Conditions Of The Ankle And Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is the syndesmosis of the ankle comprised of?

A
  • anterior inferior + posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
  • inter-osseous membrane
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2
Q

Define ankle fracture

A

A fracture of any malleolus (lateral, medial or posterior) with or without disruption to the syndesmosis

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3
Q

What classification is used to classify lateral malleolus fractures of the ankle?
What are the types?

A

Weber classification
- Type A: below the syndesmosis
- Type B: at the level of the syndesmosis
- Type C: above the level of the syndesmosis (highest likelihood of ankle instability)

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4
Q

What are the Ottawa Ankle rules?
What is it used for?

A

If there is presence of any of the following, an x-ray of the ankle is needed:
- bone tenderness at posterior edge or tip of either malleolus
- inability to bear weight immediately + in 4 steps in the ED

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5
Q

Contraindications of the Ottawa Ankle rules (when can they not be used)

A
  • pt is intoxicated or uncooperative
  • has other distracting painful injuries
  • diminished sensation in legs
  • gross swelling
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6
Q

Investigations of ankle fracture

A
  • X ray (in AP and lateral view) | ankle must be in full dorsiflexion
  • CT may be needed for surgical planning
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7
Q

Management of ankle fracture

A
  • immediate fracture reduction
  • below knee back slab
  • post reduction neurovascular examination + repeat X-ray
  • surgical management: ORIF using plates + screws
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8
Q

When is conservative management used for ankle fractures?

A
  • non displaced medial malleolus fractures
  • Weber type A or B without talar shift
  • if unfit for surgery
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9
Q

When is surgical management required for ankle fracture

A
  • displaced bimalleolar or trimalleolar fractures
  • Weber C
  • Weber B with talar shift
  • open fractures
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10
Q

What demographic are ankle fractures most common in?

A

Younger males
Older females

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11
Q

Classification of ankle sprain

A
  • high ankle sprain: injuries to the syndesmosis
  • low ankle sprains: injuries to the anterior talofibular ligament + calcaneofibular ligament
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12
Q

What is the most common ligament damaged in ankle sprains?

A

Calcaneofibular ligament
Check??

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13
Q

Common presentation of ankle sprain

A
  • following inversion injury
  • swelling + pain
  • potential not to weight bear
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14
Q

Investigations of suspected ankle sprain

A

X-ray to rule out bony injury

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15
Q

Management of ankle sprain

A

Conservative management
- analgesia
- RICE
- early mobilisation

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16
Q

Risk factors for ankle sprain

A
  • weak muscles/tendons across ankle joint
  • weak or lax ligaments
  • uneven surfaces
  • inadequate heel support
  • high heels
  • slow response to being off balance
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17
Q

List the three lateral ligaments of the ankle

A

Anterior talofibular
Posterior talofibular
Calcaneofibular

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18
Q

What is the name of the medial ankle ligament?

A

Deltoid ligament

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19
Q

Name the bones of the feet

A
  • talus
  • calcaneus
  • navicular
  • cuboid
  • 3 cuneiforms
  • metatarsals
  • phalanges
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20
Q

Name the tarsal bones of the foot

A
  • talus
  • calcaneus
  • navicular
  • cuboid
  • 3 cuneiforms
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21
Q

Common cause of 5th metatarsal fracture

A

Stepping on curb
Climbing steps
Inversion injuries

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22
Q

Why can forced inversion injuries cause a 5th metatarsal fracture?

A

The peroneus brevis + plantar aponeurosis both insert into the 5th metatarsal and cause significant tension during forced inversion

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23
Q

Presentation of 5th metatarsal fracture

A
  • pain, swelling + bruising to lateral foot
  • tenderness on palpation
  • difficulty weight bearing
24
Q

Management of 5th metatarsal fracture

A

Walking boot or cast
Analgesia
RICE

25
Q

What are tibial pilon fractures?

A

Severe injuries affecting the articular surface of the distal tibia (caused by high energy axial loads e.g. RTC

26
Q

What are tibial pilon fractures characterised by?

A

Articular impaction
Severe comminution
Soft tissue injury

27
Q

Presentation of tibial pilon fractures

A
  • severe ankle pain
  • inability to weight bear
  • possible ankle deformity
  • swelling + bruising
28
Q

What classification is used for the severity of tibial pilon fractures?
What are the types?

A

Ruedi and Allgower
- Type 1: undisplaced intraarticular
- Type 2: displaced intraarticular
- Type 3: comminuted or impacted fracture

29
Q

Management of tibial pilon fractures

A
  • realignment of limb + apply below-knee backstab
  • repeat neurovascular assessment + X-ray
  • elevation of limb
  • surgical: if there is significant soft tissue swelling: temporary spanning external fixator is applied then ORIF is done 7-14 days later
  • in older patients or if ORIF fails; fusion of ankle with hindfoot nail
30
Q

Management of ankle OA

A
  • activity modifications
  • physical therapy
  • analgesia
  • steroid injections
  • weight management
  • supportive footwear
31
Q

What are lisfranc injuries?

A

Severe injuries to the tarometatarsal (lisfranc) joint between the medial cuneiform + base of the 2nd metatarsal
.
Either solely ligaments us or involving the bones of the midfoot (fracture-dislocation)

32
Q

Mechanism of lisfranc injuries

A

Occur following severe torsional or translational forces applied through a plantarflexed foot e.g. RTC or athletic injury

33
Q

Presentation of lisfranc injuries

A
  • sever pain in midfoot
  • difficulty weight bearing
  • swelling + tenderness over midfoot
  • plantar bruising
  • piano key sign
34
Q

What sign is involved in lisfranc injuries?
What does it involve

A

piano key sign
Moving each toe, one at a time, to see if it causes pain

35
Q

Radiological features of lisfranc injuries

A
  • widening of the interval between the base of 1st + 2nd metatarsal
  • bony fragment in the space between the 1st + 2nd metatarsal
  • malaligment of the distal talus bones to their associated metatarsal
36
Q

What classification is used to classify Lisfranc injuries?

A

Hardcastle and Myerson classifcation

37
Q

Management of lisfranc fracture

A
  • ensure pt is Haemodynamically stable
  • if no significant displacement: cast immobilisation + non weight bearing mobilisation
  • if significantly displaced: closed reduction in A&E then screw fixation in surgery
38
Q

What are the first and second most commonly fractured tarsal bones?

A

Calcaneus (first)
Talus (second)

39
Q

Mechanism of calcaneus fracture

A

Fall from a height
With significant axial loading onto the bone

40
Q

What are the two types of classifications of calcaneus fractures?

A
  • intraarticular: involves the articular surfaces of the subtalar joint
  • extraarticular: most often avulsion fractures
41
Q

What classification is used for intra-articular calcaneus fractures?
What are the types?

A

Sanders classification
- type 1: no displaced posterior facet
- type 2: one fracture line in posterior facet (2 fragments)
- type 3: two fracture lines in posterior facet (3 fragments)
- type 4: comminuted with more than three fracture lines in the posterior facet (4 or more fragments)

42
Q

Presentation of calcaneus fractures

A
  • pain and tenderness around calcaneal region
  • inability to weight bear
  • swollen and bruised
  • possibly varus deformity
43
Q

What is the gold standard for assessing calcaneal fractures?

A

CT imaging

44
Q

Management of calcaneus fractures

A
  • closed reduction with percutaneous pinning if minimally displaced
  • ORIF for most cases
  • analgesia
  • non weight bearing
45
Q

Main complication of calcaneal fracture

A

Subtalar arthritis

46
Q

What are the two types of Achilles tendinopathy?

A
  • insertional tendinopathy: within 2cm of the insertion point on the calcaneus
  • mid-point tendinopathy: 2-6cm
47
Q

Risk factors of Achilles tendinopathy

A
  • sports that stress the Achilles e.g basketball, tennis, track
  • inflammatory conditions e.g. RA + ankylosing spondylitis
  • diabetes
  • raised cholesterol
  • fluoroquinolone abx e.g. ciprofloxacin
48
Q

Presentation of Achilles tendinopathy

A
  • pain or aching in Achilles tendon with activity
  • stiffness
  • tenderness
  • swelling
  • nodularity on palpation
49
Q

Management of Achilles tendinopathy

A
  • exclude Achilles tendon rupture - Simmonds’ calf squeeze test + USS
  • rest + modified activities
  • analgesia
  • orthotics e.g. insoles
  • Physiotherapy
  • ESWT: extracorporeal shock wave therapy
50
Q

Why are steroid injections into the Achilles tendon avoided?

A

Risk of tendon rupture

51
Q

Risk factors of Achilles tendon rupture

A
  • sports that stress the Achilles basketball, track, tennis
  • increasing age
  • existing Achilles tendinopathy
  • family history
  • fluoroquinolone abx ciprofloxacin
52
Q

What medicine has a link with Achilles tendon pathology?

A

Fluoroquinolone abx
e.g. Ciprofloxacin + levofloxacin
Rupture can spontaneous occur within 48 hours of starting

53
Q

Presentation of Achilles tendon rupture

A
  • sudden onset of pain in Achilles
  • snapping sound or sensation
  • feeling as though something has hit them in the back of the leg
54
Q

Examination signs of Achilles tendon rupture

A
  • tenderness
  • palpable gap
  • weakness of plantar flexion
  • unable to stand on tip toes
  • positive simmonds calf squeeze test
55
Q

What test can be used if suspecting Achilles tendon rupture?
Describe it

A

Simmonds’ calf squeeze test
- Pt is prone
- squeeze the calf
- if intact the ankle with plantar flex
- a lack of plantarflexion > positive test > Achilles tendon rupture

56
Q

Diagnostic imaging of Achilles tendon rupture

57
Q

Management of Achilles tendon rupture

A
  • RICE
  • immobilise with boot (first in plantarflexed position then to neutral over time)| consider VTE prophylaxis
  • analgesia
  • surgically reattaching Achilles (difficult to do)