Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

eppp > General flash cards 2 > Flashcards

General flash cards 2

1
Q

Kuder-Richardson Formula 20

A

a variation of coefficient alpha; used when test items scored
dichotomously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the test length, the _______ the test’s reliability
coefficien

A

larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Spearman-Brown formula tends to _________ a test’s
true reliabilit

A

overestimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

reliability coefficient

A

the proportion of variability in a set of test scores taht is
attributable to true score variabilit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

standard error of measurement

A

s used to construct a confidence interval around a
measured score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

content validity

A

a test adequately samples the content or behavior that is it is
designed to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

construct validity

A

when the test measures the hypothetical trait (construct) it is
intended to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

convergent validity

A

high correlation with measures of the same trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

discriminent(divergent) validity:

A

low correlations with measures of unrelated characteristic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

multitrait-mulitmetnod matrix:

A

used to systematically organize the data collected when
assessing a test’s convergetn and discriminant validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

monotrait-monomethod coefficients:

A

reliability coefficients: they indicate the correlation btw/ a
measure and inself; they should be large in order for the
matrix to provide useful info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

monotrait-heteromethod coefficient:

A

indicate the correlation btw/ different measures of the same
trait;when large-provide evidence of convergent validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

heterotrait-monomethod coefficient:

A

show correlation btw/ different traits that have been
measured by the same method: when small,show
discriminant validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient

A

ndicate the correlation btw/ different traits that have been
measured by different methods; also show discriminant
validity when sma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

factor analysis

A

conducted to identify the min. number of common factors
required to account for the intercorrelations among a set of
tests,subtests, or test items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

factor loadings:

A

correlation coefficients that indicate the degree of association
btw/ each test and each facto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

communality

A

common variance-the ammount of variability in test scores
taht is due to the factors taht the test shares in common with
other tests included in the analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

orthogonal rotation

A

the resulting factors are uncorrelated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

oblique rotation

A

the resulting factors are correlated; the attributes measured
by the factors are not independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

criterion-related validity:

A

used whenever test scores are to be used to draw conclusions
about an examinee’s likely standing or performance on
another measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

concurrent validity:

A

when criterion data are collected prior to ar at the same time
as the data on the predictor/type of criterion-related validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

predictive validity:

A

when criterion is measured some time after the predictor is
administered; better for predicting future job performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

standard error of the estimate:

A

used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted
criterion score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

incremental validity

A

the increase in correct decisions that can be expected if the
predictor is used as a decision making tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

incremental validity =

A

positive hit rate-base rat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

base rate

A

he proportion of people who were seleted without the use of
the predictor and who are currently considered successful on
the criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

base rate=

A

true pos + false neg/total # of people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

positive hit rate

A

he proposrtion of people who would have been selected ont
he basis of their predictor scores and who are successful on
the criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

positive hit rate =

A

true positives/total positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient cannot
exceed:

A

the square roote of its reliability coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

correction for attentuation formula

A

o estimate what a predictor’s validity coefficient wouldbe if
the predictor and/or the criterion were perfectly reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A shortcoming of the correction for attentuation formula:

A

it tends to overestimate the actual validity coefficient that
can be achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the best way to avoid criterion contamination

A

is to make sure that the individual who is rating/scoring
people on the criterion measure is nto familiar with their
performance on the predictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Percentile ranks have a flat distribution because

A

they are evenly distributed thoughout the range of scores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Percentile ranks

A

nonlinear transformation bc/ their distribution is always flat
regardless of the shape of the raw score distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

z-score distribution properties

A

The mean of the distribution is 0; the SD is 1; all raw scores
below the mean are neg and all above the mean are pos;
unless it is normalized, the distribution has the same shape as
the raw score distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T-score distribution

A

has mean of 50 and SD of 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

genotype

A

a person’s genetic inheritence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

phenotype

A

his/her observed characteristics; attributable to a
combination of heredity and environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

3 stages of prenatal development:

A

germinal, embryonic, fetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

translocation

A

germinal, embryonic, feta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

translocation

A

the transfer of a chormosome segment to another
chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rutters indicators:

A

severe marital discord, low ses, overcrowding/large family
size, parental criminality, maternal psychopathology and
placement of a child outside of the home

44
Q

of the senses ____ is the least well developed at birth

A

vision

45
Q

infants can distinguish their mother’s face from other faces
at:

A

one month

46
Q

auditory localization

A

evident shortly after birth; disappears btw/ 2 and 4 months
and then reappears and improves during the rest of the first
year

47
Q

infants prefer the sound of their mother’s voice at:

A

3 months

48
Q

a key characteristic of the preoperational stage is____

A

symbolic (semiotic) function

49
Q

the greatest age related memory declines e found in:

A

recent long-term membory folowwed by the working
memory aspect of short term memory

50
Q

these types of memory are relatively unaffected by age:

A

remote long-term memory, memory span, and sensory
memory

51
Q

identity diffusion

A

adolescents exhibiting diffusion have not yet experienced an
identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not commited
to an identity

52
Q

identity moratorium

A

when an adolescent experiences an identity crisis and
actively explores alternative identitites;
confusion/discontent/rebelliousness

53
Q

gilligan’s relational crisis

A

girls experience around 11 or 12: they disconnect from
themselves in order to maintain a relationship with others;
therapits should help girls maintain a “healthy resistance to
disconnect”

54
Q

mothers of insecure/ambivalent children

A

moody inconisistent in their caregiving

55
Q

mothers of insecure/avoidant children

A

impatient and unresponsive or provide children with too
much stimulation

56
Q

children with a _____________ attachment pattern are at an
increase risk for aggressive behavior problems in childhood

A

disorganized

57
Q

Early institutionalization has the most negative impact when
seperation of mother and infant cocurs:

A

during the second half of the first year of life

58
Q

at about age _____ peer conformity peaks and adolescents
are most responsive to peer preessure

A

14-15

59
Q

framing

A

giving goals added meaning

60
Q

framing

A

giving goals added meaning

61
Q

A predictor is most likely to increase decision making
accuracy when:

A

there are many applicants for each job

62
Q

sensitivity

A

he probability a test will correctly identify people with the
disease from a pool of people with the disease

63
Q

communality is best described as:

A

the proportion of variance accounted for by multiple factors
in a singe variable

64
Q

time sampling

A

oberving an ind. or group of inds. during prespecified
periods of time and, at the end of each obs., recording
whether or not the target behavior occured

65
Q

exposure to environmental lead may

A

decrease overall IQ

66
Q

Group polarization

A

a person makes more extrmeme decision in a group than
alone

67
Q

underlying the stress innoculation theory is the assumption
that:

A

successful coping with stress strengthens one’s ability to
cope with stres in the future

68
Q

successful quiters of smoking:

A

male, age 33 or older, maried or living with partner, started
smoking at later age

69
Q

The greater the variability of scores:

A

he higher the reliability coef.

70
Q

3 phases of stress innoculation

A

education
rehersal/skills training
application training (systematic desensitization)

71
Q

The difference btw/ high and low reactive infants is due to:

A

in part, genetic factors

72
Q

overregularization

A

when children overextend grammatical rules (feets_

73
Q

inhibiting RNA sythesis

A

nhibits protein synthesis which is necessary for long term
memory

74
Q

Hemiplegia in right side of body is due to damage of

A

left motor cortex

75
Q

Virgina Satir’s approach to family therapy emphasizes

A

styles of communication

76
Q

False recollections due to

A

lesions in frontal lobe

77
Q

social exchange theory

A

predicts that the decision to remain or leave a relationship
depends on the relative costs/rewards of that relationship

78
Q

gain-loss theory

A

predicts that our liking for another person is greater when
that person’s initial evaluation of us is neg. but becomes pos.

79
Q

stages of gilligans model of moral development

A

care of self, care of others, care of everyone including self

80
Q

when heterotrait-monomethod coef is large,this indicates:

A

a lack of discriminant validity

81
Q

in the context of exposure to HIV, seroconversion refers to:

A

the process of converting from antibody neg to antibody pos

82
Q

employee’s mental and physical health is most dependent o

A

job security

83
Q

the emergency of the ability to create mental representation
of reality occurs:

A

btw 18 and 24 month

84
Q

damage to the postcentral gyrus impairs

A

sense of touch

85
Q

squaring the multiple correlation coefficient provides a
measure of

A

shared variability

86
Q

a stystematic family therapist uses circular questioning to:

A

help family members to recognize difs. in their perceptions

87
Q

balance theroy

A

having inconsistent attitudes produces a state of discomfort
that leads to attitude change

88
Q

Multiple discrimnat function analysis

A

multiple predictors used to classify inds into one of 3 or
more criterion groups

89
Q

when asked about abusive activities, child sex abusers are
most likely to:

A

admit to actions, but min. harmful effects of actions on child

90
Q

hydrocephalus

A

accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in ventricles in the brain

91
Q

one way anova

A

helps control experimentwise error rate (probability of
making a type 1 error)

92
Q

ADHD has been linked to

A

ADHD has been linked to

93
Q

incentive/reward theory:

A

emphasizes the features of job and work environment that
maximize worker interest and satisfaction

94
Q

what % of schoolage children meet criteria for adhd?

A

3-7%

95
Q

in object relations family therapy, the middle phase of
therapy is:

A

interpreting multiple transferences

96
Q

apraxia is most suggestive of damage t

A

pareital lobe

97
Q

hypothyroidism

A

depressive symptoms, mental slowing, memory impairment

98
Q

within the context of organizations, peer appraisals:

A

are most useful for prediction promotions and raises

99
Q

ECT

A

most cognitive/memory deficits are reversible, but do not
return to premorbid levels for 6-7 months

100
Q

localized amnesia:

A

loss of memory for personal info., limited to a cirscribed
period of time

101
Q

LISREL

A

used to analyze unidirectional and bidirectional causal
relationships btw/ measured and latent variables

102
Q

in pos. skewed distribution:

A

the mean is larger than the median which is larger than the
mode

103
Q

4 stages of neural developmen

A

proliferation, migration,differentiation, mylenation

104
Q

MSW

A

mean square within: provides estimate of variability that is
due to error only

105
Q
A

eppp (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions