Conditions Of The Spine And Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What could cause back pain?

A
  • cauda equina
  • spinal fracture
  • malignancy
  • discitis
  • TB of spine (Pott’s disease)
  • pylonephritis
  • referred pain
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2
Q

Define radiculopathy

A
  • a conduction block in the axons of a spina nerve or its root
  • this impacts on motor axons > motor weakness
  • this impacts spinal axons > Paraesthesia
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3
Q

Define radicular pain

A

A pain deriving from damage or irritation of spinal nerve tissue (particularly dorsal root ganglion)

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4
Q

Causes of radiculopathy

A

nerve compression which can be caused by:
- intervertebral disc prolapse
- degenerative diseases of the spine
- fracture
- malignancy
- infection e.g. osteomyelitis, TB/Pott’s disease, herpes zoster

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5
Q

What is Pott’s disease?

A

Tuberculosis of the spine

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6
Q

Presentation of radiculopathy

A
  • parathesia + numbness
  • weakness
  • radicular pain
  • ask about red flags
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7
Q

Management of radiculopathy

A
  • depends on underlying cause
  • cauda equina syndrome is the only condition requiring emergency surgical treatment
  • analgesia: amitriptyline first line
  • Physiotherapy
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8
Q

Analgesia for radiculopathy

A

amitriptyline first line
pregabalin
gabapentin

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9
Q

Define lumbago

A

Lower back pain

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10
Q

Causes of mechanical back pain

A
  • muscle or ligament sprain
  • facet joint dysfunction
  • sacroiliac joint dysfunction
  • herniated disc
  • spondylolisthesis
  • scoliosis
  • arthritis
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11
Q

What is spondylolithesis?

A

Anterior displacement of vertebra out of line with the one below it

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12
Q

Causes of neck pain

A
  • muscle or ligament sprai
  • torticollis
  • headache
  • whiplash
  • cervical spondylosis
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13
Q

Red flags that could indicate ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • <40
  • gradual onset
  • morning stiffness > 30 mins
  • night time pain
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14
Q

Red flags suggestive of spinal infection

A

Fever
IV drug user

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15
Q

Red flags for back pain

A
  • thoracic pain
  • <20 or >55
  • non-mechanical pain
  • pain worse when supine
  • night pain
  • weight loss
  • associated with systemic illness
  • neurological signs
  • cauda equina red flags
  • IV drug use
  • immunosuppression or steroid use
  • cancer or HIV
  • structural deformity
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16
Q

Nerve roots of the sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3

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17
Q

What does the sciatic nerve split into?
Where?

A

Tibial nerve
Common peroneal nerve
At the popliteal fossa

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18
Q

Presentation of sciatica

A
  • Unilateral pain from buttock radiating down back of thigh to the knee or foot
  • electric shock/shooting pain
  • Paraesthesia
  • numbness
  • motor weakness
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19
Q

Causes of sciatica

A
  • herniated disc
  • spondylolithesis
  • spinal stenosis
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20
Q

What test is used to help diagnose sciatica?

A

Sciatic stretch test

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21
Q

Outline the sciatic stretch test

A
  • patient lies on back with leg straight
  • examiner lifts one leg from the ankle with knee extended until hip flexion is reached
  • examiner dorsiflexes the ankle
  • sciatica type pain in buttock/posterior thigh indicates sciatic nerve root irritation
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22
Q

What are the main cancers that metastasise to the bone?

A
  • prostate
  • breast
  • lung
  • thyroid
  • renal
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23
Q

Investigations of back pain

A
  • X-ray or CT scan for fractures
  • emergency MRI scan in suspected cauda equina
  • X ray, MRI + inflammatory markers for ankylosing spondylitis
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24
Q

Management of sciatica

A
  • amitryptyline or duloxetine first line
  • do not use oral corticosteroids, opioids or gabapentin or pregabalin
  • epidural corticosteroid injection
  • local anaesthetic injections
  • radiofrequency denervation
  • spinal decompression
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25
Q

What is the STarT Back screening tool used for?

A
  • To stratify the risk of a patient presenting with acute back pain developing chronic back pain
  • helps to guide the intensity of initial investigations
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26
Q

Outline the STarT Back screening tool

A
  • Used to stratify the risk of a patient with acute back pain developing chronic back pain
  • 9 questions assessing function + psychological response to back pain
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27
Q

Management of acute lower back pain

A
  • exclude serious underlying causes
  • STarT Back tool to stratify risk of developing chronic back pain
  • low risk: analgesia, reassurance, stay active, eduction
  • moderate or high risk: physio, group exercise, CBT
  • analgesia for low back pain: NSAIDs first line, codeine, benzodiazepines short term for muscle spams
  • avoid opioids, antidepressants, amitriptyline, gabapentin or pregabalin
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28
Q

What is first line analgesia for low back pain

A

NSAIDs

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29
Q

What should you do if ankylosing spondylitis is suspected?

A
  • inflammatory markers CRP ESR
  • HLA-B27 gene testing
  • X-ray spine + sacrum
  • MRI spine
  • urgent rheumatology review
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30
Q

Imaging results of ankylosing spondylitis -

A

MRI: bone marrow oedema
X ray:
- bamboo spine
- squaring of vertebral bodies
- subchondral sclerosis + erosions
- sydesmophytes
- ossification of ligaments, discs + joints

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31
Q

Management of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • NSAIDs first line
  • anti TNF meds second line
  • mab against IL-17 third line
  • intra-articular injections
  • Physiotherapy
  • exercise + mobilisation
  • avoid smoking
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32
Q

What is cauda equina syndrome?

A

A surgical emergency where the nerve roots of cauda equina are compressed
L3 L4 L5 S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 Co

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33
Q

What is the sensory, motor + parasympathetic innervation of cauda equina?

A
  • sensory: lower limbs, perineum, bladder, rectum
  • motor: lower limbs, anal+ urethral sphincters
  • parasympathetic: bladder + rectum
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34
Q

Causes of cauda equina

A
  • herniated disc
  • tumours
  • spondylolisthesis
  • abscess
  • trauma (vertebral fracture + subluxation)
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35
Q

Red flags of cauda equina

A
  • saddle anaesthesia
  • loss of sensation in balder + rectum
  • urinary retention or incontience
  • faecal incontience
  • bilateral sciatica
  • bilateral motor weakness in legs
  • reduced anal tone on PR exam
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36
Q

Management of cauda equina

A
  • immediate Hosptial admission
  • emergency MRI scan of lumbar-sacral
    spine
  • PR exam
  • bladder scan
  • neurosurgical review for urgent lumbar decompression surgery
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37
Q

What is a late sign of cauda equina + therefore associated with poor outcome?

A

urinary incontinence

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38
Q

What is metastatic spinal cord compression?

A

Compression of the spinal cord due to a metastatic lesion
Oncological emergency

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39
Q

Key feature of metastatic spinal cord compression

A

Back pain that is worse on coughing or straining

40
Q

Management of metastatic spinal cord compression

A
  • high dose dexamethasone
  • analgesia
  • surgery
  • radiotherapy
  • chemotherapy
41
Q

Compare the presentation of cauda equina + metastatic spinal cord compression

A
  • cauda equina: lower motor neurone signs - reduced tone + reflexes
  • MSCC: upper motor neurone signs - increased tone, brisk reflexes,
42
Q

Lower motor lesion signs

A
  • weakness
  • hyporeflexia or areflexia
  • hypotonia
  • muscle atrophy
  • fasciculations
43
Q

Upper motor lesion signs

A
  • weakness
  • hypertonic
  • Hyperreflexia
  • clasp knife rigidity
  • atrophy
44
Q

Causes of acute spinal cord compression

A
  • metastatic spinal cord compression
  • trauma (vertebral fracture or subluxation)
  • abscesses
  • disc prolapse
45
Q

Risk factors for spinal cord compression

A
  • thyroid, renal, breast, lung, prostate cancer
    .
    Any pathology that can predispose to a narrowed cord canal
  • RA
  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • ligamentum flavum hypertrophy
  • osteophytes
46
Q

Clinical features of spinal cord compression

A
  • sensation + proprioception impaired below cord compression
  • pain worse on coughing or sneezing
  • weakness
  • upper motor neurone signs e.g. hypertonia, hyperreflexia
47
Q

What is gold standard for suspected spinal cord compression?

A

MRI of whole spine

48
Q

Management of spinal cord compression

A
  • high dose corticosteroids |dexamethoasone
  • immediate referral to neurosurgery
  • definitive treatment: spinal cord decompression
  • radio/chemotherapy
49
Q

What is spinal stenosis?
What is the most common location?

A

Narrowing of a part of the spinal cord
Resulting in compression of the spinal cord or nerve roots
Lumbar spine

50
Q

Three types of spinal stenosis

A
  • central stenosis: narrowing of central spinal canal
  • lateral stenosis: narrowing of the nerve root canals
  • foramina stenosis: narrowing of the intervertebral foramina
51
Q

Causes of spinal canal stenosis

A
  • congenital spinal stenosis
  • herniated discs
  • thickening of ligamentum flavum
  • spinal fractures
  • tumours
  • spondylolithesis
  • degenerative changes
52
Q

Presentation fo spinal stenosis

A

intermittent neurogenic claudications (central stenosis)
- lower back pain
- buttock + leg pain
- leg weakness
- absent at rest
- occur when standing or walking
- bending forwards improves symptoms
.
- sciatica in lateral or foramina stenosis

53
Q

Investigations for spinal stenosis

A
  • MRI of spine
  • exclude peripheral arterial disease: ankle-brachial pressure index + CT angiogram
54
Q

Management of spinal stenosis

A
  • exercise + weight loss if appropriate
  • analgesia
  • Physiotherapy
  • decompression surgery
  • laminectomy
55
Q

What area of the spinal is most commonly infected?

A

Lumbar spine
Then thoracic

56
Q

Types of spinal infections

A
  • vertebral osteomyelitis/spondylitis
  • discitis
  • epidural abscess
  • sub dural abscess
  • spinal cord abscess
57
Q

What are the three main routes pathogens can cause a spinal infection

A
  • Haematogenous (most common)
  • direct inoculation
  • adjacent spread
58
Q

What are the most common organisms causing spinal infections?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
E. coli

59
Q

Risk factors of spinal infection

A

IV drug use
Immunosuppression
Malignancy
Diabetes mellitus
Recent spinal surgery

60
Q

Presentation of spinal infection

A
  • back pain
  • worse on movement + at night
  • pyrexia
  • tender on spine examination at level of infection
  • neurological compromise
61
Q

Investigations of suspected spinal infection

A
  • routine bloods
  • blood cultures
  • MRI spine with contrast
  • CT to determine extent of bony involvement
  • CT guided biopsy > microbiology + histology
62
Q

What is the imaging of choice for osteomyelitis?

63
Q

Management of spinal infections

A
  • Long term IV abx/antifungals
  • immobilisation
  • surgery is indicated if there is significant bone destruction, presence of neurological deficits or poor response to abx
  • debridement + drainage
64
Q

When is surgery indicated in spinal infections?

A
  • significant bone destruction
  • presence of neurological deficits
  • poor response to abx
65
Q

What classification is used to describe cervical spine fractures?

A

AO classification

66
Q

What is a Jefferson fracture?
What is it caused by?

A
  • Burst fracture of the atlas C1
  • caused by axial loading of cervical spine
67
Q

What is a hangman’s fracture?
What is it caused by?

A
  • fracture through the pars interarticularis of C2 bilaterally
  • often with subluxation of C2 on C3
  • caused by cervical hyperextension + distraction
68
Q

What is cervical spondylosis?

A

Osteoarthritis of IV joints

69
Q

Triad of presentation of cervical spondylosis

A
  • loss of disc height
  • osteophytes
  • facet joint space OA
70
Q

Mechanisms of odontoid process fracture

A
  • hyperflexion: blow to back of head
  • hyperextension: falling + impact to forehead
71
Q

Investigation of suspected cervical fracture

A
  • CT in adults
  • MRI in children
  • X-ray in children who do not fit criteria for MRI
  • MRI to look at soft tissue injury
72
Q

Management of cervical fracture

A
  • 3 point C spine immobilisation
  • restricting movement fo spine
  • stable fracture: rigid collars or halo vests
  • traction devices - definitive treatment of stable
  • unstable fractures: stabilisation: fusion of damaged vertebra to the one above + below
73
Q

What is the most commonly fracture region of the spine?

A

Thoracolumbar junction
T11-L2

74
Q

Classification of thoracolumbar fractures

A

AO classification
- type A: compression injuries
- type B: distraction injuries
- type C: translation injuries

75
Q

Outline a burst fracture

A

occurs when there is substantial compressive force acting through the anterior + middle column of the ventral > retropulsion of the bone into the spinal canal

76
Q

Outline a chance fracture

A

vertebral fractures that result from excessive flexion of the spine
e.g. head on RTC

77
Q

Investigations of thoracolumbar fracture

A
  • X ray first line if no abnormal neurological presentation
  • CT if there is suspicion of spinal column injury
  • MRI to look at soft tissue injury
78
Q

Management of thoraclumbar fracture

A
  • restrict movement of spine
  • stable fracture: extension bracing or lumbar corsets
  • analgesia
  • Physiotherapy
  • unstable fractures: decompression + spinal fusion
79
Q

What is degerative disc disease?

A

Natural deterioration of the IV disc structure > progressive weakness + collapse

80
Q

Pathophysiology of degernative disc disease

A
  • dysfunction: outer annular tears + separation of endplate, cartilage destruction + facet synovial reaction
  • instability: disc resportion + loss of disc height > subluxation + spondylolisthesis
  • re stabilisation: osteophyte formation + canal stenosis
81
Q

Clinical features of degenerative disc disease

A
  • local spinal tenderness
  • contracted paraspinal muscles
  • hypo mobility
  • painful extension of back or neck
82
Q

When is imaging indicated in suspected degenerative disc disease?

A
  • red flags present
  • radiculopathy with pain > 6 weeks
  • evidence of spinal cord compression
83
Q

What imaging is gold standard in suspected degenerative disc disease?

84
Q

Management of degenerative disc disease

A
  • analgesia
  • encourage mobility
  • Physiotherapy
  • referral to pain clinic if pain persists > 3 months
85
Q

What is needed in rib fractures to reduce risk of chest infection?

A

adequate analgesia
so patient can fully expand chest

86
Q

If normal analgesia is not adequate for rib fracture pain management, what is next line?

A

regional nerve block

87
Q

What is flail chest?

A

Life threathening chest injury where 2+ ribs break + become detached from chest wall

88
Q

what is flail chest characterised by?

A

paradoxical movement of flail segment when breathing

89
Q

Management of flail chest

A

immediate surgical management + invasive ventilation

90
Q

Investigations of rib fracture

A
  • CT scan best diagnostic tool
  • chest X ray
91
Q

Management of rib fracture

A
  • most conservatively
  • adequate analgesia
  • regional nerve block next line
  • surgical fixation if flail lung or failure to head after 12 weeks conservative Tx
92
Q

features of a prolapsed disc

A
  • dermatomal leg pain with associated neurological deficits
  • leg pain worse than back pain
  • pain worsen when sitting
93
Q

Features of L3 nerve root compression

A
  • sensory loss over anterior thigh
  • weak hip flexion, knee extension + hip ADduction
  • reduced knee reflex
  • positive femoral stretch test
94
Q

features of L4 nerve root compression

A
  • sensory loss anterior knee + medial malleolus
  • weak knee extension + hip ADduction
  • reduced knee reflex
  • positive femoral stretch test
95
Q

features of L5 nerve root compression

A
  • sensory loss to dosrum of foot
  • weakness in foot + big toe dorsiflexion
  • reflexes intact
  • positive sciatic nerve stretch test
96
Q

features of S1 nerve root compression

A
  • sensory loss to posterolateral aspect on leg + lateral aspect of foot
  • weakness in plantar flexion of foot
  • reduced ankle reflex
  • positive sciatic nerve stretch test
97
Q

Management of prolapsed disc

A
  • NSAIDs
  • physiotherapy
  • if persists 4-6 weeks, consider referral for MRI