General Final Review (Diebel, Christenson, Ect.) Flashcards

1
Q

Where are S1 and S2 heard loudest?

A
  • S1 loudest at apex
  • S2 loudest at base
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2
Q

Why can you hear a split S2 over the aortic and pulmonic valves?

A

with inspiration there is an increase in venous return due to decreased pressure - leads to more blood and delayed closure of pulmonic valve

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3
Q

When do you most commonly hear S3, and where is it heard best?

A
  • hear with CHF
  • heard best over mitral area
  • hear after S2
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4
Q

What heart sound do you hear with stiff wall hypertension and when is it heard?

A

Hear S4 (last little push of blood from atria against fluid)

Hear before S1

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5
Q

When do you best hear aortic regurg?

A

with expiratory breath due to increased intrathoracic pressure pushing against valve

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6
Q

Definition of SHOCK

A

hypoperfusion of vital organs

not defined as low BP

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7
Q

What is the marker of severity of oxygen supply and demand imbalance?

A

lactic acid production

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8
Q

5 typical findings seen in shock

A
  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. hyponatremia
  3. metabolic acidosis
  4. hyperglycemia
  5. lactic acidosis
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9
Q

SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) requriements

A
  • temp < 36 C or >38
  • pulse > 90
  • respirations > 20
  • PaCO2 < 32
  • WBC < 4000 or > 12,000
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10
Q

clinical findings in shock

A
  1. hypotension MAP < 65
  2. cool, clammy skin (except warm w/distributive)
  3. altered mental status
  4. urine output <20 cc/hr
  5. metabolic acidosis - lactate > 4
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11
Q

Causes of cardiogenic shock

A
  1. acute MI
  2. arrhythmia
  3. outflow obstrucation
  4. mitral regurg, VSD
  5. endocrine
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12
Q

Causes of distributive/dissociative shock

A
  1. decreased SVR
  2. septic shock
  3. spinal cord injury
  4. anaphylaxis
  5. cyanide
  6. carbon monoxide
  7. adrenal insufficiency
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13
Q

Causes of extracardiac shock

A
  1. pulmonary emboli
  2. pericardial tamponade
  3. constrictive pericarditis
  4. pulmonary hypertension

may see distended neck veins

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14
Q

Normal Pressure for Wiggers

A
  • Right atria = <5
  • Right ventricle = 25/5
  • Pulmonary artery = 25/10
  • Left atria = <12
  • Left ventricle = 130/10
  • Aorta = 130/90
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15
Q

Staph aureus

A
  • gram positive
  • catalase +, coagulase +
  • protein A
  • FnbpA binding proteins (elastin, collagen, fibronectin)
  • commonly infects surgical wounds
  • IV drug endocarditis
  • 20% of articficial vavles
  • catheter infections
  • within 2 weeks for pacemakers
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16
Q

Streptococcus virdians

A
  • gram positive
  • catalase NEGATIVE
  • dextran for glycocalyx
  • surface adehsion proteins FIMA and GspB
  • ALPHA hemolytic
  • subacute endocarditis
  • valves after 1 year
  • pacemakers after 1 year
17
Q

Steptococcus pyogenes

A
  • BETA hemoltyic
  • catalase NEGATIVE
  • M protein + STREPTOLYSIN S AND O
  • causes rheumatic heart disease
18
Q

Coxsackie B

A
  • ssRNA + class IV
  • non-envleoped
  • icosahedral
  • CAR BINDING PROTEINS for heart tissue
  • myocarditis, pericarditis
19
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis

A
  • gram positive
  • catalase POSITIVE
  • non-hemolytic
  • NO COAGULASE
  • Sd repeat contain G (SdrG)
  • biofilm formation
  • most valve infections
  • 2 week to 1 year pacemaker infections