General NCLEX Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ideal SPO2% for someone with COPD?

A

88-92%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rule of 9’s%?

  • Head
  • Arms (anterior and posterior)
  • Back
  • Chest
  • Legs (anterior and posterior)
  • Genitalia
A

Head: 9%
Arms: 9% EACH, anterior 4.5% and posterior 4.5%
Back: 18%
Chest: 18%
Legs: 18% EACH, anterior 9% and posterior 9%
Genitalia: 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of isotonic solution?

A

Fluid that goes into the vascular space and stays there.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Example of isotonic solution?

A

0.9% NS,D5W, Lactated ringers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is hypotonic solutions?

A

Used if isotonic solutions are contraindicated (ie. renal disease or cardiovascular disease). Causes water to go into vascular space and enter into cells to rehydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Examples of hypotonic solutions?

A

0.45% NS, 0.33% NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are hypertonic solutions?

A

CONCENTRATED solutions (high alert medications). Water is REMOVED from cells back into the vascular space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Example of hypertonic solutions?

A

3%NS, TPN, albumin, D10W, D5W, D5LR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are we concerned about with severe diarrhea and vomiting?

A

Electrolyte imbalances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What foods contain phosphorus?

A

Fish, pumpkin, nuts, PROTEIN, dairy, whole grains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What foods contain magnesium?

A

Leafy greens, wheat, peanut butter, PROTEIN, potatoes, dairy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What foods contain calcium?

A

Dairy, leafy greens, sardines, tofu.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What foods contain potassium?

A

Fruits & veggies, PROTEIN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What foods contain sodium?

A

Processed canned foods, dairy, bread, bacon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Positive trousseau’s and positive chvostek’s indicate what?

A

Low calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MAX potassium allowed to give per hour?

A

10mEq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What electrolytes have an inverse relationship?

A

Sodium + potassium
Calcium + phosphorus
Magnesium + phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What electrolytes have similar relationships?

A

Magnesium + calcium

Magnesium + potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the RR do in acidosis?

A

Increases to excrete acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does RR do in alkalosis?

A

Decreases to retain acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can cause metabolic alkalosis?

A

GI suctioning or severe vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can cause respiratory alkalosis?

A

Overstimulation of respiratory system = hyperventilation, hysteria, over ventilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Formula for medication dosages?

A

Desired dose/dose on hand x mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Formula for flow rate?

A

(Total volume x drop factor) divided by time in minutes = drops per a minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Formula for mL per hour?

A

Total volume in mL divided by number of hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Infusion time formula?

A

Total volume to be infused divided by mL per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the steps of the nursing process?

A
  1. Assess: collect data
  2. Diagnosis: what is the problem?
  3. Planning: how can we best manage the problem?
  4. Implementing: put the plan into action.
  5. evaluating: did the plan work?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What blood type can anyone get?

A

0-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What blood type can receive ALL blood?

A

AB+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Rh- patient should NEVER receive what type of blood?

A

Rh +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

S+S of blood transfusion reaction?

A

Fever, chest pain/tightness, SOB, anxiety, back pain, hypotension, tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If blood transfusion reaction occurs - what do we do?

A

Stop transfusion, change IV tubing at IV site and admin NS, notify MD + blood bank, stay with patient to monitor s+s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do we do for the first 15 minutes of a blood transfusion?

A

STAY WITH PATIENT to monitor for transfusion reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What can cause crackles in the lungs?

A

Pneumonia, heart failure, pulmonary oedema, fluid overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What can cause wheezing in the lungs?

A

Asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What can relieve wheezing in lungs?

A

Broncodilator ie. albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can cause rhonchi in lungs?

A

Chronic bronchitis.

38
Q

What can cause stridor sounds in lungs?

A

Aspiration of foreign objects, epiglottis, anaphylaxis.

39
Q

What is a life threatening adventitious lung sounds?

A

STRIDOR = means obstruction in upper airway.

40
Q

What position do we put patients in for SOB?

A

High fowlers

41
Q

Position for MI?

A

Semi-fowlers

42
Q

Position for head injury?

A

Elevate HOB 30 degrees

43
Q

Position for AFTER total hip replacement?

A

DO NOT sleep on affected side, DO NOT flex hips more than 45-60 degrees, do NOT elevate HOB >45degrees.
**MAINTAIN hip adduction by separating thighs with pillow.

44
Q

How do we position infant with spina bifida?

A

Prone to avoid sac rupture.

45
Q

Position for after lumbar puncture?

A

SUPINE to avoid CSF leakage.

46
Q

Position to prevent dumping syndrome?

A

Eat in low fowlers position, lie supine 20-30 minutes after meals.

47
Q

Position after ABOVE knee amputation?

A

Elevate affected leg for 24 hours on pillow, position prone daily for hip extension.

48
Q

Position after BELOW knee amputation?

A

Foot of bed elevated for 24 hours, position prone dail

49
Q

Position for infant with cleft lip?

A

Supine to prevent trauma to suture line.

50
Q

Position for chest tube insertion?

A

Arm raised above head.

51
Q

Position for prolapsed cord?

A

Trendelenburg OR knee to chest position.

52
Q

Position for NGT placement?

A

High fowlers

53
Q

Position for hypotension?

A

Trendelenburg

54
Q

Position for women in labour with not great FHR?

A

Left lateral

55
Q

Position for tube feeding with decreased LOC?

A

Right lateral + elevated HOB

56
Q

Position for epidural puncture?

A

Lateral

57
Q

Position during lumbar puncture?

A

Whatever helps to ROUND spine.

58
Q

Position after thyroidectomy?

A

Low or semi-fowlers

59
Q

Position for enema?

A

SIMS position

60
Q

Position for autonomic dysreflexia?

A

High fowlers

61
Q

Position for paracentesis?

A

High fowlers

62
Q

Position after liver biopsy?

A

Lie on right side for two hours then supine.

63
Q

Position after myringotomy?

A

Position on side of affected ear after surgery.

64
Q

What is included in neutropenic precautions?

A

Hand hygiene, visits have NO illness, private room, avoid sources of potential infection (raw fruit + veggies, flowers).

65
Q

When do we use contact precautions (Mrs.WEE)?

A
M:ultidrug resistant organism
R: respiratory infection 
S:kin infections (viracella, cutaneous diphtheria, herpes, simplex, impetigo, scabies). 
W:ound infection 
E:nteric infections: C.DIFF
E:ye infections = conjunctivitis.
66
Q

When do we use droplet precautions (SPIDERMAN)?

A
S:epsis, scarlet fever & strep pharyngitis
P:arovirus B19, pneumonia, pertussis
I:nfluenza
D:iptheria pharyngeal
E:piglottits
R:ubella
M:umps, meningitis, mycoplasma or meningeal pneumonia,
AN: adenovirus
67
Q

When do we use airborne precautions (MTV)

A

Measles, TB and varicella zoster.

68
Q

What do we use for contact precautions?

A

Gloves, gown

69
Q

What do we use for PPE for droplet ?

A

Gloves, gown, face mask and eye shield.

70
Q

What do we use for PPE for airborne infections?

A

Gloves & N95 mask.

71
Q

What can we do to prevent falls?

A

Orient to room, teach how and when to use call bell, bed in lowest position, raise 3/4 side rails, lock wheels, keep floor dry and free of cords, wear slip resistant footwear, stay with patient during shower.

72
Q

What is RACE

A

rescue patient in danger, activate alarm, contain fire, extinguish if small fire.

73
Q

How do you ambulate with a cane?

A

the cane ALWAYS moves before the weak leg.

  1. up stairs = strong leg, cane, weak leg.
  2. downstairs: cane, weak leg, strong leg.
74
Q

How do we position for pulmonary embolism?

A

Trendelenburg & left sided lying.

75
Q

What considerations do we use for the visually impaired client?

A

Knock on door, introduce self, use clear and simple sentences, orient patient to room, explain unusual noises, inform location of food for meals using 12clock, walk slightly in front of patient when ambulating and allow them to hold your arm.

76
Q

What are the 5P’s assessment of fractures?

A

Pain, pallor, pulselesness, paresthesia and polar (cold).

77
Q

What do we monitor for with PICCs?

A

Monitor for infection, embolism and occlusion.

78
Q

Antidote for warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

79
Q

Antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine sulphae

80
Q

Antidote for opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone

81
Q

Antidote for dioxin?

A

Digibind

82
Q

Antidote for magnesium?

A

Calcium gluconate

83
Q

Antidote for Tylenol?

A

N-acetylcysteine

84
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

85
Q

Antidote for insulin?

A

Glucose

86
Q

Antidote for cholinergic crisis?

A

Atropine sulphate

87
Q

What is included in a full liquid diet versus a clear liquid diet?

A

Full liquid: plain ice cream, Herbert, milk, fruit juices, pudding.
Clear liquid: Water, bouillon, clear broth, carbonate beverages, gelatine, ice pop, lemonade.

88
Q

What contains high fats?

A

Think dairy & protein foods.

89
Q

What can a LPN NOT do?

A

No nursing assessments, or IV medications.

90
Q

What do you never delegate as the RN?

A

Anything you EAT (evaluate, assess or teach).