General Immunology Flashcards

0
Q

Deficiency of this enzyme results in hereditary angioedema, in which swelling occurs because of uncontrolled activation of the classic pathway and a resulting increase in C2 kinin. In addition, absence of this enzyme leads to overproduction of bradykinin by kallikrein.

A

C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)

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1
Q

What is the protein that disrupts formation of C3 convertase, thus halting the complement cascade. In Paraxomal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria, the protein that associates ___ with the red blood cell membrane is abnormal, thus making the RBC more susceptible to complement induced lysis.

A

Decay-accelerating factor (DAF).

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2
Q

In the presence of what protease can antibodies be broken into fragments by enzymatic digestion? What two antigen-binding fragments are formed?

A

Protease- papain

Antigen-binding Fragments: Fab and Fc.

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3
Q

Binding of IgG or IgM to antigens activates what system? This system leads to phagocytosis, anaphylaxis, and cytolysis.

A

Complement activation

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4
Q

During Genetic Recombination, VJ or VDJ recombination, various DNA segments are cut out of the genome. Which enzyme adds nucleotides to the sticky ends of the DNA strands?

A

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT).

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5
Q
Immunoglobulin types:
Expressed by: Mature B cell (surface or secreted).
Structure: Monomer or pentamer
Compliment fixation: Yes
Crosses placenta: No
Function: Primary Response
A

IgM - associated with acute inflammation

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6
Q
Immunoglobulin types:
Expressed by: Mature B cell (surface)
Structure: Monomer
Compliment fixation: No
Crosses placenta: No
Function: Functions as B-Cell receptor for early immune response. Also found in serum.
A

IgD

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7
Q

Immunoglobulin types:
Expressed by: Plasma cells (secreted; high concentration in serum).
Structure: Monomer
Compliment fixation: Yes
Crosses placenta: Yes
Function: Important in secondary responses; opsonization and neutralization.

A

IgG - associated with chronic inflammation because initially its IgM, the does class switching to IgG.

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8
Q
Immunoglobulin types:
Expressed by: Plasma cells (secreted).
Structure: Monomer or dimer 
Compliment fixation: No
Crosses placenta: No
Function: Prevents pathogen attachment to mucous membranes; found in secretions.
A

IgA

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9
Q

Immunoglobulin types:
Expressed by: Plasma cells (secreted; low concentration in serum).
Structure: Monomer
Compliment fixation: No
Crosses placenta: No
Function: Type I hypersensitivity (induces mast cell degranulation); worm immunity.

A

IgE

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10
Q

CD19 and CD20 are markers for these lymphocytes. Another surface protein CD21 is involved in the complement pathway and is the receptor for EBV. It may also express CD40, which binds to CD40L, and this costimulatory signal is crucial for differentiation and isotope switching.

A

B Cells

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11
Q

Following activation of B cells, the variable regions of the immunoglobulin genes are subject to a high rate of random point mutations. What is this process known as?

A

Somatic hypermutation

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12
Q

At some point the mutations in B Cells result in antibody that is more specific to the antigen than the original antibody molecule. These B cells are selected to differentiate into plasma cells in a process known as what?

A

Affinity maturation

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13
Q

Which proteins are secreted from virus-infected cells that promote the transition of local cells to an antiviral state. They bind to specific receptors on the target cell surface, signaling the uninflected cell to degrade viral mRNA and increase antigen presentation. These proteins also activate NK cells and stimulate to kill infected cells. There are 3 types:

A

Interferons: Alpha and Beta, signal a cell to produce protein that degrades viral (but not host) mRNA.
INF-gamma: signals for increased expression of MHC I and MHC II, thus increasing antigen presentation in all cells that receive the signal. It’s also secreted by helper-T cells to stimulate phagocytosis by macrophages.

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14
Q

Protein secreted by macrophages and T cells. A key mediator of the inflammatory response during infection and autoimmune disease.

A

TNF-alpha: tumor necrosis factor alpha

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15
Q

B cells that react with self antigen can either be deleted or undergo receptor editing of the light chain during their development in the bone marrow. This receptor editing event serves as the last chance for the autoreactive B cells to escape deletion. Failing this, the cell is deleted. What is the name of this process?

A

“Negative Selection” in clonal deletion

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16
Q

What is the term that is used to describe: Self-reactive T-cells become nonreactive without costimulatory molecule. B cells also become nonreactive but tolerance is less complete than in T-cells.

A

Anergy

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17
Q

What is occurring? T cells are primed as effector cells specific to intracellular antigens or aberrant cells (foreign or mutated), causing the production of memory cells. On repeated exposure, effector cells are called to the site, where they proliferate and activate a macrophage response to clear the infection. This process takes one to two days. Response is delayed and does not produce antibodies.

A

Type IV: Cell-mediated (Delayed type) hypersensitivity RXN.

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18
Q

These mature cells express CD3 and either CD4 or CD8. CD40 ligand, is important for antibody isotope switching, and CD28, which is important for this cell type activation. What cell is this?

A

T Cells

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19
Q

Also called immediate hypersensitivity, can be anaphylactic (systemic) or atopic (local). After being sensitized to an antigen, the patient will experience an immune response to low concentrations of that same antigen. Genetic susceptibility plays a role in this reaction.

A

Hypersensitivity Reaction: Type I - IgE Mediated

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20
Q

What diseases are associated with the disorder? Multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, graft-vs-host disease, PPD skin test, contact dermatitis (for poison ivy and nickel allergy).

A

Type IV hypersensitivity RXN- delayed type

Contact dermatitis usually involves CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, and can be as widespread as the area of contact. Exposure to a large volume of antigen increases the magnitude of the immune response, which consequently can cause severe local tissue damage.

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21
Q

These diseases are associated with what disorder?SLE, polyarteritis nodosa, poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness, Arthus reaction (e.g. Swelling and inflammation following tetanus vaccine, or desensitization allergy shots).

A

Type III hypersensitivity RXN

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22
Q

What is happening? Circulating antibodies are directed to cell surface antigens. Complement is activated. Cell falls victim to: opsonization, followed by phagocytosis; antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity; cell death mediated by NK or T cells; immune response-mediated damage to healthy tissue.

A

Type II: Antibody-Mediated (Cytotoxic)

In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the Px makes IgM to his/her own RBC antigens.

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23
Q

Presentation: recurrent and/or potentially severe bacterial infections. A naturally occurring deficiency of B cell-secreted immunoglobulins occurring in infants 3-6mo. of age. At this age, maternal IgG is disappearing but the infant’s B Cells are not yet producing sufficient quantities of antibodies to suppress infection. Dx is done by measuring circulating antibody levels and confirm that the level is lower than age-matched standards.

A

Transient Hypoagammaglobulinemia (of infancy).

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24
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: defect in BTK, a tyrosine kinase gene–> no B-cell maturation. X-linked recessive (incr. in boys).
Presentation: Recurrent bacterial and enteroviral infections after 6 months (decreased maternal IgG)
Findings: Normal CD19+ B cell count, decreased pro-B, decreased Ig of all classes. Absent scanty lymph nodes and tonsils.

A

B-Cell disorders: X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia

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25
Q

Immune deficiencies
Defect: Unknown. Most common 1* immunodef.
Presentation: Majority asymptomatic. Can see airway and GI infections, autoimmune disease, atopy, anaphylaxis to IgA-containing products.
Findings: IgA<7mg/dL with normal IgG, IgM levels.

A

B-Cell disorders: Selective IgA deficiency

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26
Q

Immune deficiencies
Defect: Defect in B-cell differentiation. Many causes
Presentation: Can be acquired in 20s-30s; increased risk of autoimmune disease, bronchiectasis, lymphoma, sinopulmonary infections.
Findings: decreased plasma cells, decreased immunoglobulins.

A

B-cell disorders: Common variable immunodeficiency

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27
Q

What is this describing? Soluble antigen-antibody complexes form when antigen is abundant. Complex deposition in tissues causes vasculitis and systemic manifestations. These complexes aggregate into clusters that activate the complement system. Smaller complexes escape detection and are deposited in the walls of blood vessels. They accumulate on the endothelium and synovial of joints.

A

Type III: Immune Complex-Mediated hypersensitivity

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28
Q

These diseases fall under what category of disorders? Erythroblastosis fetalis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and incompatible blood transfusions.

A

Hypersensitivity RXN Type II

In incompatible blood transfusions, the recipient has preformed IgM antibodies to the donor’s major RBC antigens, resulting in rapid destruction of the infused RBCs.

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29
Q

What is occurring? Atopic reactions that include urticaria (or hives)- histamine release causes vasodilation and a visible wheal and flare. Allergic rhinitis, and asthma- results from inhalation of allergens. This causes inflammation of either the nasal mucosa leading to rhinitis or bronchial construction and air trapping (asthma) of the lower bronchi.

A

Type I hypersensitivity RXN.

Anaphylaxis would be the most severe where histamine and other mediators are released systemically. Widespread vasodilation and increased vessel permeability can result in hypotension and shock.

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30
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: 22q11 deletion; failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches–> absent thymus and parathyroids.
Presentation: Tetany (hypocalcemia), recurrent viral/fungal infections, conotruncal abnormalities (tetralogy of Fallot, truncus arteriosus).
Findings: Decr. T cells, decr. PTH, decr. Ca2+, absent thymic shadow on CXR. 22q11 deletion detected by FISH.

A

T-cell disorders: Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge syndrome)

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31
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: Decr. Th1 response. Autosomal recessive.
Presentation: Disseminated mycobacterial and fungal infections; may present after administration of BCG vaccine.
Findings: Decreased IFN-gamma

A

T-Cell disorders: IL-12 receptor deficiency

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32
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: Deficiency of Th17 cells due to STAT3 mutation –> impaired recruitment of neutrophils to sites of infection.
Presentation: Coarse facies, cold (noninflamed) staphylococcal abscesses, retained primary teeth, increased IgE, dermatological problems (eczema).
Findings: Increased IgE, decreased IFN-gamma.

A

T-cell disorders: Autosomal Dominant hyper-IgE syndrome (Job Syndrome)

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33
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: T-cell dysfunction
Presentation: Noninvasive Candida albicans infections of skin and mucous membranes.
Findings: Absent in vitro T-cell proliferation in response to Candida antigens. Absent cutaneous reaction to Candida antigens.

A

T-cell disorders: Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

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34
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: Several types including defective IL-2R gamma chain (most common, X-linked), adenosine denominate deficiency (autosomal recessive).
Presentation: Failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, thrush. Recurrent viral, bacterial, fungal, and protozoan infections. Tx-bone marrow transplant.
Findings: Decreased T-cell receptor excision circles, (TRECs). Absence of thymic shadow (CRX), germinal centers (lymph node biopsy), and T-cells (flow cytometry).

A

B- and T-cell disorders:
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID).

Deficiencies in ADA or purine degradation pathways cause accumulation of toxic metabolites in the purine degradation pathways of lymphocytes.

35
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: Defects in ATM gene–> DNA double strand breaks–> cell cycle arrest.
Presentation: Triad: Cerebellar defects (ataxia), spider angiomas (telangiectasia), IgA deficiency.
Findings: Increased AFP, decr. IgA, IgG, and IgE. Lymphopenia, cerebellar atrophy.

A

B- and T-cell disorders:

Ataxia-telangiectasia

36
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: most commonly due to defective CD40L on Th cells= class switching defect; X-linked recessive.
Presentation: severe pyogenic infections early in life; opportunistic infection with Pneumocystis, Cryptosporidium, CMV.
Findings: Increased IgM, really low IgG, IgA, IgE

A

B- and T-cell disorders:

Hyper-IgM syndrome

37
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: Mutation in WAS gene (X-linked recessive); T-cells unable to reorganize actin cytoskeleton.
Presentation: Thrombocytopenic purpura, eczema, recurrent infections. Increased risk of autoimmune disease and malignancy.
Findings: Decr. To normal IgG, IgM. Incr. IgE, IgA. Fewer and smaller platelets.

A

B- and T-cell disorders:

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

38
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: Defect in LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein on phagocytes; impaired migration and chemotaxis; autosomal dominant.
Presentation: Recurrent bacterial skin and mucosal infections, absent pus formation, impaired wound healing, delayed separation of umbilical cord (>30 days).
Findings: Increased neutrophils; Absence of neutrophils at infection sites.

A

Phagocyte Dysfunction:

Leukocyte Adhesion deficiency (type 1)

39
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator gene LYST). Microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion; autosomal recessive.
Presentation: Recurrent pyogenic infections by staphylococci and streptococci, partial albinism, peripheral neuropathy, progressive neurodegeneration, infiltrative lymphohistiocytosis.
Findings: Giant granules in neutrophils and platelets. Pancytopenia. Mild coagulation defects.

A

Phagocyte dysfunction:

Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome

40
Q

Immune deficiencies:
Defect: Defect of NADPH oxidase–> decreased ROS (e.g. superoxide) and absent respiratory burst in neutrophils; X-linked recessive
Presentation: Incr. susceptibility to catalase [+] organisms-Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergilosis, Candida, E.coli, S.aureus, Serratia
Findings: Abnormal dihydrorhodamine (flow cytometry) test. Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test is [-] (test out of favor).

A

Phagocyte dysfunction:

Chronic granulomatous disease

41
Q

Transplant Rejection:
Onset: Within minutes
Pathogenesis: Pre-existing recipient antibodies react to donor antigen (type II rxn), activate complement.
Features: Widespread thrombosis of graft vessels –> ischemia/necrosis. Graft must be removed.

A

Hyperacute

42
Q

Transplant Rejection:
Onset: Weeks to months
Pathogenesis: Cellular: CTLs activated against donor MHCs. Humoral: similar to hyperacute, except antibodies develop after transplant.
Features: Vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate. Prevent/revert with immunosuppressants. What is the “type” of rejection?

A

Acute rejection

43
Q

Which interleukin promotes differentiation of B cells, enhances class switching to IgA (stimulates IgA production), stimulates the growth, production and activation of eosinophils?

A

IL-5

44
Q

Indirect Coombs’ test detects what antibodies in serum? What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?

A

anti-D antibodies

Hypersensitivity RXN type II.

45
Q

Transplant Rejection:
Onset: Months to years
Pathogenesis: Recipient T cells perceive donor MHC as recipient MHC and react against donor antigens presented. Both cellular and humoral components.
Features: Irreversible. T-cell and antibody-mediated damage. Organ specific: Heart-atherosclerosis. Lungs-bronchiolitis obliterans. Liver-vanishing bile ducts. Kidney-vascular fibrosis, glomerulopathy.

A

Chronic rejection

46
Q

Transplant Rejection:
Onset: Varies
Pathogenesis: Grafted immunocompetent T cells proliferate in the immunocompromised host and reject host cells with “foreign” proteins–> severe organ dysfunction.
Features: Maculopapular rash, jaundice, diarrhea, hepatosplenomegaly. Usually in bone marrow and liver transplants (rich in lymphocytes). Potentially beneficial in bone marrow transplant for leukemia.

A

Graft-versus-host disease

47
Q

What type of graft is associated with genetically different individuals of the same species?

A

Allograft
**The fetus is an allograft that is not rejected by the mother. Trophoblastic tissue may prevent maternal T cells from entering fetus.

48
Q

This interleukin induces differentiation into Th2 cells, and promotes growth of B cells. This interleukin causes plasma cells to switch from IgM, to IgE or IgM…?

A

IL-4

49
Q

What is the most common drug associated with drug-induced lupus erythematosus?

A

Procainamide

50
Q

What disease is being described: occurs in women of child-bearing age. Pathogenesis: small-vessel endothelial cell damage produces blood vessel fibrosis and ischemic injury. T-cell release of cytokines results in excessive collagen synthesis. Reynaud’s phenomenon. Tightened facial fx. (e.g. Radial furrowing around the lips).

A

Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)

51
Q
What is CREST syndrome (found in scleroderma); clinical findings:
C-
R-
E-
S-
T-
A

C-Calcification, centromere antibody
R-Raynaud’s phenomenon
E-Esophageal dysmotility
S-Sclerodactyly (i.e. tapered, claw-like fingers)
T-Telangiectasis (i.e. multiple punctTe blood vessel dilations)

52
Q

What two main things does reverse transcriptase do?

A

1) converts viral RNA into proviral double-stranded DNA.

2) DNA is integrated into the host DNA.

53
Q

What kind of graft is associated with identical twins?

A

Syngeneic graft (isograft)

54
Q

The Direct Coombs’ test detects what immunoglobulin class attached to RBCs? What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?

A

IgG and or C3b attached to RBCs.

Hypersensitivity RXN type II.

55
Q

What is the major cell involved in chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophage/monocyte (monocyte becomes macrophage). Thus, they must have receptors for IgG and C3b.

57
Q

Name the two main opsonins, which help carry out phagocytosis:

A

IgG and C3b –> which means that neutrophils must have receptors for this.

58
Q

Lysosomal storage disease in which mannose residues cannot be phosphorylated in Golgi apparatus, therefore the enzymes are not marked with phosphorous, and the lysosomes are empty. Similar to Hurler Syndrome. What disease is this describing?

A

I-Cell disease (aka mucolipidosis II or ML II).

59
Q

What is the major cell involved in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophil

60
Q

What is occurring: child has an umbilical cord that doesn’t fall off when it should. When looked at histologically, neutrophils were lacking in both the tissue and lining blood vessels. What is the defect?

A

Adhesion molecule defect- classical example. There is an adhesion molecule defect, or a beta-2 integrin defect. If neutrophils can’t stick, they can’t get out and get rid of your umbilical cord.

61
Q

Who is the chemical mediator king?
What does it do to arterioles?
Venules?

A

Histamine
Arterioles: vasodilates
Venules: increased vessel permeability

62
Q

What AA makes serotonin?
Is serotonin a neurotransmitter?
In a deficiency, what happens?
What action does it have on blood vessels?

A

Tryptophan
Yes, it’s a NT.
Deficiency: depression and decreased NE
Vessels: vasodilator and increases vascular permeability

63
Q

These anaphilatoxins stimulate mast cells to release histamine, leading to vasodilation and increased vessel permeability. They also play a role in shock, bc inflammation is part of the complement system.

A

C3a and C5a

64
Q

How does IL-1 act as a pyrogen?

A

IL-1 stimulates the hypothalamus to make prostaglandins, which stimulate the thermoregulatory system to produce fever.

65
Q

By what mechanism do corticosteroids function?

A

Corticosteroids inhibit Phospholipase A2, therefore do not release arachidonic acid from phospholipids, therefore do not make PGs or leukotrienes.

66
Q

Besides blocking phospholipase A2, what else do corticosteroids do to hormones and adhesion molecules?

A

Decreases Epi, NE, and decr. adhesion molecule synthesis–> thus will incr. circulating WBC. Corticosteroids destroy T & B-cells because they are lymphocytotoxic- via apoptosis. Also lower eosinophils in type 1 hyps. RXN.

67
Q

What prostaglandin is being described: vasodilator in kidney, keeps patent ductus in baby heart, makes the mucous barrier in GI (stomach) thereby preventing ulcers, can cause dysmenorrhea in women and increase uterine contractility. It is an abortifactant,mot get rid of fetal material.

A

PGE2

68
Q

What prostaglandin is being described: derived from endothelial cells, aka- prostacyclin synthase; its a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation (exact opposite of TxA2).

A

PGI2

69
Q

What is being described: Enemy of PGI2, made in the platelets. It’s a vasoconstrictor, a bronchoconstrictor, and promotes platelet aggregation.

A

Thromboxane A2 (TxA2).

70
Q

What is the mechanism for killing invasive helminthes. A major basic protein is involved. Eosinophils have IgE receptors; therefore eosinophils hook to the IgE receptor and release chemicals.

A

Type II hypersensitivity RXN: the major basic protein destroys the helminth, thus making it a type II; bc it’s a cell hooking into an Ab on the target cell. The effector cell is type II hyp. RXN is the eosinophils, not mast cells (as in hypersensitivity RXN type I).

71
Q

Cluster designations: Marker for Ag recognition site for all T cells…

A

CD3

72
Q

Cluster designations: Marker for histocytes (including Langerhan’s cells)

A

CD1

73
Q

Cluster designations: Marker for MC Leukemia in children… what receptor is associated?

A

CD 10 (calla Ag); positive B-cell lymphoma.

74
Q

Cluster designations: RS (Reid Steinberg) Cell - what receptors are associated?

A

CD 15, and CD 30

75
Q

Cluster designations: Only on B cells: what receptor does EBV bind to?

A

EBV hooks on to CD21 on B cells, and actually the atypical lymphocytes are not B cells, but T cells reacting to the infected B-cells.

76
Q

Cluster designations: Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

Is a B cell lymphoma

77
Q

Cluster designations: Found on all leukocytes; is a common antigen on everything.

A

CD45

78
Q

Also called osteoclast-activating factor. Causes fever, acute inflammation. Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules. Induces chemokine secretion to recruit WBCs.

A

IL-1

79
Q

Stimulates T-cells: their growth, helper and cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells, and NK cells.

A

IL-2

80
Q

Stimulates bone marrow. This interleukin supports growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells. Functions like GM-CSF.

A

IL-3

81
Q

This interleukin causes fever and stimulates production of acute-phase proteins.

A

IL-6

82
Q

Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Neutrophils are recruited by IL-__ to clear infections.

A

IL-8

83
Q

This interleukin modulates the inflammatory response. Decreases the expression of MHC class II and Th1 cytokines. Inhibits activated macrophages and dendritic cells. Also regulated by regulatory T cells. Along with TGF-beta, they attenuate the immune response.

A

IL-10

84
Q

This interleukin induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells, and activates NK cells.

A

IL-12

85
Q

This interleukin mediates septic shock and activates endothelium. Causes WBC recruitment, and vascular leak. In addition, it causes cachexia in malignancy.

A

TNF-alpha

86
Q

This interleukin is secreted by NK cells in response to IL-12 from macrophages; stimulates macrophages to kill phagocytosed pathogens. It also activates NK cells to kill virus-infected cells. It increases MHC expression and antigen presentation by all cells.

A

Interferon-gamma