

4 months

281
Q

What is ankylosis related replacement root resorption?

A

Root resorption due to presence of ankylosis, initiated by severe damage to PDL and cementum

282
Q

What is internal infection related inflammatory root resorption?

A

Root resorption due to infected material via non-vital coronal part of canal

283
Q

What concentration is fluoride varnish?

A

Sodium fluoride 5%
22,600ppmF

284
Q

What volume of fluoride should be used for each age group?

A

P1 (2-5 years) 0.25ml
P2 (5-7 years) 0.4ml

285
Q

9 protected characteristics from Equality Act 2010

A

Age
Disability
Gender reassignment
Marriage or civil partnership
Pregnancy and maternity
Race
Religion or belief
Sex
Sexual orientation

286
Q

What is the Patient Rights Act

A

Act gives everyone the right to receive healthcare that:
Considers their needs
Considers what would be of most benefit
Encourages them to take part in decisions about their health, and gives them the information to do so

287
Q

Frankfort horizontal plane

A

Imaginary horizontal line from the superior aspect of the EAM to the inferior border of the orbital margin

288
Q

How is ANB calculated?

A

SNA - SNB

289
Q

Photoelectric effect

A

Photon in Xray beam interacts with inner shell electron in subject, resulting in absorption of the photon and creation of a photoelectron

290
Q

Compton effect

A

Photon in Xray beam interacts with outer shell electron in subject, resulting in partial absorption and scattering of the photon and creation of a recoil electron

291
Q

Role of collimation (5)

A

Lowers surface area irradiated
Lowers volume of irradiated tissue
Lowers number of scattered photons produced in the tissue
Lowers scattered photons interacting with receptor
Lowers loss of contrast on radiographic image (also reduces patient dose and amount of radiation being released into surroundings)

292
Q

kV in dental radiology according to UK guidance

A

60-70kV

293
Q

How to make a critical, semi critical and non critical device suitable for their next use

A

Critical - clean then sterilise
Semi critical - clean and high level disinfection
Non critical - cleaned and low level disinfection

294
Q

When to use an ultrasonic bath

A

Considered back-up method after using washer disinfector
- If WD is out of service and instrument is required
- If WD could not remove certain spots of biological matter

295
Q

Ultrasonic bath operating temperature

A

20-30C

296
Q

Main relief areas of upper complete dentures

A

Incisive papilla
Palatine raphe
Palatine fovea
Crest of alveolar ridge

297
Q

Load bearing structures of complete upper denture

A

Rugae
Posterior palate
Maxillary tuberosity

298
Q

Main relief areas for a lower completer denture

A

Genial tubercle
Mandibular torus
Mylohyoid ridge

299
Q

4 types of factors affecting retention of a denture

A

Physical - cohesion, adhesion, atmospheric pressure and gravity
Anatomical -undercuts, shape of edentulous area
Physiological - neuromuscular control, quality of saliva
Mechanical - balanced occlusion, contour of polished surfaces

300
Q

FSD focus to skin distance

A

> 200mm

301
Q

Linear no threshold model

A

Assumes that the damage is linear to radiation dose. It assums that radiation is always harmful with no safety threshold. It estimates the long term damage from radiation

302
Q

Overview of stages involved in a washer disinfector

A

1) Flush/prewash - removes gross contamination
2) Main wash - detergent used to more effectively remove biological matter
3) Rinse - removes any remaining residue
4) Thermal disinfection - actively kills microorganisms with the use of heated water
5) Drying - hot air to remove any remaining moisture from the surface of the instruments

303
Q

Name stages in washer disinfector

A

Pre wash
Main wash
Rinse
Thermal disinfection
Drying

304
Q

Temperatures for each stage of washer disinfector

A

Prewash - <35
Main wash - temp dependent on detergent used
Rinse - <65
Thermal disinfection - 90-95 for minimum of 1min
Drying - generally 100

305
Q

At what ages should you carry out simplified BPE and which codes should be used?

A

7-11, codes 0,1,2
12-17, codes 0, 1, 2, 3, 4

306
Q

Name 4 temporary materials

A

Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)
Polyethylmethacrylate (PEMA)
Bis-acryl composite
Urethanedimethacrylate (UDMA)

307
Q

Why is there one less stage in production of replica dentures?

A

For replica dentures, master impressions and jaw reg can be done in the same visit

308
Q

3 different types of sterliser

A

Type B
Type N
Type S

309
Q

Why is a type B steriliser capable of processing wrapped and lumened instruments?

A

The machine removes all air from the chamber before filling it with steam therefor creating a vacuum.
Type N sterilisers heat the water and as it turns to steam it passively forces the air from the chamber. This can leave pockets of air within the chamber

310
Q

What is the issue with having air in the chamber of a steriliser?

A

Pockets of air are always a lower temperature than the steam surrounding it. It can not be heated or maintain temperature in the same way that steam can

311
Q

Current guidance documents for sterilisation and what standards do they reference?

A

Guidance SHTM 01 - 01 Part C
Standard - BS EN 285 and BS EN 13060

312
Q

Triple manoevre

A

Head tilt, jaw thrust, jaw opening

313
Q

Normal respiratory rate

A

12-26 breaths per minute

314
Q

What is ABCDE in a medical emergency

A

Airway Breathing Circulation Disability Exposure

315
Q

How to treat patient presenting as talking, with increased breathing and circulatory rate, alert and awake with pale clammy skin and central chest pain?

A

Angina
GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) spray 400micrograms sublingually (3 sprays)
Aspirin 300mg crush or chewed if MI

316
Q

Medical emergency conditions (8)

A

Anaphylaxis
Angina/MI
Asthma
Cardiac arrest
Choking
Hypoglycaemia
Seizure/fits
Syncope

317
Q

What would the ABCDE assessment be of someone suffering anaphylaxis, and how would you treat them?

A

A - swelling, stridor
B - increased rate, wheeze
C - increased rate, hypotension
D - loss of consciousness
E - rash, swelling
Remove trigger if possible, call ambulance, give IM adrenaline 1:1000 0.5mg and high flow oxygen, monitor heart rate and BP, if no response at 5 mins repeat adrenaline and administer IV fluid bolus

318
Q

ABCDE assessment of someone suffering asthma attack and how would you treat?

A

A -difficulty completing sentences
B -increased rate with wheeze
C -increased rate
D -alert
E -Tripods
Salbutamol inhaler (blue) 100micrograms per actuation, spacer device where appropriate

319
Q

ABCDE of someone in cardiac arrest and how to treat?

A

A - ensure no obstruction
B - stopped, potentially agonal breathing
C - stopped
D - unconscious
E - check for nearby danger
Call for ambulance, help and AED
30 chest compressions/2 rescue breaths START IMMEDIATELY
Continue until AED arrives

320
Q

If an adult becomes unconscious after choking what is the treatment?

A

CPR

321
Q

How to treat a conscious choking adult

A

If effective cough, encourage cough and monitor
If ineffective cough, 5 back blows, 5 abdominal thrusts

322
Q

ABCDE hypoglycaemia and how to treat

A

A - initially talking
B - initially increased rate
C - initially increased rate
D - initially alert
E - irritable, confused, pale
Glucose
Glucagon 1mg IM injection

323
Q

Seizures/fits ABCDE and how to treat

A

A - compromised
B - ?
C - ?
D - Unresponsive
E - seizure activity, incontinence
Ensure safe environment, if repeated or prolonged consider Midazolam 10miligrams via buccal mucosa

324
Q

Syncope ABCDE and how to treat

A

A - compromised
B - reduced rate
C - reduced rate and pressure
D - Unresponsive
E - pale, clammy
Elevate legs

325
Q

How to respond to cardiac arrest

A

DRSABC
100-120 compressions per minute
5-6cm deep
15L 100% oxygen
30 compressions 2 breaths
Place AED ASAP

326
Q

Shockable cardiac arrest rhythms

A

Ventricular tachycardia
Ventricular fibrillation

327
Q

Unshockable cardiac arrest rhythms

A

Asystole
Pulseless electrical activity

328
Q

Oral ulceration

A

Localised defect in the surface oral mucosa where the covering epithelium is destroyed leaving an inflamed area of exposed connective tissue

329
Q

Causes of oral ulceration (4)

A

Infection
Immune mediated disorders
Trauma
Vitamin deficiency (iron, b12, folate)

330
Q

Further investigations for oral ulceration

A

Diet diary
Full blood count
Haematinics (folate, b12, iron)
Coeliac screen (anti-transglutaminate antibodies)

331
Q

Clinical features or orofacial granulomatosis (5)

A

Lip swelling
Full thickness gingival swelling
Perioral erythema
Cobblestone appearance of the buccal mucosa
Angular cheilitis

332
Q

What investigations should be carried out for orofacial granulomatosis? (8)

A

Measure growth - paediatric growth charts
Full blood count
Haematinics
Patch testing to ID triggers
Diet diary to ID triggers
Faecal calprotectin
Endoscopy (risky in childhood)
Serum angiotensin converting enzyme (raised in sarcoidosis

333
Q

What is geographic tongue and how to manage it?

A

Benign changes in tongue mucosa
Shiny red areas on the tongue with loss of filiform papillae, surrounded with white margins
Bland diet during flare ups

334
Q

2 variants of mucoceles

A

Mucous extravasation cyst - normal secretions rupture into adjacent tissue
Mucous retention cyst - secretions retained in an expanded duct

335
Q

Normal extent of jaw opening

A

40-50mm

336
Q

What is TMJ dysfunction syndrome characterised by?

A

Pain
Masticatory muscle spasm
Limited jaw opening

337
Q

What is verruca vulgaris and what causes it?

A

Solitary or multiple intra-oral lesions caused by HPV 2 and 4

338
Q

What is squamous cell papilloma and what causes it?

A

Small pedunculated cauliflower like growths
Caused by HPV 6 and 11

339
Q

2 HPV associated swellings in the mouth

A

Verruca vulgaris
Squamous cell papilloma

340
Q

What is the difference between an oroantral communication and an oroantral fistula?

A

OAC - as soon as you make the communication
OAF - when the communication becomes epitheliazed

341
Q

When extracting multiple teeth, what order should this be done in and why is that important?

A

Back to front
- for better vision as blood from extraction sites can obscure vision
- decrease the chance of fracturing the tuberosity

342
Q

When extracting a lower tooth you fracture the tuberosity. How would you manage this?

A

Dissect out and close wound or reduce and fixate
Reduction - fingers or forceps
Fixation - orthodontic wire with composite, arch bar, splints

Remember - remove or treat pulp, ensure occlusion free, antibiotic and antiseptics, post-op instructions, remove tooth 8 weeks later

343
Q

What is the difference between tap water and purified water?

A

Tap water contains minerals, silicates, organics and metals

344
Q

What 4 key elements are present in the Sinner circle?

A

Energy
Chemicals
Time
Temperature

345
Q

What key element of the Sinner circle is the largest in an ultrasonic?

A

Energy

346
Q

What is cancrum oris?

A

Necrotising and destructive infection of the mouth and face, not strictly periodontal disease

347
Q

What is the current guidance for washer disinfectors and what standards do they reference?

A

SHTM 01 - 01 part D
BS EN 15883

348
Q

Phosphor plate sizes and corresponding radiograph

A

Size 0 - anterior periapicals
Size 2 - bitewings, posterior periapicals
Size 4 - occlusal

349
Q

Types of digital Xray receptor and are they single or multiple use?

A

Phosphor plate, solid state sensor - both multiple use

350
Q

Is a film Xray receptor single or multiple use?

A

Single use

351
Q

What are the types of film Xray receptors?

A

Direct action film, indirect action film

BDS3 (20 decks)

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