General Bullets #2 Flashcards
1
Q
An _______________ is a group of people who share one or more common characteristics.
A
aggregate
2
Q
______________ is a technique used to desensitize a client with a phobia.
A
Flooding
3
Q
Fluvoxamine (Luvox) is used to treat
A
OCD
4
Q
One characteristic of Native Americans is that they’re
A
future oriented.
5
Q
A Latin-American client may seek assistance and guidance of a ___________________, a folk or faith healer.
A
curandero
6
Q
During the postoperative phase, a pink-red stoma is __________; a stoma with a dark red or purplish hue indicates ________________; and a brown or black stoma indicates _______________.
A
normal; ischemia; necrosis
7
Q
Unless contraindicated, place a client on his left side with the right knee flexed when inserting a
A
suppository
8
Q
When bottle-feeding a newborn with a cleft palate, hold the infant’s head in an _______________ position.
A
upright
9
Q
Because of circulating maternal antibodies that will decrease the immune response, the MMR vaccine shouldn’t be given until the infant has reached:
A
1 year of age
10
Q
If a client complains of increased pain when palpating the testicle, suspect:
A
testicular torsion
11
Q
If a client is relieved when the scrotum is lifted, suspect:
A
epididymitis
12
Q
A __________________ is a written policy, regulation, order, or rule that provides specific guidance on how to handle a particular treatment issue, problem, or concern.
A
standing order
13
Q
Boneless, skinless baked chicken is low in:
A
fat and triglycerides
14
Q
If a client is _______________, call the physician and report this information before applying a transdermal patch.
A
febrile
15
Q
______________ is a practice of Asian cultures wherein the edge of a coin is rubbed back and forth across a person’s oiled skin to rid the body of disease.
A
Coining
16
Q
Coining causes:
A
welt-like lesions
17
Q
In _______________, a bottle or other container is filled with steam and placed against the skin to draw out poison. In the process, the skin is burned.
A
cupping
18
Q
Muslims will accept an _______________ if it will prolong life.
A
organ transplant
19
Q
Last-rite chanting often follows the death of a:
A
Buddhist
20
Q
In the _______________________, burial is believed to reflect proper care of the remains; cremation is discouraged.
A
Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (Mormons)
21
Q
Friends (Quakers) don’t believe in life after death, and they believe God is ______________.
A
in everyone
22
Q
Baptism is mandatory in the ________________ religion. Organ transplant is acceptable.
A
Roman Catholic
23
Q
The ______________ believe that a healthy boy is a gift from parents and ancestors.
A
Chinese
24
Q
_____________ believe that the universe is controlled by God’s will and there are supernatural forces in existence.
A
Filipinos
25
___________ people believe that good health is the balance between yin and yang, which are the opposing yet complementary aspects of all creation.
Vietnamese
26
In _______________ culture, illness is thought to be caused by an imbalance between hot and cold. Illness is seen as a punishment from ____________.
Hispanic; God
27
____________________ believe that health is derived from being in harmony with nature and the universe.
Native Americans
28
Frozen human milk shouldn't be microwaved because it decreases the milk's:
anti-infective factors.
29
A newborn typically wets:
6-10 diapers per day
30
Normal v/s of a neonate include:
HR 120-140, RR 30-50, axillary temp 97.3-98.6 F
31
Gavage feeding is the preferred method of ensuring adequate nutrition of neonates who are unable to:
suck effectively
32
When blood is drawn from an infant under a phototherapy lamp, the light is turned off to prevent:
destruction of bilirubin.
33
Signs and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease are:
Severe cramping
Malodorous vaginal discharge
dyspareunia
dysmenorrhea
34
The most adequate diet for an infant in the first 6 months of life is:
breast milk.
35
An infant can usually chew food by:
7 months.
36
An infant can usually hold a spoon by:
9 months
37
An infant can usually drink fluid from a cup by:
1 year of age
38
Choking from __________________ is the leading cause of death (by suffocation) for infants younger than 1 year of age.
mechanical obstruction
39
The _____________ is used to determine the patency of the fallopian tubes.
Rubin test
40
Sickling, as seen in sickle cell anemia, is caused by:
hypoxemia
41
One of the easiest methods used to prevent sickling of RBC's is:
hemodilution (increasing fluid intake).
42
Folic acid is needed by the body to form _____, the iron-containing protein in hemoglobin.
heme
43
To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left sacrum anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:
left side of the maternal abdomen just above the umbilicus.
44
To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left occiput posterior lie, place the stethoscope:
just below the umbilicus on the left side.
45
To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left occiput anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:
lower aspect of the abdomen on the mother's left side.
46
To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right sacrum anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:
right side of the maternal abdomen just above the umbilicus.
47
To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right occiput posterior lie, place the stethoscope:
just below the umbilicus on the right side.
48
To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right occiput anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:
lower aspect of the abdomen on the mother's right side.
49
Typical non-life-threatening adverse effects of chemotherapy include:
Nausea & vomiting
Alopecia
Changes in taste perception
50
Toxic effects of chemotherapy that may be life-threatening include:
hematologic toxicity (bone marrow depression)
hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity
51
A nurse should wear gloves at all times when working with a:
chemotherapeutic agent
52
___________ is for IV use only and can be fatal if given intrathecally.
Oncovin (vincristine)
53
Monitor a client receiving vincristine for life-threatening:
bronchospasms.
54
An early sign of mitral valve prolapse is:
systolic click
55
Signs and symptoms of esophageal cancer are:
dysphagia
a sensation of something in the throat
pain during swallowing
substernal pain
56
The primary symptom of _____________ is dyspnea on exertion initially and then dyspnea at rest.
pulmonary hypertension
57
Early complications of tracheostomy are:
bleeding
air embolism
pneumothorax
laryngeal nerve damage
58
The most common complication of a teen pregnancy is:
preeclampsia
59
______________ is a term used to describe an infant who falls below the 5th percentile for weight and height on a standard measurement chart.
Failure to thrive
60
A _________ medication shouldn't be swallowed.
sublingual
61
Problem solving approaches include:
intuition
research
trial and error
the scientific method
62
Developmental theories include:
```
Havighurst's age periods and developmental tasks
Freud's five stages of development
Kohlberg's stages of moral development
Erikson's eight stages of development
Piaget's phases of cognitive development
```
63
Macrosomia occurs in an infant with a birth weight greater than:
4,000 grams (8 pound, 13 ounces)
64
The primary concern with infusing large volumes of fluid is:
circulatory overload.
65
Infant hazards:
falls
burns
suffocation
66
Toddler hazards
burns
poisoning
drowning
67
Preschooler hazards:
playground equipment accidents
choking
poisoning
drowning
68
Adolescent hazards:
automobile accidents
drowning
fires
firearm accidents
69
Factors that contribute to suicide include:
```
prolonged medical illness
loss of a lifelong mate
uncontrolled pain
major depression
social isolation
```
70
__________ are more likely to commit suicide.
White adult males
71
In Islam, __________ is prohibited; meat products must be slaughtered in accordance with religious guidelines; and daytime fasting occurs during:
pork; Ramadan
72
In Judaism, food must be prepared in accordance with ____________; only meat from animals that are vegetable eaters, cloven-hoofed animals, and animals slaughtered in accordance with religious guidelines are permitted.
kosher law
73
In Judaism, fish with ____________ are allowed under religious law (shellfish wouldn't be).
scales and fins
74
Jews fast for 24 hours during _______________ (the very ill and pregnant women are exempted from complying).
Yom Kippur
75
In Judaism, combinations of ________________ are prohibited.
meat and milk
76
During Passover, only _______________ bread can be consumed in the Jewish faith.
unleavened
77
For Jehovah's Witnesses, any food or food product that has ________ added to it is prohibited.
blood
78
For Buddhists, Seventh Day Adventists (Church of God), and Baptists, _____________ is prohibited.
alcohol
79
Roman Catholics fast on ___________ and ____________. During Lent, meat is discouraged on _______.
Ash Wednesday; Good Friday
| Friday
80
In the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints (Mormons), ____________, ______, and ________ are prohibited; fasting occurs on the first _____________ of the month.
alcohol
coffee
tea
81
In Hinduism, ______ and ______ are prohibited; various sects fast at different times of the week; __________ are prohibited from fasting; and members of this faith are vegetarians.
veal; beef
| children
82
Food preferences of Hispanic Americans generally include:
beans
fried foods
spicy foods
corn products
83
Food preferences of African Americans generally include:
greens
fried foods
pork
84
Food preferences of Native Americans generally include:
fruits and berries
blue cornmeal
fish and game
85
An ________________ occurs when there's a conflict between two seemingly equal ethical principles.
ethical dilemma
86
A child in Bryant's traction who's younger than 3 or weighs less than 30 lb should have the:
buttocks slightly elevated and clear of bed
knees should be slightly flexed
legs should be extended at a right angle to body
87
Unlike false labor, true labor produces:
```
regular rhythmic contractions
abdominal discomfort
progressive descent of the fetus
show
progressive effacement & dilation of cervix
```
88
Pernicious anemia results from the failure to absorb ___________ in the GI tract and causes primarily GI and neurologic signs and symptoms.
Vitamin B12
89
In a client with hypokalemia, presenting S/S include:
muscle weakness
| cardiac arrhythmias
90
A client who has a pressure ulcer should consume a diet high in __________________ and ____________ unless contraindicated.
protein
| calories
91
The CK-MB isoenzyme level is used to assess tissue damage in:
MI
92
After a 12-hour fast, the normal fasting blood glucose level is:
80-120 mg/dL
93
A blood pressure cuff that's too narrow can cause a falsely:
elevated blood pressure
94
A blood pressure cuff that's too wide can cause a falsely:
decreased blood pressure
95
A client who's experiencing digoxin toxicity may report:
```
nausea/vomiting
diplopia
blurred vision
light flashes
yellow-green halos around images
```
96
Administering high levels of oxygen to a premature neonate can cause blindness secondary to:
retrolental fibroplasia
97
Anuria is daily urine output of:
98
A woman or girl taking a _____________ is at risk of candidiasis because of an overgrowth of Candida albicans.
corticosteroid
99
_____________ are the rumbling sounds heard on lung auscultation. They're more pronounced on________________.
Rhonchi; expiration
100
___________ is forced feeding, usually through a gastric tube.
Gavage
101
Risk of a fat embolism is greatest in the first _____ hours after the fracture of a long bone and is manifested as respiratory distress.
48
102
To help venous blood return in a client who's in shock, the nurse should elevate the client's legs no more than ________. This procedure is contraindicated in a client with a head injury, however.
45 degrees
103
The _______________ is the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates when taken simultaneously by two nurses using the same watch.
pulse deficit
104
To reduce the client's risk of vomiting and aspiration, the nurse should schedule postural drainage before _____ or _____________ hours after meals.
before; 2-4 hours
105
A positive _____________, seen in meningitis, occurs when an attempt to flex the hip of a recumbent patient causes painful spasms of the hamstring muscle and resistance to further extension of the leg at the knee.
Kernig's sign
106
After an orchiectomy, the ____________________ level is monitored for elevation. A rising level of this tumor marker is consistent with nonseminomatous malignancy of the testicle that has spread to other parts of the body.
alpha feto protein
107
Herniated nucleus pulposus (intervertebral disk) most commonly occurs in the:
lumbar and lumbosacral regions
108
_____________ is surgical removal of the herniated portion of an intervertebral disc.
Laminectomy
109
Surgical treatment of a gastric ulcer includes severing the vagus nerve (vagotomy) to reduce the amount of ____________ secreted by the gastric cells.
gastric acid
110
_______________ is an alteration in thought processes that's characterized by skipping from one topic to another, unrelated topic.
Flight of ideas
111
__________________ is the lack of concern for a profound disability, such as blindness, deafness, or paralysis that may occur in a client who has a conversion disorder.
La bell indifference
112
In an infant, a bulging fontanel is the most significant sign of increasing _____.
ICP
113
Moderate anxiety decreases a person's ability to perceive and concentrate. The person is selectively inattentive (focuses on immediate concerns), and the perceptual field narrows (______________).
tunnelvision
114
A client who has a phobic disorder uses self-protective ______________ as an ego defense mechanism.
avoidance
115
In a client with anorexia nervosa, the highest treatment priority is correction of ___________ and __________ imbalances.
nutritional and electrolyte
116
A normal lithium therapeutic level is:
0.5 to 1.2 mEq/L
117
The ______________ forces exhalation against a closed glottis, such as when taking a deep breath to blow up a balloon or bearing down, as with a bowel movement. it increases _______________ and often slows tachycardia.
Valsalva maneuver
| intrathoracic
118
Early s/s of alcohol withdrawal include:
anxiety
anorexia
tremors
insomnia
119
S/s of alcohol withdrawal may begin as early as _____ after the last alcohol intake or be delayed as long as _______ days.
8 hours
| 7-10
120
Thorazine =
chlorpromazine
121
The nurse shouldn't administer chlorpromazine (Thorazine) to a client who has ingested _________ because it may cause oversedation and _____________.
alcohol
| respiratory distress
122
When mean arterial pressure falls below ______ and systolic blood pressure drops below ________, vital organ perfusion is seriously compromised.
60 mmHg
| 80 mmHg
123
Lidocaine =
Xylocaine
124
Lidocaine is the drug of choice for reducing ____________________.
premature ventricular contractions
125
Lithium toxicity can occur when sodium and fluid intake are insufficient, causing:
lithium retention
126
_______________ is artificial rupture of the amniotic membranes.
Amniotomy
127
An alcoholic who achieves sobriety is called a _________________ because there's no cure for alcoholism.
recovering alcoholic
128
A client is at greatest risk of dying during the first _________ after a myocardial infarction.
24-48
129
During a myocardial infarction, the _____ ventricle usually sustains the greatest damage.
left
130
The pain of a myocardial infarction results from myocardial ischemia cause by:
anoxia.
131
An oral ________________ solution should be given after meals and client should swish the drug in his mouth.
nystatin (Mycostatin)
132
_____________ is more likely to affect a full-term infant than a premature infant because of the slow growth of the full-term infant and the initial decreased amount of nutritional intake.
Pyloric stenosis
133
For a client who has heart failure or cardiogenic pulmonary edema, nursing interventions focus on:
decreasing venous return to the heart and increasing left ventricular output.
134
The interventions to decrease venous return and increase left ventricular output included:
placing client in high Fowler's
administering oxygen
diuretics
positive inotropic drugs
135
A positive tuberculin skin test is an induration of _______ or greater at the injection site.
10mm
136
The s/s of ________________, a chronic systemic fungal infection, resemble those of tuberculosis.
histoplasmosis
137
Fluid oscillation in the tubing of a chest drainage system indicates that the system is
working properly
138
In burn victims, the leading cause of death is _______________. The second leading cause is __________.
respiratory compromise
| infection
139
The exocrine function of the pancreas is the secretion of enzymes used to digest:
carbohydrates, fats and proteins
140
A client with hepatitis A (infectious hepatitis) should consume a diet that's moderately high in fat and high in _____________ and __________, and should eat the largest meal in the ____________.
carbohydrates and protein
| morning
141
The nurse should place a client who has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in
semi-Fowler's position
142
Esophageal balloon tamponade shouldn't be inflated
> 20 mm Hg
143
Overproduction of ____________ by the pituitary gland can cause galactorrhea and amenorrhea.
prolactin
144
Intermittent claudication is a classic symptom of _________________ in the leg.
Arterial insufficiency
145
During pregnancy, weight gain averages
25-30 lbs (11 - 13.5 kg)
146
In ________________, the most common finding is gross, painless, hematuria.
bladder carcinoma
147
The nurse can elicit _______________ by occluding the brachial or radial artery.
Trousseau's sign
148
Hand and finger spasms that occur during occlusion of the brachial or radial artery indicate Trousseau's sign and suggest:
hypocalcemia
149
Trousseau's sign can also be elicited by inflating a BP cuff 20 mmHg above the client's systolic pressure for:
2 minutes
150
Parenteral administration of heparin sodium is contraindicated in clients with:
```
renal or liver disease
GI bleeding
recent surgery or trauma
pregnant clients
women >60
```
151
Drugs that potentiate the effects of anticoagulants include:
```
aspirin
chloral hydrate
glucagon
anabolic steroids
chloramphenicol
```
152
According to Erikson, the school-age child (ages 6-12) is in the _____________________ stage of psychosocial development.
industry-versus-inferiority
153
For a burn patient, care priorities include:
maintaining a patent airway
preventing or correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalance
controlling pain
preventing infection
154
Elastic stockings should be worn on both legs and should only be removed for:
skin care
155
________________ is the formation of antibodies within the body in response to vaccination or exposure to disease. The length of immunity is longer than that of passive immunity.
Active immunity
156
_________________ is administration of antibodies that were preformed outside the body.
Passive immunization
157
Chickenpox causes a rash that has four stages:
macules
papules
vesicles
crusts
158
Chickenpox lesions of various stages occur ______________ during the illness.
simultaneously
159
A child with chickenpox can return to school after all the lesions have:
crusted
160
______________ has a teratogenic effect on the fetus during the first trimester. It produces abnormalities in up to 40% of cases without interrupting the pregnancy.
Rubella
161
To calculate a pediatric dose using ______________, the nurse should multiply the adult dose by the child's weight in pounds and divide the result by 150.
Clark's rule
162
To calculate a pediatric dose using _______________, the nurse should multiply the adult dose by the child's age in years and divide the result by the sum of the child's age plus 12.
Young's rule
163
A client who's receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) shouldn't receive a ___________ preparation because of the increased risk of ________________. Concomitant use may affect cardiac contractility and lead to arrhythmias.
calcium
| digoxin toxicity
164
For blood transfusion in an adult, the appropriate needle size is
16 to 20 gauge
165
_____________________ is inflation of the lung during inspiration with compressed air or oxygen. The goal of this therapy is to keep the lung open.
Intermittent positive-pressure breathing
166
To prevent infection in clients with sickle cell anemia, penicillin prophylaxis is started at age
2 months
167
___________ is caused by paralysis of the extensor muscles in the forearm and hand.
Wristdrop
168
_____________ results from excessive plantar flexion and is usually a complication of prolonged bed rest.
Footdrop
169
The goal of diet therapy for a client with _______________ is to achieve normal body weight and to maintain it.
diabetes mellitus
170
______________ is pain that incapacitates a client and can't be relieved by drugs or conventional therapies.
Intractable pain
171
In clients who have glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, the RBC's can't metabolize adequate amounts of glucose, and _________ occurs.
hemolysis
172
The unit measurement of sound is
decibel
173
On-call medication is medication that should be ready for immediate administration when the call to administer it is received. It should be administered within _____ minutes of receiving the call.
5
174
If gagging, nausea, or vomiting occurs when an airway is removed, the nurse should place the client in a lateral position with the upper arm:
supported on a pillow
175
Emancipated minors are individuals younger than the age of majority who aren't under parental control, such as:
married minors
those who serve in the military
college students who live away from home
176
___________ consent is required for any invasive procedure.
Informed
177
A client who can't write his name to give consent for treatment must make an ________ in the presence of two witnesses, such as a nurse, priest, or physician.
X
178
When a postoperative client arrives in the recovery room, the nurse should position the client on his ______ or with his head turned to the _______ and the chin extended if he can't be placed on his side.
side; side
179
In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse should report a:
RR > 30
| temp > 100 or
180
Immunity to rubella can be measured by a ___________________. This test identifies exposure to rubella infection and determines susceptibility in pregnant women. A titer _______ indicates immunity.
hemagglutination inhibition test (rubella titer)
| 1:8
181
When used to describe the degree of fetal descent during labor, _____________ means the presenting part isn't engaged in the pelvic inlet, but is freely movable (ballotable) above the pelvic inlet.
floating
182
Irreversible brain damage may occur if the central nervous system is deprived of oxygen for more than
4 minutes
183
When used to describe the degree of fetal descent, _____________ occurs when the largest diameter of the presenting part has passed through the pelvic inlet.
engagement
184
The _______________ I.M. injection technique seals the drug deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin irritation and staining. It requires a needle that's _____ or longer. The needle used to draw up the drug shouldn't be the one used to inject it.
Z-track
| 1"
185
Fetal station indicates the location of the presenting part in relation to the _____________. It's described as -1, -2, -3, -4, -5 to indicate the number of centimeters above the level. Station -5 is at the _________________.
ischial spine
| pelvic inlet
186
Station 0 is at the level of the :
ischial spine
187
Fetal station +1, +2, +3, +4, +5 indicates the number of centimeters it is below the:
ischial spine
188
During the first stage of labor, the _____________ position usually provides the greatest degree of comfort., although the client may assume any comfortable position.
side-lying
189
During delivery, if the umbilical cord can't be loosened and slipped from around the neonate's neck, it should be:
clamped with two clamps and cut between the clamps
| prepare to ventilate neonate during birth
190
An APGAR score of ________ indicates no immediate distress.
7-10
191
An APGAR score of ________ indicates moderate distress.
4-6
192
An APGAR score of ________ indicates severe distress.
0-3
193
Treatment for polycythemia vera includes______________ to suppress bone marrow growth:
administering oxygen
radioisotope therapy
chemotherapy agents (chlorambucil & nitrogen mustard)
194
A client with acute renal failure should receive a __________ calorie diet that's low in _________, __________, and ___________.
high
protein
potassium
sodium
195
Addison's disease is caused by hypofunction of the adrenal gland and is characterized by:
fatigue
anemia
weight loss
bronze skin pigmentation
196
Without _____________ therapy, Addison's disease is usually fatal.
cortisol replacement
197
The RACE acronym stand for:
R - remove the client
A - activate the alarm
C - contain the fire by closing the door
E - extinguish the fire if it can be done safely
198
When caring for a depressed client, the nurse's first priority is ____________ because of the increased risk of suicide.
safety
199
Glaucoma is managed conservatively with beta-adrenergic blockers such as timolol (Timoptic), which decrease ____________ sympathetic impulses to the eye, and with miotic eyedrops such as pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine), which ___________ the pupils.
sympathetic impulses
| constrict
200
Miotics effectively treat glaucoma by reducing ____________. They do this by:
```
intraocular pressure;
constricting the pupil
contracting the ciliary muscles
opening the anterior chamber angle
increasing the outflow of aqueous humor
```
