General Bullets Flashcards

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1
Q

Signs and symptoms of Shigellosis are:

A

Fever and crampy abdominal pain. Severe cases include bloody diarrhea requiring hospitalization for fluid support and other care.

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2
Q

A child with HIV+ blood should receive which type of polio vaccine?

A

Inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) rather than oral (OPV)

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3
Q

A client with a hiatal (esophageal) hernia should remain in what position after eating?

A

Upright

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4
Q

How often should a woman between the ages of 35 and 40 have a mammogram?

A

Once. Then yearly after age 40.

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5
Q

CO poisoning manifests with symptoms including:

A

headache, dizziness, nausea, and death

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6
Q

Legitimate power is:

A

derived from a position

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7
Q

Personal power:

A

derives from self-confidence

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8
Q

Reward power:

A

derives from the ability to provide incentives

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9
Q

Referent power:

A

derives from the desires of others to associate and affiliate

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10
Q

Coercive power:

A

derives from the ability to punish

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11
Q

The process of cultivating the belief in one’s own capability is:

A

Empowerment

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12
Q

Conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, extensive burns, trauma, long-term steroidal use, excessive urination, inadequate intake of dietary potassium, and excessive alcohol intake can all cause:

A

hypokalemia

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13
Q

Renal failure and Addison’s disease cause hyperkalemia or hypokalemia?

A

hyperkalemia

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14
Q

Renal diseases, chronic alcoholism, and diuretic therapy cause hyper or hypomagnesemia?

A

Hypomagnesemia

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15
Q

End-stage renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, pheochromocytoma, and adrenal insufficiency cause hyper or hypo magnesemia?

A

Hypermagnesemia

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16
Q

Paget’s disease, cancer, excessive intake of Vitamin D, multiple fractures and hyperthyroidism cause hyper or hypocalcemia?

A

Hypercalcemia

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17
Q

Protracted bed rest and immobilization, acute pancreatitis, massive burns and infection, and hypothyroidism can hyper or hypocalcemia?

A

Hypocalcemia

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18
Q

Before undergoing the glucose-tolerance test, the client should consume a high-carbohydrate diet for how many days before the test?

A

3

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19
Q

The client should fast for how many hours before a fasting blood glucose test?

A

8

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20
Q

Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) usually indicates:

A

Renal damage

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21
Q

Urea is normally filtered out of the body through the :

A

Glomerulus

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22
Q

The normal values of CK-MB (heart enzyme) are:

A

0 - 7 U/L

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23
Q

The desirable total cholesterol level in an adult is below:

A

200 mg/dL

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24
Q

The desirable triglyceride level is below:

A

150 mg/dL

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25
Q

Acetaminophen, phenytoin, chloramphenicol, and theophylline have a normal blood range of:

A

10 to 20 mcg/mL

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26
Q

Pain that is resistant to cure is called:

A

Intractable pain

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27
Q

A type of treatment for intractable pain is a:

A

Nerve block

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28
Q

Expect the family to perform ritual cleaning and preparation of the body for a __________ client who has died.

A

Muslim

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29
Q

The family of a deceased client may remain with the body for 2 to 3 hours, or before:

A

rigor mortis

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30
Q

Recognizing the differences between one’s own culture and the culture of another is called:

A

cultural awareness

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31
Q

Renal failure, neurologic dysfunction, and death are complications associated with:

A

Systemic lupus erethematosus

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32
Q

An alkaline ash diet is prescribed to decrease pH. Foods on this diet include:

A

Fruits
vegetables
limited meats and fish
Milk

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33
Q

Components of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) are:

A
Carbohydrates (glucose)
amino acids
lipids
vitamins
minerals
electrolytes
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34
Q

To offset the high concentration of glucose, _____________ may be added to TPN.

A

insulin

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35
Q

To limit the formation of a fibrous clot at the tip of the catheter, _____________ may be added to TPN.

A

heparin

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36
Q

A weight gain greater than __________ per day for a client receiving I.V. fluids suggests excessive fluid intake.

A

1 lb (0.4 kg)/day

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37
Q

The _________ in the forearm act as a natural splint by providing support to an I.V. access site.

A

bones

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38
Q

Don’t select an _____________ on a paralyzed or traumatized arm.

A

I.V. site

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39
Q

Question any order that requires that dextrose solutions be administered to a _______________ patient.

A

diabetic

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40
Q

The basilica vein is normally used for a __________________.

A

PICC

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41
Q

Because the insertion of a PICC line is below the level of the heart, an air embolism is or is not an expected occurrence?

A

Is not

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42
Q

If a client has a high temperature, notify the physician before administering any:

A

blood product

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43
Q

No solution or product other than _______________ should be added to blood or blood product.

A

Normal saline

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44
Q

A running IV should be checked how often for children?

A

15 minutes

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45
Q

A running IV should be checked how often for adults?

A

30 minutes

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46
Q

To achieve postural drainage in an infant:

A

place a pillow on the nurse’s lap and lay the infant across it

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47
Q

Glycerin suppositories are given how many minutes before expected defecation time?

A

30

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48
Q

To limit bacterial growth, don’t provide more than _______ hours of feeding in the delivery system.

A

4

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49
Q

Don’t administer tube feedings if bowel sounds are:

A

absent

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50
Q

Ureteral and nephrostomy tubes should never be:

A

clamped

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51
Q

Notify the physician immediately when urine output from ureteral or nephrostomy tubes is less than __________ ml/hr or there is no urine output for __________ minutes.

A

30 mL/hr; 15 minutes

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52
Q

Placement of an ETT is confirmed by:

A

X-ray

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53
Q

Proper placement of an ETT is 1-2 cm above the:

A

carina

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54
Q

Drainage from a __________ tube shouldn’t exceed 200 mL/hr over 2 hours.

A

chest tube

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55
Q

Fertilization occurs in the:

A

upper section of the Fallopian tube

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56
Q

Fertilization occurs within 12 hours of ovulation and _________ hours of insemination.

A

72

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57
Q

The zygote implants about ______________ after ovulation.

A

1 week

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58
Q

The typical manifestation of an inguinal hernia is:

A

protrusion of a mass in the groin

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59
Q

Transferrin transports ___________ from the intestine into the ____________.

A

iron; blood

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60
Q

One of the most common adverse effects of antibiotic use is:

A

diarrhea

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61
Q

During a nasogastric tube feeding, the head of the bed should be elevated for ________ minutes to aid in the absorption process.

A

30

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62
Q

A child with cystic fibrosis should eat more ______, ________, ___________, and ___________ than a child without the disease.

A

calories
protein
vitamins
minerals

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63
Q

Expect bowel sounds to return with __________ hours after abdominal surgery.

A

12-24

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64
Q

The most effective method of increasing oral fluid intake is to frequently offer:

A

small amounts of favorite fluids

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65
Q

Elderly clients have a decreased need for ____________ due to a decrease in activity.

A

calories

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66
Q

The salicylate contained in aspirin and ibuprofen can irritate ___________________, especially in clients with peptic ulcer disease.

A

gastric mucosa

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67
Q

Processed fruits and vegetables have more ________________ than fresh fruits and vegetables.

A

sodium

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68
Q

Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the :

A

gallbladder

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69
Q

The liver produces ______________ mL of bile every day.

A

600-1200

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70
Q

Bile is needed to metabolize:

A

fat.

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71
Q

When bile is blocked or not produced in sufficient quantity, a typical clinical manifestation is:

A

fatty, bulky stools

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72
Q

Because of the risk of aspiration, a client receiving continuous nasogastric tube feedings should be placed in a :

A

reverse Trendelenburg (head-upward) position.

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73
Q

During the embryonic stage, the kidneys begin to form urine by the _______________ week of gestation.

A

12th

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74
Q

Infants subsisting on cow’s milk only don’t receive a sufficient amount of _____________, which will eventually lead to iron deficiency anemia.

A

iron (ferrous sulfate)

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75
Q

Painless enlargement of the testicle is the typical first sign of:

A

testicular cancer

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76
Q

Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) is __________ and can cause ________________.

A

ototoxic; hearing loss

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77
Q

To prevent exposure to rubella and other typical childhood infections, a ___________________ nurse shouldn’t work in a pediatric setting.

A

pregnant

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78
Q

In vitro exposure to ________________ can harm the fetus, resulting in deafness, heart murmurs, or cataracts.

A

rubella

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79
Q

Hepatitis A vaccine (HAV) administered ____________ exposure to the virus effectively prevents the disease.

A

before

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80
Q

The transdermal method has the _________________ absorption rate of all methods of administering medication.

A

slowest

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81
Q

The bacterium that causes acne is:

A

Propionibacterium acnes

82
Q

_______________ are common in dark-skinned clients and usually disappear with age.

A

Mongolian spots

83
Q

Erythema in a dark-skinned client appears ______________ or _____________ in color; in a light skinned client, erythema appears diffusely red.

A

dusky red or violet

84
Q

Expect substantial bleeding in the hours after _____________ surgery.

A

abdominal

85
Q

In the days after abdominal surgery, bleeding should advance from ___________ to _________________.

A

Sanguineous to serosanguineous

86
Q

Steroidal bronchodilators increase the client’s risk for _______ because of a compromised ________________.

A

infection; immune system

87
Q

Have a client rinse his mouth after use of steroidal bronchodilators to reduce the risk of acquiring an ___________________.

A

oral fungal infection

88
Q

Clients who have had cataract extraction should move their heads slowly to avoid increasing:

A

intraocular pressure

89
Q

A ___________________ should be placed in water and stored in the plastic container in which it was issued. The fluid doesn’t need to be sterile.

A

prosthetic eye

90
Q

Before abdominal paracentesis, the client should void in order to minimize the risk of __________________.

A

rupturing the bladder

91
Q

A breast-feeding mother should increase ___________ and __________ in her diet.

A

Calcium and protein

92
Q

Nursing interventions that cause ___________ should be clustered together to minimize the frequency of painful experiences.

A

pain

93
Q

Don’t obtain the client’s temperature orally when a client is receiving oxygen via a:

A

mask

94
Q

Glucocorticoids promote _______________, so a client receiving such treatment should be on a low-___________ diet.

A

sodium retention; sodium

95
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is transmitted by ___________.

A

tick bite

96
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever manifests as prolonged:

A

fever and headaches

97
Q

Haemophilus influenza type b vaccine is administered to children and infants to prevent:

A

bacterial pneumonia
bacterial meningitis
sepsis
epiglottitis

98
Q

The initial treatment for a client with hemarthrosis is:

A

immobilization with the joint slightly flexed

99
Q

Hemarthrosis is:

A

bleeding within a joint

100
Q

Before pouring a sterile solution contained within a clean container into a sterile receptacle, the nurse should pour a small amount out to:

A

clean the lip

101
Q

A child with undiagnosed infection should be placed in:

A

isolation

102
Q

A pregnant women with ______________________ needs supplemental iron to maintain iron stores and enhance the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by increasing the hemoglobin.

A

sickle cell anemia

103
Q

The initial and continuing assessment of a client who has suffered a dislocation includes assessing:

A

pulsations below the level of the dislocation

104
Q

The best method of determining the client’s customs, traditions, and religious beliefs is to:

A

ask the client

105
Q

The classic symptoms of meningitis are:

A

nuchal rigidity
severe headache
high temperature

106
Q

Only the client can rate his own:

A

pain

107
Q

If the physician writes a PRN order for pain medication, the nurse __________ _____________ the client’s request for the medication.

A

cannot refuse

108
Q

To prevent altering the electrolyte balance, the pregnant client shouldn’t use ___________________ for heartburn.

A

sodium bicarbonate

109
Q

In order to decrease the risk of bacteria ascending to the bladder via catheter tubing, a client with a urinary catheter should:

A

take a shower instead of bathe

110
Q

To prevent damage to the urethra when inserting a catheter into a male client, straighten the penis so that it’s:

A

perpendicular to the body

111
Q

Clients who have neurogenic bladder dysfunction are candidates for:

A

clean intermittent self-catheterization (CISC)

112
Q

A _____________ is used to deliver oxygen and medication.

A

nebulizer

113
Q

Alternatives to meat for a vegetarian client are:

A

soybean curds
meat analogs
textured soy protein

114
Q

A high-fat diet is associated with __________ cancer.

A

colon

115
Q

A client with lactose intolerance should avoid:

A

milk and cheese

116
Q

Alcohol consumption in absence of food intake can cause:

A

hypoglycemia

117
Q

The mucus in the large intestine protects the intestinal wall from:

A

bacteria and fecal acid

118
Q

An elderly client is predisposed to ___________ because of a loss of tonus of the smooth muscles in the colon.

A

constipation

119
Q

_____________________ is the temporary cessation of intestinal movement following surgery.

A

Paralytic ileus

120
Q

The client with paralytic ileus is maintained NPO until ______________.

A

bowel sounds return

121
Q

The appropriate diet for a client with Crohn’s disease is a :

A

low-fat, lactose free diet

122
Q

A natural intestinal deodorizer is:

A

cranberry juice

123
Q

Foods rich in magnesium sulfate are:

A

nuts
grains
green leafy vegetables

124
Q

Protein (albumin) in the urine is a sign of:

A

glomerular injury

125
Q

The proper procedure to follow when questioning an order is to contact:

A

the person who wrote or issued the order

126
Q

An infant usually triples his birth weight by the end of his:

A

first year

127
Q

_________ potentiates the effects of lithium carbonate.

A

Alcohol

128
Q

Possible signs and symptoms of a client who sustained a frontal lobe injury include:

A

dysfunction with affect
emotional lability
impaired judgment

129
Q

Clinical signs of a dehydrated infant include:

A
lethargy
irritability
dry skin
decreased tearing
decreased urinary output
increased pulse
130
Q

Appropriate care of a child with meningitis includes:

A

frequent assessment of neurologic signs

measuring the circumference of the head

131
Q

Subdural effusions and obstructive hydrocephalus can develop as manifestations of:

A

meningitis

132
Q

A client on heparin or Coumadin (warfarin sodium) should use ____________________ and report unusual bruising.

A

an electric razor

133
Q

Expected clinical findings in a newborn with cerebral palsy include:

A

reflexive hypertonicity and

criss-crossing or scissoring leg movements

134
Q

A sign of heart failure is:

A

bibasilar inspiratory crackles

135
Q

Papules, vesicles, and crust are all present at the same time in the early phase of:

A

chicken pox

136
Q

Topical ______________ shouldn’t be used on chickenpox lesions.

A

corticosteroids

137
Q

A client is revealing the most resistive behavior if he continues to _____________ while undergoing treatment for addiction.

A

use drugs

138
Q

A serving size of a food is usually ________________ for each year of age.

A

1 tablespoon

139
Q

The characteristic of fifth disease (erythema infectiosum) is __________________ on the face, primarily the ___________, giving a “slapped face” appearance.

A

erythema; cheeks

140
Q

To assess recent memory, ask the client about (known) events that occurred within the past ___________ weeks.

A

2

141
Q

______________ may brave pain, especially in front of their peers.

A

Adolescents

142
Q

During ____________________, the client may experience confusion, disorientation, hypertension, extreme agitation, tremors, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and fever.

A

delirium tremens (DTs)

143
Q

Signs that a child with cystic fibrosis is responding to pancreatic enzymes are the:

A

absence of steatorrhea
improved appetite
absence of abdominal pain

144
Q

Lidocaine shouldn’t be administered unless there’s continuous:

A

cardiographic monitoring

145
Q

Adverse effects of lidocaine are:

A

bradycardia, heart block, cardiovascular collapse, and cardiac arrest

146
Q

When teaching a client, assess his level of _____________ and learning style first.

A

knowledge

147
Q

A stage __________ pressure ulcer is red (granulation of tissue), and there’s loss of subcutaneous tissue.

A

III

148
Q

_________ appears as discrete rose-pink macules that first appear on the trunk and that fade when pressure is applied.

A

Roseola

149
Q

Xanax (alprazolam) gives short-term relief of:

A

panic attacks

150
Q

The first action to take when a loop of the umbilical cord is seen protruding from a woman in labor is to place the client in a ____________ or _____________ position.

A

Trendelenburg; knee-chest

151
Q

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is effective against:

A

Pseudomonas

152
Q

Monitor the urine for ____________ in a client receiving sulfadiazine therapy for burns.

A

sulfa crystals

153
Q

If blood-tinged fluid is leaking from the nose of a client who sustained a head injury, the appropriate dressing to apply is a :

A

bulky, loose dressing

154
Q

A ninety degree-ninety degree traction is used for fracture of a child’s:

A

femur or tibia

155
Q

Before undergoing __________________________, the client will need to sign an informed consent, have a spinal X-ray study, and have urine and blood samples drawn.

A

electroconvulsive therapy

156
Q

Undescended testis or cryptorchidism is associated with ________________ later in life.

A

testicular cancer

157
Q

Mitral insufficiency is manifested by ____________ which is caused by fluid retention and diminished heart function.

A

exertional dyspnea

158
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is aggravated by a:

A
fatty diet
smoking
alcohol
chocolate
meperidine (Demerol)
159
Q

A nurse doesn’t have to participate in:

A

euthanasia
assisted suicide
termination of life-sustaining treatment
withdrawal or withholding of food and fluids

160
Q

One sign of developmental dysplasia is:

A

limping during ambulation

161
Q

___________ wouldn’t be performed on a male child with hypospadias because the foreskin may be needed during surgical reconstruction.

A

Circumcision

162
Q

Neonatal abstinence syndrome is manifested in:

A
hyperirritability
gastrointestinal symptoms (watery stool)
163
Q

______________________ is a belief that simply thinking of an event will make it happen.

A

Magical thinking

164
Q

A panic disorder is characterized by:

A

shear terror
fear
apprehension

165
Q

Onset of a panic disorder is unpredictable, although certain events, situations, or locations may ___________

A

precipitate an attack

166
Q

A mild transient fever is expected after:

A

surgery

167
Q

A high sustained fever after surgery indicates complications:

A

atelectasis within first 48 hours
infection of the wound within 1 week
UTI in first 5 days
thrombophlebitis within first week

168
Q

Advantages to not using a _________________ on a wound include better visualization of the wound; elimination of conditions that bacteria need including moistness, warmth, and darkness; and lower cost.

A

bandage

169
Q

__________________ is obstruction of the superior vena cava by a tumor or enlarged lymph node.

A

Superior vena cava syndrome

170
Q

Signs and symptoms of superior vena cava syndrome are:

A
facial swelling
chest pain
cough
dysphagia
"tight collar" sensation
171
Q

When communicating with a client who has had a stroke:

A
speak slowly
use visual cues
face the client
use gestures
repeat information as necessary
172
Q

Any _________ can precipitate a sickle cell crisis.

A

stress

173
Q

Involve clients with ________________ in activity that uses the larger muscle groups and requires less concentration, for example, table tennis rather than checkers.

A

bipolar disorder

174
Q

Signs of relapse in a poly-drug user are:

A

visiting “old buddies”
frequenting places where drugs/alcohol sold/consumed
skipping meals

175
Q

A male client who’s quadriplegic can achieve an erection through stimulation of the ________ because it’s a reflex reaction.

A

genitalia

176
Q

Assigning a task to a lower-level-trained nurse is called

A

delegation

177
Q

Assigning a task to an equally-trained nurse is called

A

transfer of assignment

178
Q

Intellectually looking at a situation and using available knowledge to deduce a reason or a decision is called

A

critical thinking

179
Q

When the client asks questions about an upcoming surgical procedure, assume that the client isn’t informed and contact the:

A

physician

180
Q

____________________ refers to a review or study of various cultures and the care provided to clients relative to their view, values, and beliefs.

A

Transcultural nursing

181
Q

In clients with _____________, encourage intake of large amounts of fluid (2-3L) to prevent the precipitation of urate in the kidneys.

A

gouty arthritis

182
Q

Validation is the process of

A

double-checking

183
Q

Signs and symptoms of renal hemorrhage in a client with multiple bone fractures include _____________ in the flank on the affected side.

A

pain and hematoma

184
Q

Gonorrhea can cause irreparable damage to fallopian tubes, resulting in:

A

obstruction
increased risk of tubal pregnancies
sterility

185
Q

Compartment syndrome results from an accumulation of fluid within a _________________, which decreases blood flow to tissues and can lead to neuromuscular deficiency and tissue death.

A

muscle compartment

186
Q

Classic signs of shaken baby syndrome are:

A

seizures
slow apical pulse
difficulty breathing
retinal hemorrhage

187
Q

To reduce the risk of infection in a client with a vancomycin-resistant infection, contact precautions as well as ____________________ should be implemented.

A

standard precautions

188
Q

The clinical test hemoglobin A1c provides useful information on how well ______________ is being controlled.

A

diabetes

189
Q

The ____________________ test requires that a sputum sample be collected on 3 consecutive days.

A

acid fast bacillus (AFB)

190
Q

An infant born to an HIV+ mother should receive all ___________ on schedule.

A

immunizations

191
Q

Maternal glucose crosses the placental barrier, but __________ does not

A

insulin

192
Q

The most important task to complete when problem-solving is to ____________ or _____________ the problem.

A

identify; define

193
Q

Reverse delegation occurs when a subordinate assigns a task to a

A

superior

194
Q

Disciplining a subordinate shouldn’t be

A

delegated

195
Q

____________ in the arms and legs is essentially the same in infants.

A

BP

196
Q

When a painful procedure has to be performed, at least one of the team members should maintain ___________ with the client.

A

eye contact

197
Q

When washing hands before a ________ procedure, hold the hands higher than the elbows.

A

sterile

198
Q

When drying hands before a __________ procedure, dry fingers to elbows using a sterile towel, drying in a __________ motion with one hand. Then follow the same procedure for the other hand using another sterile towel.

A

sterile; circular

199
Q

Imposing one’s own cultural beliefs and values onto another is called

A

cultural imposition

200
Q

___________ can be prevented through weight-bearing activity and adequate intake of calcium and Vitamin D, or prevented from further progression, but it cannot be reversed.

A

Osteoporosis