Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATP Study Topics > General Knowledge > Flashcards

General Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

How many satellites are needed for RAIM?

A

5 (or 4 with a Baro-aided GPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should pilots have readily available for LAHSO?

A

The published ALD and runway slope information for all LAHSO runway combinations at each airport of intended landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Unless directed otherwise, when should you exit a runway after being given a LAHSO clearance?

A

At the first convenient taxiway before reaching the hold short point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LAHSO: A good “rule-of-thumb” for any Part 91 operation is to add at least _______ feet to the published aircraft landing distance to cover any contingencies

A

1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

LAHSO: _________ control is the most important factor in achieving landing precision.

A

Airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Should you accept a LAHSO clearance if there are reports of thunderstorms or wind shear near the airport

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of ______ feet and ___ statute miles visibility

A

1,000 / 3 (1,500 and 5 for air carriers at airports without PAPIs or VASIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is ASDE-X?

A

Airport Surface Detection Equipment Model X. It is a surveillance system using radar, multilateration and satellite technology that allows air traffic controllers to track surface movement of aircraft and vehicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is SMGCS?

A

Surface Movement Guidance and Control System. A system providing routing, guidance and surveillance for the control of aircraft and vehicles under all weather conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is considered severe wind shear?

A

Rapid change in windspeed or velocity exceeding 15 knots or vertical speeds greater than 500 FPM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What frequency should a pilot use if there is no published CTAF or UNICOM at an airport?

A

MULTICOM - 122.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should a pilot commence the crosswind turn in a VFR pattern?

A

Only when past the departure end of the runway and within 300 feet of the pattern altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How should a pilot depart the VFR traffic pattern?

A

Straight ahead or 45 degrees in the direction of the traffic pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the speed limit in the VFR traffic pattern?

A

200 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can you use a GPS to shoot a VOR, NDB or LOC approach?

A

These operations do not include lateral navigation on localizer-based courses (including localizer back-course guidance) without reference to raw localizer data.

Pilots may not substitute for the NAVAID.

Use of a suitable RNAV system as a means to navigate on the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure based on a VOR, TACAN or NDB signal, is allowable. The underlying NAVAID must be operational and the NAVAID monitored for final segment course alignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does alternate means of navigation mean?

A

You have the means to navigate with the raw NAVAID but are using GPS instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does substitute means of navigation mean?

A

You do not have the means to navigate via the raw NAVAID and are using GPS instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can you use a GPS for?

A

Determine position, navigate, hold and fly and arc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What weather is needed for SVFR in the day?

A

1 SM and clear of clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Can you request SVFR at night?

A

Yes, if the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is certified for IFR flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is an alternate not required for IFR flight plans?

A

For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What weather is required at my IFR alternate?

A

Precision approach: Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
Nonprecision approach: Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What weather is required for an IFR takeoff under part 121, 125, 129, or 135?

A

The weather conditions at time of takeoff are at or above the weather minimums for IFR takeoff prescribed for that airport, if not published, then:
Aircraft having two engines or less—1 statute mile visibility.
Aircraft having more than two engines— 1⁄2 statute mile visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What altitudes are included in RVSM airspace?

A

FL290 through FL410

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two ways to make changes to an aircraft?

A

Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) or a Form 337 (Major Repair and Alteration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where can a pilot find out what maintenance they can personally perform legally?

A

Section 8 of the POH and CFR 43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a CDL?

A

Configuration Deviation List. “Missing Parts” list. Approved list of exterior parts that can be missing while maintaining airworthiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the non-expanded circling distances in NM?

A

A: 1.3
B: 1.5
C: 1.7
D: 2.3
E: 4.5
“357 - 2345”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Under what conditions can a pilot expect icing?

A

In visible moisture and temps between 10 and - 40 C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the different levels of icing accumulation?

A

Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe and Extreme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What normal airspaces require clearance to enter?

A

A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What normal airspaces require 2-way radio communication before entry?

A

C, D, and E (sometimes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Can a student pilot enter Class A airspace?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Can a student pilot enter Class B airspace?

A

Yes, but local restrictions may apply.

35
Q

Can you get a special VFR clearance in class A airspace?

A

No. Only B, C, D, and E

36
Q

What is a form 337?

A

Major repair or alterations form

37
Q

What is a STC?

A

Supplemental type certificate. FAA approval for modification.

38
Q

What fuel is required for VFR flight (day and night)?

A

Plan to land with 30 minutes of fuel in the day and 45 at night.

39
Q

What fuel is required for IFR flight?

A

To destination plus 45 minutes. If alternate is required: to destination, then alternate, plus 45 minutes.

40
Q

What speeds are aircraft approach categories based on?

A

A: 0 - 90 knots
B: 91 - 120 knots
C: 121 - 140 knots
D: 141 - 165 knots
E: 166 knots or more

41
Q

Max holding speed MHA-6,000

A

200 KIAS

42
Q

Max holding speed 6,001-14,000

A

230 KIAS

43
Q

Max holding speed 14,001 and up

A

265 KIAS

44
Q

Drag factors on a typical twin: Full flaps?

A

-150 FPM

45
Q

Drag factors on a typical twin: Windmilling Prop

A

-400 FPM

46
Q

Drag factors on a typical twin: Gear Extended

A

-400 FPM

47
Q

What is an aircraft category?

A

Overarching classification (Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, etc.)

48
Q

What is an aircraft class?

A

More specific (Single-engine, Multi-engine, Land, Sea, etc.)

49
Q

What is an aircraft type?

A

The exact modle of aircraft. The type rating is a designation assigned to certain aircraft so that pilots get additional training before flying them.

All turbojets, regardless of weight, require a “type” rating.
Non-turbojet (ie. turboprop) airplanes don’t have a separate “type” rating until they get above 12,500 pounds.

50
Q

What are normal airspace speed restrictions?

A

MAXIMUM SPEEDS [§91.117(a)(b)(c)(d)]
Below 10,000’ MSL: 250 kts
At or below 2500’ AGL within 4 NM of primary airport in a Class C or Class D airspace: 200 kts
Under Class B airspace or in VFR corridor through Class B: 200 kts

51
Q

What are the lost comms procedures if in VFR conditions?

A

If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot must continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

52
Q

What are the lost comms procedures if in IFR conditions?

A

AVEF AME

Route
Assigned
Vectored
Expected
Filed

Altitude
Assigned
Minimum
Expected

53
Q

In a lost comms situation when should you leave the clearance limit or shoot the approach?

A

When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE).

If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

54
Q

What are the special squawk codes?

A

7700 - Emergency
7600 - Lost Comms
7500 - Hijack
1200 - VFR

55
Q

What are the rules associated with arriving at a clearance limit?

A

Whenever an aircraft has been cleared to a fix other than the destination airport and delay is expected, it is the responsibility of the ATC controller to issue complete holding instructions (unless the pattern is charted), an EFC time, and a best estimate of any additional en route/terminal delay.
If the holding pattern is charted and the controller doesn’t issue complete holding instructions, the pilot is expected to hold as depicted on the appropriate chart. When the pattern is charted, the controller may omit all holding instructions except the charted holding direction and the statement AS PUBLISHED, e.g., “HOLD EAST AS PUBLISHED.” Controllers must always issue complete holding instructions when pilots request them.

If no holding pattern is charted and holding instructions have not been issued, the pilot should ask ATC for holding instructions prior to reaching the fix. If unable to obtain holding instructions prior to reaching the fix, hold in a standard pattern on the course on which you approached the fix and request further clearance as soon as possible. In this event, the altitude/flight level of the aircraft at the clearance limit will be protected so that separation will be provided as required.
When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding airspeed.
When no delay is expected, the controller should issue a clearance beyond the fix as soon as possible and, whenever possible, at least 5 minutes before the aircraft reaches the clearance limit.
Pilots should report to ATC the time and altitude/flight level at which the aircraft reaches the clearance limit and report leaving the clearance limit.

56
Q

How do you correct for wind in holding?

A

Triple your inbound wind correction on the outbound.
Correct you outbound leg to make your inbound the published time if applicable.

57
Q

What is the standard holding time?

A

At or below 14,000 feet MSL: 1 minute.
Above 14,000 feet MSL: 11/2 minutes.

58
Q

How long should a pilot wait after SCUBA diving before flying?

A

Wait at least 12
hours after diving that does not require a controlled ascent (non-decompression stop diving) for flights up to 8000 ft
MSL; wait 24 hours for flights above 8000 ft or after any diving that required a controlled ascent (decompression stop
diving).

59
Q

What are the O2 requirements for an unpressurized cabin?

A

▷ Cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 to 14,000’ MSL (including) – The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 for periods of flight over 30 minutes at these altitudes.

▷ Cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000’ – The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 the entire flight time at these altitudes.

▷ Cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000’ MSL – Each occupant must be provided with supplemental O2.

60
Q

What are the O2 requirements for a pressurized cabin?

A

▷ Above FL250 - an addition of at least 10 minutes of supplemental O2 for each occupant is required.

▷ Above FL350 - one pilot at the controls must wear and use an O2 mask unless two pilots are at the control with quickdonning masks and the aircraft is at or below FL410.

▷ If one pilot leaves the controls above FL350, the other pilot must wear and use his O2 mask regardless if it’s a quick donning type.

61
Q

What are AIRMETS, how long are they good for and what are the three types?

A

An advisory of significant weather phenomena at
lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs. These conditions may affect all aircraft but are potentially hazardous
to aircraft with limited capability.
▷ Valid for 6 hours.
AIRMET (T) - describes moderate turbulence,
sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater,
and/or non-convective low-level wind shear.
▷ AIRMET (Z) - describes moderate icing and
provides freezing level heights.
▷ AIRMET (S) - describes IFR conditions and/or
extensive mountain obscurations.

62
Q

What are SIGMETS and how long are they good for?

A

A non-scheduled inflight advisory with a
maximum forecast period of 4 hours. Advises of
non-convective weather potentially hazardous to all
types of aircraft. A SIGMET is issued when the
following is expected to occur:
▷ Severe icing not associated with
thunderstorms
▷ Severe or extreme turbulence or Clear Air
Turbulence (CAT) not associated with
thunderstorms.
▷ Dust storms, sandstorms lowering surface
visibility below 3 miles.

63
Q

What are Convective SIGMETS, when are they issued and what triggers them?

A

▷ An inflight advisory of convective weather
significant to the safety of all aircraft.
▷ Issued hourly at 55 minutes past the hour for the
western (W), eastern (E) and central (C) USA.
□ Not issued for Alaska or Hawaii.
▷ Valid for 2 hours.
▷ Contains either an observation and a forecast or
only a forecast.
▷ Issued for any of the following:
□ Severe thunderstorms due to:
◦ Surface winds greater or equal to 50 knots
◦ Hail at the surface greater than 3/4 inch in
diameter
□ Tornadoes
□ Embedded thunderstorms of any intensity
level
□ A line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long
with thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of its
length
□ Thunderstorms producing heavy or greater
precipitation (VIP level 4) affecting at least 40% of
an area of at least 3000 square miles.
▷ Any Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater
turbulence, severe icing, and low level wind shear.

64
Q

What is RNAV?

A

Area Navigation is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground-based stations.

65
Q

What is GNSS?

A

Global Navigation Satellite System is a broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems.

66
Q

What is GPS?

A

GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM is a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the United States

67
Q

What is PBN?

A

Performance Based Navigation (PBN) is comprised of Area Navigation (RNAV) and Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and describes an aircraft’s capability to navigate using performance standards

68
Q

What is RNP?

A

Required Navigation Performance is a specific statement of Performance Based Navigation (PBN) for the flight segment and aircraft capability.
RNP is also defined as RNAV + navigation monitoring and alerting functionality.

▷ En route – RNP 2.0 (2 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time)
▷ Terminal & Departure – RNP 1.0 (1 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time)
▷ Final Approach – RNP 0.3 (0.3 NM accuracy 95% of flight time)
▷ Advanced RNP (A-RNP) - a higher RNP standard mandatory for RNP AR, that require capability for: (AIM 1-2-2)
□ Radius-to-Fix (RF) legs
□ Scalable RNP (meaning RNP accuracy can change value), and
□ Parallel offset flight path generation

69
Q

How many satellites are needed for what?

A

3 for 2D
4 for 3D
5 for RAIM
6 for RAIM with fault exclusion
Baro-aided can count towards one in RAIM and fault exclusion

70
Q

What is the normal range of a localizer?

A

10 nm out to 35° and 18 nm out to 10°

71
Q

What is the normal glideslope range?

A

10 nm

72
Q

What things might need to be checked if something on the airplane is broken and you do not have an MEL?

A

VFR-day type certificate requirements (Online)

Equipment list or kind of operations equipment list (POH)

91.205 or other regulations for kind of operations (Regs)

Airworthiness Directives (Online)

73
Q

What are the IFR clearance components?

A

“CRAFT” –
■ C - Clearance limit.
■ R - Route.
■ A - Altitude.
■ F - Frequency (for departure).
■ T - Transponder code.

74
Q

What is an EDCT?

A

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) – A
runway release time given under traffic management
programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to
depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the
EDCT.

75
Q

What are the two kind of departure procedures?

A

▷ Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
□ Provides only obstacle clearance.
□ Graphic ODPs will have “(OBSTACLE)”
printed in the chart title.
□ Printed either textually or graphically.
▷ Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
□ In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces
pilot and controller workload by simplifying
ATC clearances and minimizing radio
communications.
□ Some SIDs may depict special radio failure
procedures.
□ Always printed graphically.

76
Q

Departure procedures ensure obstacle clearance provided __________.

A

▷ the airplane crossed the departure end of the
runway at least 35 ft AGL,
▷ reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, and
▷ climbs at least 200 Feet per NM (FPNM), or as
published otherwise on the chart.

77
Q

How do you convert FPNM to FPM?

A

FPM = FPNM * Groundspeed / 60

78
Q

East is odd and west is even. What are the degree cut offs and what is it based off of?

A

East: 0-179
West: 180-359
Magnetic course

79
Q

What is IMSAFE?

A

■ I - Illness - Do I have any symptoms?
■ M - Medication - Have I taken prescription or over-the-counter drugs?
■ S - Stress - Am I under psychological pressure, worried about finances, health or family discord?
■ A - Alcohol - No drinking within 8 hours. (“8 hours bottle to throttle”). No more than .04% of alcohol in blood.
■ F - Fatigue - Am I tired / adequately rested?
■ E - Emotion - Am I emotionally upset?

80
Q

What is PAVE?

A

■ P - Pilot (general health, physical / mental / emotional state, proficiency, currency)
■ A - Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)
■ V - EnVironment (weather hazards, terrain, airports / runways to be used & other conditions)
■ E - External pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.)

81
Q

What is the DECIDE model?

A

■ D - Detect that a change has occurred.
■ E - Estimate the need to counter the change.
■ C - Choose a desirable outcome.
■ I - Identify solutions.
■ D - Do the necessary actions.
■ E - Evaluate the effects of the actions

82
Q

Who can log instrument time?

A

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

An authorized instructor may log instrument time
when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.

83
Q

What is involved in a BFR and who needs it?

A

To act as PIC a flight review is required since the beginning of the 24 calendar months before the month of the flight in an aircraft for which the pilot is rated. Consists of minimum 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour ground training.
Conducted by an authorized instructor.
The flight review can be substituted by:
■ A proficiency check or practical pilot test for a pilot
certificate, rating or operating privilege. (conducted by
an approved examiner, pilot check airman, or US Armed
Force).
■ A practical test, conducted by an examiner, for flight
instructor certificate, additional rating, renewal or
reinstatement.
■ Completion of one or more phases of the FAA sponsored
pilot proficiency award program (WINGS).
■ Flight instructor renewal under part 61.197 exempts the
pilot from the ground portion of the flight review.
A Flight simulator of FTD may be used to meet the flight
review requirements as long as:
■ It is used in an approved course by a training center
under part 142.
■ Represent an aircraft for which the pilot is rated.

ATP Study Topics (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions