General Orthopaedic Surgery Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Define compartment syndrome

A

Critical pressure increases within a closed fascial compartment that compromises the neurovascular bundle

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2
Q

Presentation of compartment syndrome

A
  • disproportionate pain which is not improved by analgesia
  • pain is worsened by passively stretching the muscle bellies
    passive stretch test
  • 5Ps
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3
Q

What are the 5 Ps of acute limb ischaemia which can be seen in compartment syndrome?

A
  • pain
  • pallor
  • Perishingly cold
  • paralysis
  • Pulselessness
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4
Q

What is the most reliable diagnostic test for compartment syndrome?
What blood test can aid diagnosis?

A

Intra-compartmental pressure monitor
Elevated creatine kinase

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5
Q

What is the most sensitive sign of compartment syndrome?

A

Passive stretch pain

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6
Q

Management of compartment syndrome

A
  • urgent fasciotomy
    Prior to surgery:
  • keep limb at neutral level
  • O2 administration
  • IV fluid bolus
  • remove dressings/casts
  • IV opioids
  • monitor renal function + Rhabdomyolysis
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7
Q

Consequences of inadequate treatment of compartment syndrome

A
  • ischaemia
  • Rhabdomyolysis + AKI
  • nerve death
  • Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture
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8
Q

Explain how inadequate treatment of compartment syndrome can cause Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture

A
  • compartment pressure increase > compartment syndrome
  • due to lack of O2, muscles undergo infarction
  • in repair, muscle tissues are replaced by scar tissue through fibrosis
  • myofibroblasts in fibrosis contract
  • flexion contracture
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9
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Inflammation in a bone + bone marrow caused by bacterial infection

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10
Q

What are the three ways osteomyelitis can occur?
Which is most common?

A
  • haematogenous osteomyelitis (most common)
  • direct inoculation e.g. surgery or at open fracture site
  • direct spread froom nearby infection
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11
Q

What is haematogenous osteomyelitis?

A

When a pathogen is carried though the blood and seeded in the bone

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12
Q

What is the most common microorganism that causes osteomyelitis?

A

Staph aureus

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13
Q

Risk factors for osteomyelitis

A
  • open fractures
  • orthopaedic operations
  • diabetes
  • peripheral arterial disease
  • IV drug use
  • immunosuppression
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14
Q

Presentation fo osteomyelitis

A
  • fever
  • pain + tenderness
  • erythema
  • swelling
  • generalised infection symptoms
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15
Q

What is the what is the gold standard for osteomyelitis investigations

A

Culture from bone biopsy at debridement
MRI

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16
Q

X ray signs of osteomyelitis

A
  • periosteal reaction | changes to the surface of the bone
  • localised osteopenia
  • destruction to areas of the bone
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17
Q

Investigations of osteomyelitis

A
  • MRI
  • blood tests - raised inflammatory markers
  • blood cultures
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18
Q

Management of osteomyelitis

A
  • surgical debridement
  • antibitoics
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19
Q

Abx management of acute osteomyelitis

A
  • 6 weeks of flucloxacillin
  • possibly with rifampicin or fusidic acid added for first 2 weeks
    .
  • clindamycin if penicillin allergy
  • vancomycin if MRSA
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20
Q

What are sarcomas?

A

Cancers originating in the muscle, bones or other connective tissue

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21
Q

Types o bone sarcomas

A
  • osteosarcoma (most common)
  • chondrosarcoma: cancer of the cartilage
  • ewing sarcoma: a form of bone + soft tissue cancer affecting children + young adults
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22
Q

Outline Kaposi’s sarcoma

A
  • cancer that forms in the blood vessels + lymph vessels
  • associated with infection of human herpesvirus 8
  • causes red/purple lesion on the face, arms + legs
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23
Q

Presentation of sarcoma

A
  • depends on location + size
  • soft tissue lump | growing, painful, large
  • bone swelling
  • persistent bone pain worse at night
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24
Q

Investigations of suspected sarcomas

A
  • X-ray for bony lumps or persistent pain
  • USS for soft tissue lumps
  • CT or MRI for more detail + to look for metastatic spread
  • biopsy
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25
Q

What is the most common location for sarcoma to metastasise to?

26
Q

Management of sarcoma

A
  • depends on type, location, size + stage
  • surgical resection
  • radiotherapy
  • chemotherapy
  • palliative care
27
Q

What is the most common cause of bone cancer?
From what sites?

A

Metastatic spread from other cancers
Such as renal, thyroid, lung, prostate + breast

28
Q

What are osteochondromas?

A

Benign bony tumours forming as an outgrowth from the metaphysics
Normally asymptomatic and slow growing

29
Q

What are Ewing sarcomas?

A

Aform of bone + soft tissue cancer affecting children + young adults

30
Q

Presentation of Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Painful + enlarging mass with tenderness + warmth

31
Q

Management of Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Neoadjuvant chemo
Followed by surgical excision

32
Q

Features of benign vs malignant X-rays

A
  • benign: sharp, well defined, lacks soft tissue involvement, no cortical destruction
  • malignant: poorly defined, rough boarders, involves soft tissues, cortical destruction
33
Q

when should patients be assessed for osteoporosis?

A

women >65
men >75
earlier if risk factors present

34
Q

Risk factors of osteoporosis

A
  • previous fragility fracture
  • falls history
  • low BMI
  • smoking
  • excessive alcohol intake
    .
    Causes of secondary osteoporosis:
  • hypogonadism
  • diabetes mellitus
  • Cushing’s
  • IBD (due to malabsoprtion)
  • RA
35
Q

Outline the methods of risk assessment for osteoporosis

A
  • exclude a secondary cause
  • recent fragility fracture - look for pathological causes
  • fragility risk score FRAX or QFracture
  • DEXA scan if >50 with hx of fragility fracture or <40 with major risk factors of fragility #
36
Q

what can be used to assess fragility fracture score?

A

FRAX
QFracture

37
Q

Outline FRAX

A
  • fragility fracture score
  • assess pt 10 year risk of fracture
  • colour risk if given -green, orange or red
  • orange or red > DEXA scan
38
Q

Outline QFracture

A
  • fragility fracture risk score
  • pt 10 year risk of developing a fracture
  • if >10% then DEXA scan
39
Q

What does the T score in a DEXA scan mean?

A

T score describe bone density as a standard deviation in comparision to the bone mass of young reference population
e.g. -2.5 > 2.5SD below that of average healthy adult

40
Q

What does the T score indicate?

A

above -1.0 : normal
-1.0 to -2.5 : osteopenia
-2.5 or lower : osteoporosis

41
Q

What T score on a DEXA scan indicates osteopenia?

A

-1.0 to -2.5

42
Q

What T score on a DEXA scan indicates osteoporosis?

A

-2.5 or lower

43
Q

When should you start bone protection on patients who are going to take long term steroids?

A

immediately

44
Q

Medical treatment for reducing risk of fragility fractures

A
  • calcium + vitamin D
  • bisphosphonates e.g. alendronic aicd
  • denosumab
45
Q

Define fracture

A

Break in the continuity of bone

46
Q

Types of fractures

A
  • transverse
  • oblique
  • spiral
  • segmental
  • comminuted
  • compression fracture
  • greenstick
  • buckle/torus
  • salter harris
47
Q

Anatomical description of fracture

A

Type
Comminution
Location
Displacement

48
Q

Define displacement
Types

A
  • More than 1cm away from its normal alignment
  • translation
  • angulation
  • shortening
49
Q

What are pathological fractures?

A

occur due to underlying disease of bone:
- osteoporosis
- malignancy
- Paget’s disease of bone

50
Q

what are the main cancers that spread to bone?

A

prostate
renal
thyroid
breast
lung

51
Q

What can a fat embolism cause?

A

systemic inflammatory response > fat embolism syndrome
24-72 hours after fracture

52
Q

Diagnosis of fat embolism

A

Gurd’s criteria

53
Q

What is Gurd’s crieteria?
what is it used for?

A

diagnosis of fat embolism
.
Major criteria:
- respiratory distress
- petechial rash
- cerebral involvement
.
Minor criteria:
- jaundice
- thrombocytopenia
- fever
- tachycardia
- + more

54
Q

Management of fat embolism

A

Supportive while condition improves

55
Q

What is needed before surgery

A
  • Xrays
  • CT or MRI for more detail
  • pre-op assessment
  • consent for surgery
  • bloods incl G+S and crossmatch
  • ECG
  • VTE assessment
  • fasting
56
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone

A
  • Condition where there is increased bone remodelling > excessive bone resportion + growth > skeletal deformities + fragile bones
  • Most commonly affects skull, pelvis, spine + legs
58
Q

Presentation of Paget’s disease of bone

A
  • initially asymptomatic
  • impingement of nerves > pain
  • leontiasis: overgrowth of skull bones > lion face
  • hearing loss
  • vision loss
  • kyphosis
59
Q

Diagnosis + investigations of Paget’s disease of bone

A
  • elevated levels of ALP
  • X ray: lyric lesions
  • bone biopsy to exclude malignancy
60
Q

Treatment of Paget’s disease of bone

A
  • analgesia
  • bisphosphonates
  • surgery to correct deformities