Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Child Health > General Child Health > Flashcards

General Child Health Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a febrile convulsion?

A

A seizure associated with a fever in a child aged 6 months to 6 years in the absence of intracranial infection due to bacterial meningitis or viral encephalitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does ‘failure to thrive’ mean?

A

Sub-optimal weight gain in infants and toddlers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Apgar score?

A

Used to assess condition at birth: Appearance (colour), Pulse, Grimace, Activity (i.e. tone), Respiratory effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In necrotising enterocolitis, what are the characteristic appearances on x-ray?

A

Distended loops of bowel

Thickening of the bowel wall due to intramural gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How might a baby with necrotising enterocolitis present?

A 
Stops eating
Aspirating milk
Vomiting
Distention of abdomen
Blood in stools
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment for phenylketonuria?

A

Dietary restriction of phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two different types of presentation of Group B streptococcal infection?

A 
Early onset (within 48 hours of birth)
Late onset (at least 1 week after birth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does a late onset Group B streptococcal infection usually present?

A

Presents as a meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does an early onset Group B streptococcal infection usually present?

A

Septicaemia, respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of hearing impairment?

A

Sensorineural

Conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which type of hearing loss may be present from birth, is often more severe, and may be progressive?

A

Sensorineural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the management of a child with sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Amplification device

Cochlear implant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A

A systemic vasculitis characterised by persistent fever and muco-cutaneous involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the presentation of Kawasaki Disease?

A
  • Persistent fever for > 5 days
  • Red mucous membranes
  • Rash
  • Non-purulent conjunctivitis
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Red palms or soles of feet
  • Peeling of skin on fingers and toes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is Kawasaki disease an important disease not to miss?

A

It can cause coronary artery aneurysm which is devastating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for Kawasaki disease?

A

IV immunoglobulin

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common type of cardiac arrhythmia affecting children?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the management for supra ventricular tachycardia in children?

A
  • Vagal stimulation by using an ice pack to generate diving reflex (a way of doing vagal stimulation in children)
  • IV adenosine
  • Most resolve spontaneously within 1 year
  • Flecanide
  • RF ablation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is phenylketonuria?

A

An ‘inborn error of metabolism’ where a lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase in the liver means phenylalanine cannot be converted into tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the pattern of inheritance of phenylketonuria?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for phenylketonuria?

A

Dietary restriction of phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is medium-chain acyl-coA dehydrogenase deficiency?

A

Disorder of mitochondrial fatty acid oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the red flags in a febrile child?

A
  • Fever >38 degrees in child 39 degrees in 3-6 months
  • Pale, mottled, blue appearance
  • Signs of meningism e.g. reduced consciousness, neck stiffness, seizures, focal neurology, bulging fontanelle
  • Bilious vomiting
  • Severe dehydration
  • Shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the management of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease in infants?

A
  • Advise parents to feed child in a more upright position
  • Thickening agents to feed
  • Infant Gaviscon
  • Ranitidine
  • Domperidone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

At what age does pyloric stenosis present?

A

Infants aged 2 to 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True / False: Pyloric stenosis is more common in boys

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True / False: There is often a family history in cases of pyloric stenosis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What metabolic disturbance(s) may be present in pyloric stenosis?

A

Metabolic alkalosis (due to the loss of acid from the stomach)
Hypochloraemia
Hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed?

A

Suggestive history
Abdominal examination - palpable mass indicative of pylorus
‘Test feed’ shows visible peristalsis
Ultrasound may be used to confirm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the surgical management for pyloric stenosis?

A

Pyloromyotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the presentation of infantile colic?

A

Intermittent, inconsolable crying…often accompanied by drawing up of the legs due to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in developed countries?

A

Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What might lead you to suspect a bacterial rather than a viral cause for gastroenteritis?

A

If there is a history of blood in the stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give 3 bacterial causes for gastroenteritis in children

A

Salmonella
Shigella
Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you assess severity of dehydration?

A

Use %age body weight lost, together with clinical features, to define whether dehydration is mild, moderate or severe (shock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the maintenance fluid requirement for children?

A

100ml / kg for first 10kg
50ml / kg for second 10kg
20ml / kg for all kg after that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What triad of features are present in intussusception?

A 
Abdominal pain
Mass in RUQ
Bloody stools ('red current jelly')
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the treatment for intussusception?

A
  • Fluid resus +++
  • Rectal air insufflation
  • Surgical reduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a Meckel diverticulum and how might it present?

A

An ileal remnant present in 2% of individuals. May be asymptomatic but may cause severe rectal bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the diagnosis and management of Meckel diverticulum?

A

Technitium scan will show increased uptake by ectopic mucosa, treatment is surgical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the parameters required for diagnosing DKA in children?

A
  • Hyperglycaemia (blood glucose > 11.1)
  • Presence of ketones in blood (>3mmol/L) or urine
  • Acidosis on blood gas i.e. pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

List some organisms which commonly cause meningitis in babies and children

A 
Group B streptococcus
E. Coli
Listeria monocytogenes
Strep pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitides
Haemophilus influenzae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for suspected bacterial meningitis?

A

IV ceftriaxone 50-80mg/kg (max 2-4g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What antibiotic could you add if you suspect a meningitis which is caused by Listeria?

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which cells are affected by a neuroblastoma?

A

Neural crest cells in adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the most common presenting features of a neuroblastoma?

A 
Abdominal mass
Systemic signs e.g. weight loss, bone pain, pallor
Proptosis (unilateral)
Hepatomegaly
Lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What diagnosis might you suspect in a child with an absent red reflex on ophthalmoscopy?

A

Retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True / False: Retinoblastoma only ever affects one eye

A

False - It can be bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the most common childhood malignancy, accounting for over 80%?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What will bone marrow biopsy show in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

High levels of blast cells and high WCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How might a child with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia present?

A

Signs of bone marrow failure (pancytopenia): Anaemia, fatigue, bleeding, fever, infection
Signs of bone infiltration: Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, orchidomegaly

52
Q

True / False: Testing for congenital hypothyroidism is done as part of the newborn screening programme in the UK

A

True

53
Q

How do you treat congenital hypothyroidism?

A

Lifelong thyroid hormone replacement with levothyroxine

54
Q

What is the most common abnormality in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

55
Q

What is the classic presentation of 21-hydroxylase deficiency in males and females

A 
Males = Precocious puberty
Females = Masculinisation of genetalia
56
Q

What is the most common cause of anaemia in childhood?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

57
Q

Give 3 causes of aplastic anaemia in childhood

A

Congenital red cell aplasia (Diamond-Blackman anaemia)
Transient erythroblastopaenia of childhood
Parvovirus B19 (in children with existing inherited haemolytic anaemia)

58
Q

What might investigations reveal in aplastic anaemia?

A

Low Hb, low reticulocytes
Normal bilirubin
Negative Coombs test
Absent red cell precursors on bone marrow examination

59
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary spherocytosis

A

Autosomal dominant in about 75% of cases

60
Q

What is the treatment for hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Usually only requires folic acid supplementation as these children have increased requirement for folate due to increased RBC production. Splenectomy is indicated if faltering growth due to anaemia or if severe symptoms.

61
Q

What is the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme required for?

A

Protects RBCs against oxidative damage

62
Q

True / False: All pregnant women are screened for Hepatitis B infection

A

True

63
Q

Which type of cerebral palsy is classically caused by hyperbilirubinaemia (Kernicterus)?

A

Choreoathetoid (dyskinetic)

64
Q

List 4 organisms which commonly cause UTIs in children

A

E. coli
Proteus
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas

65
Q

What is West syndrome?

A

Infantile spasms in the first year of life, often associated with generalised organic disease e.g. tuberous sclerosis

66
Q

What is the triad of features in West syndrome?

A

Infantile (flexor) spasms
Hypsarrhythmia (chaotic pattern on EEG)
Developmental delay or even regression

67
Q

What is the treatment for West syndrome?

A

Steroids or vigabatrin

68
Q

What is the appearance of an absence seizure on EEG?

A

3Hz spike and wave pattern

69
Q

Give some suitable treatment options for a tonic-clonic seizure

A

Sodium valproate
Lamotrigine
Carbamazepine

70
Q

For which type of seizures is carbamazepine an inappropriate choice of treatment? Why?

A

Myotonic
Absence
It can make these seizures worse

71
Q

Give some suitable treatment options for management of an absence seizure

A

Ethouximide
Sodium valproate
Lamotrigine

72
Q

Give some suitable treatment options for management of myoclonic or atonic seizures

A

Sodium valproate
Levetiracetam
Topiramate

73
Q

Give some suitable treatment options for management of a partial seizure

A

Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Sodium valproate

74
Q

Give some viral causes of meningitis

A

Echovirus
Coxackie virus A and B
Poliovirus

75
Q

What is opisthotonus? When might you see it?

A

Arching of back in infant - seen in meningitis

76
Q

What is given as prophylaxis to the contacts of those with meningitis?

A

Rifampicin

77
Q

True / False: Meningitis is a notifiable disease

A

True

78
Q

Which type of meningitis is more common, Men C or Men B?

A

Meningitis B

79
Q

What are the common causative organisms of bacterial meningitis in infants under 3 months old?

A

Group B streptococcus
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

80
Q

What are the common causative organisms of bacterial meningitis in the 3 months to 6 years age group?

A

Neisseria meningitides
Strep. pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae

81
Q

What are the common causative organisms of bacterial meningitis in children over 6 years old?

A

Neisseria meningitides

Strep. pneumoniae

82
Q

What is the leading cause of death in infants over 1 week old?

A

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

83
Q

List some risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome

A 
Low socioeconomic class
Parents are smokers
Male infant
Prematurity
Co-sleeping
Co-existing minor URTI
Previous sibling affected by SIDS
Winter months
84
Q

What advice would you give to parents to prevent sudden infant death syndrome?

A
  • ‘Back to sleep’ i.e. lie baby supine when asleep
  • Prevent cigarette exposure…ideally by stopping completely!
  • Prevent overheating - don’t cover baby too much whilst asleep, avoid heaters / hats etc. whilst asleep, put feet down at the bottom of the cot to prevent blanket migrating down (the face is an important source of heat loss so should be exposed)
85
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infants, after neonatal period?

A

Intussusception

86
Q

In which paediatric condition might you see a ‘doughnut’ sign on ultrasound?

A

Intussusception

87
Q

What is the most common surgical emergency in childhood?

A

Pyloric stenosis

88
Q

What causes pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter which causes obstruction of the gastric outlet

89
Q

How does pyloric stenosis present?

A

Projectile, non-bilious vomiting after feeds
Baby appears hungry after feeds
Abdominal mass - olive shaped mass in RUQ
Weight loss
Dehydration

90
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Rare, genetic disorder where there is absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses. This results in a narrow, contracted segment of bowel. It always includes the rectum, and extends up proximally from there.

91
Q

How do you diagnose Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Demonstrating absence of ganglion cells in via suction biopsy

92
Q

What is the management of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Surgical resection of affected segment

Anastomosis of innervated bowel

93
Q

What is the presentation of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Failure to pass meconium in first 24 hours of life
Abdominal distension
Bilious vomiting

94
Q

What investigations should be carried out in suspected leukaemia?

A

FBC
Blood film
Bone marrow aspirate
Chest x-ray to look at mediastinal involvement
May have lumbar puncture to assess CNS involvement

95
Q

What is the likely result on FBC in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

Normochromic, normocytic anaemia
WCC may be low, normal or high
Low platelets

96
Q

Why is chemotherapy in ALL given to boys for longer than girls?

A

ALL can remain in the testes so boys need longer treatment course

97
Q

Give 3 important complications of ALL in children

A

Bone marrow failure
Neutropenic sepsis
Tumour lysis syndrome

98
Q

What are the stages of chemotherapy in the treatment for ALL?

A

Induction
Early CNS protection
Consolidation
Maintenance

99
Q

List some good prognostic factors in ALL

A 
Age under 10 years old
Low WCC at diagnosis
Good response to induction chemo
Minimal residual disease burden
'Non T cell, non B cell' lineage
No translocation mutation
100
Q

Which type of lymphoma is more common in young children, and which is more common in adolescents / young adults?

A

Children = Non-Hodgkin’s

Adolescents / young adults = Hodgkin’s

101
Q

What is the malignant cell type in lymphomas?

A

Malignant proliferation of lymphocytes

102
Q

Which is more aggressive / rapidly growing - Non-Hodgkin’s or Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Non-Hodgkin’s

103
Q

Which type of lymphoma is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

104
Q

True / False: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome…a mutation in the 9,22 chromosomes

A

FALSE - This is characteristic of chronic myeloid leukaemia (see in elderly) and NOT ALL.

105
Q

Describe the presenting features of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

2 peak incidences - Young adults and the elderly
Enlarged, non-tender, ‘rubbery’ superficial lymph nodes (typically cervical)
B symptoms: Night sweats, fever, weight loss, lethargy

106
Q

How is Hodgkin’s lymphoma diagnosed, and how is the disease staged?

A

Tissue diagnosis by lymph node biopsy…staging done by CT chest/abdo/pelvis

107
Q

What is the treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Chemoradiotherapy

108
Q

Why is thyroid hormone important in children?

A

Neurological development and growth

109
Q

Give some causes of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Developmental defect: Thyroid agenesis, failure of thyroid migration
Dyshormonogenesis: Failure of production of thyroid hormones
Maternal iodine deficiency (Most significant worldwide cause)
TSH deficiency due to hypopituitarism (lack of all pituitary hormones)

110
Q

Give some features of congenital hypothyroidism

A 
Prolonged neonatal jaundice
Feeding problems, including failure to thrive
Constipation
Coarse facial features
Protruding tongue
Large posterior fontanelle
Delayed development
Inactivity, sleepiness
Hypotonia
111
Q

Describe a typical insulin regime commenced in children diagnosed with TIDM

A

Dose: Pre-pubertal = 0.8-1.0units/kg/24hrs, pubertal = 1.5units/kg/24hrs
Give 2/3 before breakfast of long-acting, and 1/3 before dinner of short-acting

112
Q

What are some symptoms of DKA?

A 
Vomiting
Dehydration
Kussmaul's breathing
Confusion
Weight loss
Disturbance of consciousness
Breath smells of ketones
113
Q

What is the treatment for cerebral oedema as a consequence of fast fluid replacement in DKA?

A

Admit to PICU
Hypertonic saline or mannitol
Slow down fluid replacement

114
Q

What is the management of DKA?

A

DR ABCDE approach:

  • Administer oxygen
  • IV access: Take bloods for glucose, venous gas, U+E, ketones
  • Fluid bolus of 100mL/kg if patient is shocked
  • Calculate amount of dehydration and replace fluids accordingly: Use 0.9% saline + 200mmo/500mL K+
  • Replace fluids over 48 hours
  • Add insulin replacement when fluids have been running for 1hr: Start with 1unit/mL of Actrapid and run at 0.1units/kg/hr
115
Q

What is leukocoria?

A

White pupillary reflex (instead of red) seen in neonates with retinoblastoma

116
Q

What is immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Destruction of platelets caused by autoantibody to antigen on the platelet surface

117
Q

What is the different in presentation in immune thrombocytopenic purpura in adults and children?

A

Adults: Slow onset, no identified infective cause, requires treatment, chronic / relapsing

Children: Acute onset usually of bruising, usually follows viral infection, usually self-limiting and not requiring treatment

118
Q

What is the treatment for immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
  • Doesn’t require treatment in children unless bleeding as usually self-limiting condition
  • Oral corticosteroids e.g. prednisolone (produces response in 60-80% of patients)
  • Immunoglobulin infusion e.g. IV IgG
  • Splenectomy (because platelets are destroyed in the spleen)
  • Thrombopoeitin agonist
  • Rituximab
119
Q

Give 6 red flags for dehydration in infants and children

A 
Appears unwell
Decreased responsiveness
Sunken eyes
Decreased skin turgor
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
120
Q

What key points would you focus on in a history of a child with acute gastroenteritis

A

Eliciting level of dehydration

121
Q

What percentage of weight loss corresponds to mild dehydration in children?

A

Less than 5% weight loss

122
Q

What percentage of weight loss corresponds to moderate dehydration in children?

A

5-10% weight loss

123
Q

What percentage of weight loss corresponds to severe dehydration in children?

A

More than 10% weight loss

124
Q

What is the diagnostic blood test result in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Raised plasma 17-hydroxyprogesterone

125
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Autosomal recessive

Child Health (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions