General Bullets #3 Flashcards

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1
Q

While a client is receiving heparin, the nurse should monitor the:

A

partial thromboplastin time.

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2
Q

Urinary frequency, incontinence, or both can occur after __________________________. Incontinence may be manifested as:

A

catheter removal; dribbling

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3
Q

When teaching a client about colostomy care, the nurse should instruct the client to hang the irrigation reservoir 18”-22” above the stoma, insert the catheter ______ into the stoma, irrigate the stoma with ________ of water at room temperature of _____________ once a day, clean the area around the stoma with soap and water before applying a new bag, and use a protective skin covering such as a Stomahesive wafer, karaya paste, or karaya ring, around the stoma.

A

2-4”
17-34 oz.
105-110 degree

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4
Q

The first sign of Hodgkin’s disease is painless, superficial ______________, typically found under one arm or on one side of the neck in the cervical chain.

A

lymphadenopathy

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5
Q

Cyanotic skin ____________, but pigmented skin does not.

A

blanches

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6
Q

A client with a ________________ is most likely to report pain during or shortly after eating.

A

gastric ulcer

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7
Q

Widening pulse pressure is a sign of:

A

increasing ICP

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8
Q

In a burn victim, a primary goal of wound care is to prevent contamination by:

A

microorganisms.

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9
Q

To prevent _______________________ in a client who has had hip nailing, the nurse places trochanter rolls from the knee to the ankle of the affected leg.

A

external rotation

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10
Q

Severe hip pain following the insertion of a hip prosthesis indicates dislodgement. The nurse should assess for :

A

shortening of the leg
external rotation
absence of reflexes

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11
Q

______________ is a pathological, parrot like repetition of another person’s words or phrases.

A

Echolalia

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12
Q

According to psychoanalytic theory, the _______ is the part of the psyche that controls internal demands and interacts with the outside world at the conscious, preconscious, and unconscious levels.

A

ego

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13
Q

According to psychoanalytic theory, the __________ is the part of the psyche that’s composed morals, values, and ethics. It continually evaluates thoughts and actions, rewarding the good and punishing the bad.

A

superego (supercop of the unconscious)

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14
Q

According to psychoanalytic theory, the ________ is the part of the psyche that contains instinctual drives.

A

id (remember “I” for instinctual and “d” for drive)

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15
Q

According to Erikson, from birth to age 12 months, the child is in the _____________________ stage of psychosocial development.

A

trust-versus-mistrust

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16
Q

Pregnancy-induced hypertension (preeclampsia) is an increase in BP of __________ over baseline or BP of _________ on two occasions at least 6 hours apart accompanied by edema and albuminuria after 20 weeks’ gestation.

A

30/15

140/95

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17
Q

Positive signs of pregnancy include:

A

ultrasound evidence
fetal heart tones
fetal movement felt by examiner (after 4 mos.)

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18
Q

______________ is softening of the cervix.

A

Goodell’s sign

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19
Q

____________ is softening of the lower segment of the uterus.

A

Hegar’s sign

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20
Q

Quickening, a presumptive sign of pregnancy, occurs between _________________ weeks’ gestation.

A

16 and 19

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21
Q

__________ ceases during pregnancy.

A

ovulation

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22
Q

Any _______________ during pregnancy should be considered a complication until proven otherwise.

A

vaginal bleeding

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23
Q

At 12 weeks’ gestation, the fundus should be at the tope of the:

A

symphysis pubis

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24
Q

______________ are small, irregular, red spots with minute, bluish white centers that appear on the buccal mucosa of clients with measles (rubeola).

A

Koplik’s spots

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25
Q

As much as 75% of renal function is lost before ______ and __________ levels rise above normal.

A

BUN

serum creatinine

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26
Q

When compensatory efforts are present in acid-base balance, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide and bicarbonate always point in the :

A

same direction

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27
Q

Polyuria is urine output of ____________ with 24 hours in an adult.

A

2,500 mL or more

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28
Q

The presenting sign of ____________ is chest pain that is usually unilateral and related to respiratory movement and may be described as “stabbing” or “knifelike.”

A

pleuritis

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29
Q

If a client can’t void, the first nursing action should be _________________ to assess for bladder distention.

A

bladder palpation

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30
Q

If a client has a gastric drainage tube in place, the nurse should expect the physician to order:

A

potassium chloride.

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31
Q

___________ shouldn’t be given to infants younger than age 1 because it has low linoleic acid content and its protein is difficult for infants to digest.

A

Cow’s milk

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32
Q

An increased pulse rate is one of the first indications of _________________. It occurs because the heart attempts to compensate for a decreased oxygen supply to the tissues by pumping more blood.

A

respiratory difficulty

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33
Q

If jaundice is suspected in a neonate, the nurse should examine the infant under __________________. If that is unavailable, the nurse should examine the infant under a ___________.

A

natural window light

white light

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34
Q

Denial is a ________________ used by a client who denies the reality of an event or condition.

A

defense mechanism

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35
Q

The three phases of a uterine contraction are:

A

increment
acme
decrement

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36
Q

The client who uses a cane should carry it on the _________________ and advance it at the same time as the ________________.

A

unaffected side

affected side

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37
Q

To fit a supine client for crutches, the nurse should measure from the ____________ to the _______ and add ______ to that measurement.

A

axilla
sole
2”

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38
Q

The intensity of a labor contraction can be assessed by the _______________ of the uterine wall at the contraction’s peak.

A

indentability

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39
Q

Labor contractions are graded as _______, __________, or ____________.

A

mild (somewhat tense)
moderate (moderately tense)
strong (boardlike)

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40
Q

____________, the mask of pregnancy, is pigmentation of a circumscribed area of skin (usually over the bridge of the nose and cheeks) that occurs in some pregnant women.

A

Chloasma or melasma

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41
Q

The gynecoid pelvis is most ideal for delivery. Other types include:

A

platypelloid (flat)
anthropoid (apelike)
android (malelike)

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42
Q

Pregnant women should be advised that there is no safe level of _______________.

A

alcohol intake

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43
Q

In an adult, a hemoglobin level below ________ suggests iron deficiency anemia and the need for further evaluation.

A

11 mg/dL

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44
Q

The normal partial pressure for oxygen in arterial blood is ________ (plus or minus 5 mm Hg).

A

95 mm Hg

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45
Q

Vitamin C deficiency is characterized by:

A

brittle bones
pinpoint peripheral hemorrhages
friable gums with loosened teeth

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46
Q

Clinical manifestations of pulmonary embolism are variable, but common signs include:

A

increased RR
tachycardia
hemoptysis

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47
Q

In a psychiatric setting, ______________ is used to reduce overwhelming environmental stimulation, protect the client from self-injury or injury to others, and prevent damage to hospital property.

A

seclusion

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48
Q

Seclusion is used for clients who don’t respond to less restrictive interventions. Seclusion controls _______________ until the client can assume self-control and helps the client to regain self-control.

A

external behavior

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49
Q

__________________, such as aged cheese, chicken liver, avocados, bananas, meat tenderizer, salami, bologna, Chianti wine, and beer may cause severe hypertension in a client who takes a ______________.

A

Tyramine-rich food

monoamine oxidase inhibitor

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50
Q

A client who takes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be weighed ___________ and monitored for _____________.

A

bi-weekly

suicidal tendencies

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51
Q

If the client who takes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor has ___________, _____________, or severe _______________, the nurse should withhold the drug and notify the physician.

A

palpitations
headaches
orthostatic hypotension

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52
Q

Normally, the intraocular pressure is ___________. It can be measured with a _________________ tonometer.

A

12-20 mm Hg

Schiotz

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53
Q

The frequency of uterine contractions, which is measured in minutes, is timed from the ___________ of one contraction to the ______________ of the next.

A

beginning

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54
Q

In early _________________, blood pressure may be normal, but RR & HR are rapid. The client may report ________ and may have _________ and piloerection.

A

hemorrhagic shock
thirst
clammy skin

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55
Q

_______________ begins with the nurse’s first encounter with the client and continues throughout the client’s stay.

A

Assessment

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56
Q

The nurse obtains assessment data through the:

A

health history
physical examination
review of diagnostic studies

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57
Q

Cool, moist, pale skin, as occurs in shock, results from diversion of blood from the skin to the __________.

A

major organs

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58
Q

Capillary refill indicates ______________, which decreases in shock, thereby lengthening refill time. Normal capillary refill time is _______.

A

perfusion

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59
Q

Except for clients with renal failure, urine output of

A

dehydration

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60
Q

The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is ______ and ______ long.

A

25g

1/2”

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61
Q

Residual urine is urine that remains in the bladder after _________. The amount of residual urine is normally ________.

A

voiding

50-100 mL

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62
Q

In elderly clients, the most common fracture is:

A

hip fracture

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63
Q

_____________- weakens the bones, predisposing elderly clients to fracture, which usually results from a fall.

A

Osteoporosis

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64
Q

Molting and tenting of the skin are signs of severe ____________; intravenous fluids are required to rehydrate.

A

dehydration

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65
Q

Before _____________, the nurse should ask the client whether he’s allergic to the dye, shellfish, or iodine and advise him to take nothing by mouth __________ before the procedure.

A

angiography

8 hours

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66
Q

During myelography, ~__________ of CSF is removed for laboratory studies and an equal amount of contrast media is injected.

A

10-15 mL

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67
Q

Vitamin K is administered to neonates to prevent hemorrhagic disorders because a neonate’s ___________ can’t synthesize Vitamin K.

A

intestine

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68
Q

After ________________, the puncture site is covered with a pressure dressing and the affected part is immobilized for _____________ to decrease the risk of bleeding.

A

angiography

8 hours

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69
Q

If a water-based medium was used during myelography, the client remains on bed rest for _________, with the head of the bed elevated ______________.

A

6-8 hours

30-45 degrees

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70
Q

If an oil-based medium was used, the client remains _____ in bed for ____________.

A

flat

6-24 hours

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71
Q

The level of ____________ is determined by estimating the maximum viable tissue (tissue with adequate circulation) needed to develop a functional stump.

A

amputation

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72
Q

Before internal fetal monitoring can be performed, a pregnant client’s cervix must be dilated at least _____, the amniotic membranes must be ruptured, and the fetus’s presenting part (scalp or buttocks) must be at station ______ or lower, so that a small electrode can be attached.

A

2 cm

-1

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73
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome presents in the first 24 hours of life and produces:

A
lethargy
seizures
poor suckling reflex
abdominal distention
respiratory difficulty
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74
Q

Variability is any change in the ______ from its normal rate of _______________.

A

FHR

120-160 bpm

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75
Q

_________ is increased FHR.

A

Acceleration

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76
Q

_________ is decreased FHR.

A

Deceleration

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77
Q

Heparin sodium is included in the ________ used for renal dialysis.

A

dialysate

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78
Q

In a neonate, the symptoms of heroin withdrawal may begin ____________ to _______ after birth.

A

several hours

4 days

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79
Q

In a neonate, the cardinal signs of narcotic withdrawal include:

A
coarse flapping tremors
sleepiness
restlessness
prolonged, persistent, high-pitched cry
irritability
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80
Q

The nurse should count a neonate’s respirations for __________.

A

1 full minute

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81
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea may indicate:

A

heart failure

82
Q

A client who takes a cardiac glycoside, such as ____________, should consume a diet that includes high-potassium foods.

A

digoxin

83
Q

The nurse should limit tracheobronchial suctioning to _______ and should make only ______ passes. The client should be hyperventilated between each pass.

A

10-15 seconds

two

84
Q

Before performing tracheobronchial suctioning, the nurse should ventilate and oxygenate the client _______ with a resuscitation bag and _______ oxygen. This procedure is called __________.

A

5-6 times
100%
bagging

85
Q

Signs and symptoms of pneumothorax include:

A

tachypnea
restlessness
hypotension
tracheal deviation

86
Q

The cardinal sign of toxic shock syndrome is rapid onset of a

A

high fever.

87
Q

A key sign of peptic ulcer is ___________ hematemesis, which can be bright red or dark red, with the consistency of coffee grounds.

A

hematemesis

88
Q

Signs and symptoms of a perforated peptic ulcer include:

A

sudden, severe upper abdominal pain
vomiting
extremely tender, rigid (boardlike) abdomen

89
Q

_____________ is a common adverse reaction to aluminum hydroxide.

A

Constipation

90
Q

For the first 24 hours after a __________, the client should use a bedside commode and then progress to walking to the toilet, bathing, and taking short walks.

A

myocardial infarction

91
Q

After a myocardial infarction, the client should avoid ________ and add a new activity daily, as tolerated without dyspnea.

A

overexertion

92
Q

In a client with a recent MI, frothy, blood-tinged sputum suggests:

A

pulmonary edema

93
Q

In a client who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, the primary purpose of the drugs is to prevent

A

secondary infections

94
Q

In a client with AIDS, suppression of the immune system increases the risk of opportunistic infections, such as:

A

cytomegalovirus
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
thrush

95
Q

A client with AIDS may have rapid weight loss, a sign of

A

wasting syndrome.

96
Q

Between the ages of ___________, a child begins to show emotions, such as affection, jealousy, and anger.

A

10-12 months

97
Q

Chlorpromazine (thorazine) is used to treat neonates who are addicted to

A

opioids

98
Q

The nurse should use ____________ to protect an infant with eczema, a scalp vein infusion, or who’s recovering from cleft lip repair or eye surgery.

A

elbow restraints

99
Q

The nurse should provide a dark, quiet environment for a neonate who’s experiencing ___________.

A

opioid withdrawal

100
Q

Difficulty ___________ is a common complaint of a client who has just undergone a thyroidectomy.

A

swallowing

101
Q

If the body doesn’t use glucose for energy, it metabolizes fat and produces:

A

ketones.

102
Q

In infants ages _________ months, separation from the mother evokes a more intense response than any other stimulus.

A

6-12

103
Q

Because __________ mask symptoms of infection, they should be administered to children with extreme caution.

A

steroids

104
Q

Steroids should be administered with ________ to a child.

A

food

105
Q

Approximately 20% of clients with ______________________ have residual deficits, such as mild motor weakness or diminished lower extremity reflexes.

A

Guillan-Barre syndrome

106
Q

In children, signs and symptoms of leukemia include:

A

fatigue, anorexia, low-grade fever, and decreased WBC, RBC & platelet counts

107
Q

In children with leukemia, the most common causes of death include:

A

hemorrhage

infection

108
Q

In a child, anemia is the first sign of :

A

lead poisoning

109
Q

A ______________ frame is commonly used to immobilize a child who has a spica cast.

A

Bradford

110
Q

In a premature neonate, signs of respiratory distress include:

A

nostril flaring
substernal retractions
inspiratory grunting

111
Q

Hypertension and hypokalemia are the most significant clinical manifestations of primary:

A

hyperaldosteronism

112
Q

In a child age _____, having and frequently speaking to an imaginary friend are normal behaviors.

A

3

113
Q

By age _______, an infant with normal motor development should be able to lift and control his head.

A

3-4 months

114
Q

Head lag is common in infants younger than:

A

3 months

115
Q

________ is candidiasis (Candida albicans) of the oral mucous membranes.

A

Thrush

116
Q

Thrush is characterized by aphthae, or small _______, in the mouth.

A

ulcers

117
Q

Common causes of child abuse are:

A

poor impulse control by the parents

lack of knowledge of growth and development

118
Q

Allopurinal (Zyloprim) is used in children with leukemia to prevent accumulation of:

A

uric acid

119
Q

Allopurinal =

A

Zyloprim

120
Q

Before administering any “as needed” pain medication, the nurse should ask the client to indicate:

A

the location of the pain

121
Q

At age ___ months, an infant should begin to receive solid foods one at a time and ____ week apart.

A

6

1

122
Q

After percutaneous aspiration of the bladder, the client’s first void is usually ________; urine containing ___________ should be reported to the physician.

A

pink

frank blood

123
Q

A urine culture that grows more than ____________ colonies of bacteria per milliliter of urine indicates infection.

A

100,000

124
Q

The most appropriate toy for a toddler age 18 months is one that helps to develop

A

motor coordination

125
Q

When administering an _____________ to an infant, the nurse should ask another nurse (not the parent) to divert the child’s attention and assist as needed.

A

injection

126
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome (hyaline membrane disease) develops in premature infants because their pulmonary alveoli lack:

A

surfactant

127
Q

A client who’s undergoing dialysis should take a vitamin supplement and eat food that are:

A

high in calories

but low in protein, sodium and potassium

128
Q

The nurse should lower her profile to communicate at eye level with a

A

child.

129
Q

An infant who has phenylketonuria should be fed a ________________ formula and should have plasma phenylalanine levels monitored frequently.

A

low-pheylalanine

130
Q

When caring for an infant who has had six to eight episodes of diarrhea a day for 4 days, the nurse should assess for

A

electrolyte imbalance

131
Q

The nurse may offer finger foods to a child age ____ who has a poor appetite.

A

3

132
Q

When in a mist tent (Croupette), a child may require

A

soft restraints

133
Q

In a client who has COPD, the most effective ways to reduce thick secretions are to

A

increase fluid intake to 2,500 mL/day

encourage ambulation

134
Q

The nurse shouldn’t administer a drug to a child at ____________ unless it’s specifically prescribed because it may stimulate the child.

A

bedtime

135
Q

Medulloblastoma, the most common brain tumor in children, is characteristically found in the

A

cerebellum

136
Q

Clubbing of the digits and a barrel chest may develop in a client who has

A

COPD

137
Q

In a client who’s undergoing dialysis, desired outcomes are :

A

normal weight
normal serum albumin level (3.5-5.5 mg/dL)
adequate protein intake (1.2-1.5g/kg of body wt daily)

138
Q

Intermittent peritoneal dialysis consists of ____ cycles per night.

A

6

139
Q

Isoetharine (Bronkosol) can be administered with a handheld nebulizer or by

A

intermittent positive-pressure breathing

140
Q

Isoetharine =

A

Bronkosol

141
Q

_______________ decreases body secretions and is used before surgery such as tonsillectomy.

A

Atropine sulfate

142
Q

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis requires ____ exchanges per day, 7 days a week, for a total of 168 hours per week.

A

4

143
Q

The classic adverse reactions to antihistamines are

A

dry mouth
drowsiness
blurred vision

144
Q

Because of the risk of ______________, a client who has received a general anesthetic can’t take anything by mouth until active bowel sounds are heard in all abdominal quadrants.

A

paralytic ileus

145
Q

_______________ believe that they shouldn’t receive blood components donated by other people but can receive an organ transplant if the donor organ has had the blood removed.

A

Jehovah’s Witnesses

146
Q

The level of alpha-fetoprotein, a tumor marker, is elevated in clients who have

A

testicular germ cell cancer

147
Q

Clinical manifestations of orchitis caused by bacteria or mumps include

A

high temp
chills
sudden pain in involved testis

148
Q

The level of prostate-specific antigen is elevated in clients with

A

BPH

or prostate CA

149
Q

The level of prostatic acid phosphatase is elevated in clients with advanced

A

stages of prostate CA

150
Q

Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) a mydriatic, is instilled in a client’s eye to __________ the eye.

A

dilate

151
Q

Phenylephrine =

A

Neo-synephrine

152
Q

To test ___________, the nurse should ask the client to cover each eye separately and to read the eye chart with glasses and without, as appropriate.

A

visual acuity

153
Q

To promote fluid drainage and relieve edema in a client with epididymitis, the nurse should elevate the scrotum on a

A

scrotal bridge

154
Q

Fluorescein staining is commonly used to asses ________________ because it outlines superficial epithelial defects

A

corneal abrasions

155
Q

____________ is loss of near vision as a result of the loss of elasticity of the crystalline lens.

A

Presbyopia

156
Q

When providing _____________ for an unconscious client, to minimize the risk of aspiration, the nurse should position the client on his side.

A

oral care

157
Q

During assessment of distance vision, the client should stand ______ from the chart.

A

20’

158
Q

A sign of acute appendicitis, __________________ is tenderness at ___________ (about 2” from the right anterior superior iliac spine on a line between the spine and the umbilicus)

A

McBurney’s sign

McBurney’s point

159
Q

The diagnosis of _____________ is based on clinical findings of two or more cognitive deficits, progressive worsening of memory, and the results of a neuropsychological test.

A

Alzheimer’s disease

160
Q

Signs and symptoms of ____________ include rectal bleeding, change in bowel habits, intestinal obstruction, abdominal pain, weight loss, anorexia, nausea & vomiting.

A

colon cancer

161
Q

To help calm a child who’s frightened of a mist tent, the nurse may suggest that a parent

A

lie with the child in the tent

162
Q

Symptoms of prostatitis include

A

frequent urination

dysuria

163
Q

The male sperm contributes an __________ chromosome, the female ovum contributes an ____.

A

X or Y

X

164
Q

Fertilization produces a total of ___ chromosomes, including an XY combination (male) or an XX combination (female).

A

46

165
Q

A _________ is a painless, ulcerative lesion that develops during the primary stage of syphilis.

A

chancre

166
Q

During the __________ stage of syphilis, spirochetes invade the internal organs and cause permanent damage.

A

tertiary

167
Q

Normal room humidity is _____.

A

30-60%

168
Q

In TPN, ____________ is the most reliable indicator of a positive response to therapy.

A

weight gain

169
Q

The nurse may administer an IV fat emulsion through a central or peripheral catheter, but shouldn’t use an ___________ because the fat particles are too large to pass through the pores.

A

in-line filter

170
Q

A positive Homan’s sign may indicate

A

thrombophlebitis

171
Q

If a client who has a prostatectomy is using a ________________, instruct him to wash and dry his penis before applying the clamp.

A

Cunningham clamp

172
Q

A Cunningham clamp should be applied ______________ and removed every 4 hours to empty bladder to prevent infection.

A

horizontally

173
Q

______________ is the loss of train of thought because of a defect in mental processing.

A

Thought blocking

174
Q

A Bradford frame is used for ___________ of a child, such as a client with extensive burns or meningocele.

A

long-term immobilization

175
Q

During delivery, ________________ is safest for the mother and baby. This includes a pudendal block of the perineal tissue.

A

local anesthesia

176
Q

If a woman has signs of UTI during menopause, she should be instructed to

A

drink 6-8 glasses of water per day
urinate before and after intercourse
perform Kegel exercises

177
Q

_____________ causes fissures at the angles of the mouth and may indicate a Vitamin B12, riboflavin, or iron deficiency.

A

Cheilosis

178
Q

Tetany may result from ______________ caused by hypoparathyroidism.

A

Hypocalcemia

179
Q

Dietary fiber (roughage), which is derived from ____________, supplies bulk, maintains intestinal motility, and helps to establish regular bowel movements.

A

cellulose

180
Q

Alcohol is metabolized primarily in the _______. Smaller amounts are metabolized in the kidneys and lungs.

A

liver

181
Q

A client who has cervical cancer may experience vaginal bleeding for 1-3 months after

A

intracavitary radiation

182
Q

___________ is the accumulation of fluid, containing large amounts of protein and electrolytes, in the abdominal cavity.

A

Ascites

183
Q

Ascites is commonly caused by

A

cirrhosis

184
Q

To measure ascites, use a centimeter tape and measure at the _________________ or the ___________.

A

superior iliac crest

umbilicus

185
Q

Normal pulmonary artery pressure is

A

10-25 mmHg

186
Q

Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure is

A

5-12 mmHg

187
Q

After cardiac catheterization, the site is monitored for bleeding and hematoma formation, pulses distal to the site are palpated every _______ minutes for an hour, and the client is maintained on bed rest with the extremity extended for ____ hours.

A

15

8

188
Q

The third stage of labor begins after the neonate’s birth and ends with

A

expulsion of the placenta

189
Q

In full-term neonates, skin creases appear over two-thirds of the neonate’s feet. Preterm neonates have heel creases that cover less than ____________ of the feet.

A

two-thirds

190
Q

The _____________ stage of labor (postpartum stabilization) lasts up to 4 hours after the placenta is delivered. This time is needed to stabilize the mother’s physical and emotional state after the stress of childbirth.

A

fourth

191
Q

At 20 weeks’ gestation, the fundus is at the level of the

A

umbilicus

192
Q

At 36 week’s gestation, the fundus is at the lower border of the

A

rib cage

193
Q

A premature neonate is one born before the end of the

A

37th week of gestation

194
Q

The ___________ isoenzyme level increases 4-8 hours after a MI, peaks at 12-24 hours and returns to normal in 3 days.

A

CK-MB

195
Q

Phase I (orientation phase) of nurse-client relationship:

A

nurse obtains initial history

nurse & client agree to a contract

196
Q

Phase II (working phase) of nurse-client relationship:

A

client discusses his problems
behavioral changes occur
self-defeating behavior is resolved/reduced

197
Q

Phase III (termination or resolution phase) of nurse-client relationship

A

nurse terminates therapeutic relationship

and gives client positive feedback

198
Q

___________________ is a leading cause of maternal death in the U.S.

A

Gestational hypertension

199
Q

A _________________ is a woman who has had three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions.

A

habitual aborter

200
Q

____________________ occurs when bleeding is present without cervical dilation.

A

Threatened abortion

201
Q

A ________________ occurs when all products of conception are expelled.

A

complete abortion