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Nclex Study > General Bullets #2 > Flashcards

General Bullets #2 Flashcards

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1
Q

An _______________ is a group of people who share one or more common characteristics.

A

aggregate

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2
Q

______________ is a technique used to desensitize a client with a phobia.

A

Flooding

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3
Q

Fluvoxamine (Luvox) is used to treat

A

OCD

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4
Q

One characteristic of Native Americans is that they’re

A

future oriented.

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5
Q

A Latin-American client may seek assistance and guidance of a ___________________, a folk or faith healer.

A

curandero

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6
Q

During the postoperative phase, a pink-red stoma is __________; a stoma with a dark red or purplish hue indicates ________________; and a brown or black stoma indicates _______________.

A

normal; ischemia; necrosis

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7
Q

Unless contraindicated, place a client on his left side with the right knee flexed when inserting a

A

suppository

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8
Q

When bottle-feeding a newborn with a cleft palate, hold the infant’s head in an _______________ position.

A

upright

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9
Q

Because of circulating maternal antibodies that will decrease the immune response, the MMR vaccine shouldn’t be given until the infant has reached:

A

1 year of age

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10
Q

If a client complains of increased pain when palpating the testicle, suspect:

A

testicular torsion

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11
Q

If a client is relieved when the scrotum is lifted, suspect:

A

epididymitis

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12
Q

A __________________ is a written policy, regulation, order, or rule that provides specific guidance on how to handle a particular treatment issue, problem, or concern.

A

standing order

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13
Q

Boneless, skinless baked chicken is low in:

A

fat and triglycerides

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14
Q

If a client is _______________, call the physician and report this information before applying a transdermal patch.

A

febrile

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15
Q

______________ is a practice of Asian cultures wherein the edge of a coin is rubbed back and forth across a person’s oiled skin to rid the body of disease.

A

Coining

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16
Q

Coining causes:

A

welt-like lesions

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17
Q

In _______________, a bottle or other container is filled with steam and placed against the skin to draw out poison. In the process, the skin is burned.

A

cupping

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18
Q

Muslims will accept an _______________ if it will prolong life.

A

organ transplant

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19
Q

Last-rite chanting often follows the death of a:

A

Buddhist

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20
Q

In the _______________________, burial is believed to reflect proper care of the remains; cremation is discouraged.

A

Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (Mormons)

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21
Q

Friends (Quakers) don’t believe in life after death, and they believe God is ______________.

A

in everyone

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22
Q

Baptism is mandatory in the ________________ religion. Organ transplant is acceptable.

A

Roman Catholic

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23
Q

The ______________ believe that a healthy boy is a gift from parents and ancestors.

A

Chinese

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24
Q

_____________ believe that the universe is controlled by God’s will and there are supernatural forces in existence.

A

Filipinos

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25
Q

___________ people believe that good health is the balance between yin and yang, which are the opposing yet complementary aspects of all creation.

A

Vietnamese

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26
Q

In _______________ culture, illness is thought to be caused by an imbalance between hot and cold. Illness is seen as a punishment from ____________.

A

Hispanic; God

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27
Q

____________________ believe that health is derived from being in harmony with nature and the universe.

A

Native Americans

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28
Q

Frozen human milk shouldn’t be microwaved because it decreases the milk’s:

A

anti-infective factors.

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29
Q

A newborn typically wets:

A

6-10 diapers per day

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30
Q

Normal v/s of a neonate include:

A

HR 120-140, RR 30-50, axillary temp 97.3-98.6 F

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31
Q

Gavage feeding is the preferred method of ensuring adequate nutrition of neonates who are unable to:

A

suck effectively

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32
Q

When blood is drawn from an infant under a phototherapy lamp, the light is turned off to prevent:

A

destruction of bilirubin.

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33
Q

Signs and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease are:

A

Severe cramping
Malodorous vaginal discharge
dyspareunia
dysmenorrhea

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34
Q

The most adequate diet for an infant in the first 6 months of life is:

A

breast milk.

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35
Q

An infant can usually chew food by:

A

7 months.

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36
Q

An infant can usually hold a spoon by:

A

9 months

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37
Q

An infant can usually drink fluid from a cup by:

A

1 year of age

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38
Q

Choking from __________________ is the leading cause of death (by suffocation) for infants younger than 1 year of age.

A

mechanical obstruction

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39
Q

The _____________ is used to determine the patency of the fallopian tubes.

A

Rubin test

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40
Q

Sickling, as seen in sickle cell anemia, is caused by:

A

hypoxemia

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41
Q

One of the easiest methods used to prevent sickling of RBC’s is:

A

hemodilution (increasing fluid intake).

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42
Q

Folic acid is needed by the body to form _____, the iron-containing protein in hemoglobin.

A

heme

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43
Q

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left sacrum anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

A

left side of the maternal abdomen just above the umbilicus.

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44
Q

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left occiput posterior lie, place the stethoscope:

A

just below the umbilicus on the left side.

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45
Q

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left occiput anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

A

lower aspect of the abdomen on the mother’s left side.

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46
Q

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right sacrum anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

A

right side of the maternal abdomen just above the umbilicus.

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47
Q

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right occiput posterior lie, place the stethoscope:

A

just below the umbilicus on the right side.

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48
Q

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right occiput anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

A

lower aspect of the abdomen on the mother’s right side.

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49
Q

Typical non-life-threatening adverse effects of chemotherapy include:

A

Nausea & vomiting
Alopecia
Changes in taste perception

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50
Q

Toxic effects of chemotherapy that may be life-threatening include:

A

hematologic toxicity (bone marrow depression)
hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity

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51
Q

A nurse should wear gloves at all times when working with a:

A

chemotherapeutic agent

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52
Q

___________ is for IV use only and can be fatal if given intrathecally.

A

Oncovin (vincristine)

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53
Q

Monitor a client receiving vincristine for life-threatening:

A

bronchospasms.

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54
Q

An early sign of mitral valve prolapse is:

A

systolic click

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55
Q

Signs and symptoms of esophageal cancer are:

A

dysphagia
a sensation of something in the throat
pain during swallowing
substernal pain

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56
Q

The primary symptom of _____________ is dyspnea on exertion initially and then dyspnea at rest.

A

pulmonary hypertension

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57
Q

Early complications of tracheostomy are:

A

bleeding
air embolism
pneumothorax
laryngeal nerve damage

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58
Q

The most common complication of a teen pregnancy is:

A

preeclampsia

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59
Q

______________ is a term used to describe an infant who falls below the 5th percentile for weight and height on a standard measurement chart.

A

Failure to thrive

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60
Q

A _________ medication shouldn’t be swallowed.

A

sublingual

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61
Q

Problem solving approaches include:

A

intuition
research
trial and error
the scientific method

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62
Q

Developmental theories include:

A 
Havighurst's age periods and developmental tasks
Freud's five stages of development
Kohlberg's stages of moral development
Erikson's eight stages of development
Piaget's phases of cognitive development
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63
Q

Macrosomia occurs in an infant with a birth weight greater than:

A

4,000 grams (8 pound, 13 ounces)

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64
Q

The primary concern with infusing large volumes of fluid is:

A

circulatory overload.

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65
Q

Infant hazards:

A

falls
burns
suffocation

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66
Q

Toddler hazards

A

burns
poisoning
drowning

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67
Q

Preschooler hazards:

A

playground equipment accidents
choking
poisoning
drowning

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68
Q

Adolescent hazards:

A

automobile accidents
drowning
fires
firearm accidents

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69
Q

Factors that contribute to suicide include:

A 
prolonged medical illness
loss of a lifelong mate
uncontrolled pain
major depression
social isolation
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70
Q

__________ are more likely to commit suicide.

A

White adult males

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71
Q

In Islam, __________ is prohibited; meat products must be slaughtered in accordance with religious guidelines; and daytime fasting occurs during:

A

pork; Ramadan

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72
Q

In Judaism, food must be prepared in accordance with ____________; only meat from animals that are vegetable eaters, cloven-hoofed animals, and animals slaughtered in accordance with religious guidelines are permitted.

A

kosher law

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73
Q

In Judaism, fish with ____________ are allowed under religious law (shellfish wouldn’t be).

A

scales and fins

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74
Q

Jews fast for 24 hours during _______________ (the very ill and pregnant women are exempted from complying).

A

Yom Kippur

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75
Q

In Judaism, combinations of ________________ are prohibited.

A

meat and milk

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76
Q

During Passover, only _______________ bread can be consumed in the Jewish faith.

A

unleavened

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77
Q

For Jehovah’s Witnesses, any food or food product that has ________ added to it is prohibited.

A

blood

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78
Q

For Buddhists, Seventh Day Adventists (Church of God), and Baptists, _____________ is prohibited.

A

alcohol

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79
Q

Roman Catholics fast on ___________ and ____________. During Lent, meat is discouraged on _______.

A

Ash Wednesday; Good Friday

Friday

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80
Q

In the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints (Mormons), ____________, ______, and ________ are prohibited; fasting occurs on the first _____________ of the month.

A

alcohol
coffee
tea

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81
Q

In Hinduism, ______ and ______ are prohibited; various sects fast at different times of the week; __________ are prohibited from fasting; and members of this faith are vegetarians.

A

veal; beef

children

82
Q

Food preferences of Hispanic Americans generally include:

A

beans
fried foods
spicy foods
corn products

83
Q

Food preferences of African Americans generally include:

A

greens
fried foods
pork

84
Q

Food preferences of Native Americans generally include:

A

fruits and berries
blue cornmeal
fish and game

85
Q

An ________________ occurs when there’s a conflict between two seemingly equal ethical principles.

A

ethical dilemma

86
Q

A child in Bryant’s traction who’s younger than 3 or weighs less than 30 lb should have the:

A

buttocks slightly elevated and clear of bed
knees should be slightly flexed
legs should be extended at a right angle to body

87
Q

Unlike false labor, true labor produces:

A 
regular rhythmic contractions
abdominal discomfort
progressive descent of the fetus
show
progressive effacement & dilation of cervix
88
Q

Pernicious anemia results from the failure to absorb ___________ in the GI tract and causes primarily GI and neurologic signs and symptoms.

A

Vitamin B12

89
Q

In a client with hypokalemia, presenting S/S include:

A

muscle weakness

cardiac arrhythmias

90
Q

A client who has a pressure ulcer should consume a diet high in __________________ and ____________ unless contraindicated.

A

protein

calories

91
Q

The CK-MB isoenzyme level is used to assess tissue damage in:

A

MI

92
Q

After a 12-hour fast, the normal fasting blood glucose level is:

A

80-120 mg/dL

93
Q

A blood pressure cuff that’s too narrow can cause a falsely:

A

elevated blood pressure

94
Q

A blood pressure cuff that’s too wide can cause a falsely:

A

decreased blood pressure

95
Q

A client who’s experiencing digoxin toxicity may report:

A 
nausea/vomiting
diplopia
blurred vision
light flashes
yellow-green halos around images
96
Q

Administering high levels of oxygen to a premature neonate can cause blindness secondary to:

A

retrolental fibroplasia

97
Q

Anuria is daily urine output of:

A
98
Q

A woman or girl taking a _____________ is at risk of candidiasis because of an overgrowth of Candida albicans.

A

corticosteroid

99
Q

_____________ are the rumbling sounds heard on lung auscultation. They’re more pronounced on________________.

A

Rhonchi; expiration

100
Q

___________ is forced feeding, usually through a gastric tube.

A

Gavage

101
Q

Risk of a fat embolism is greatest in the first _____ hours after the fracture of a long bone and is manifested as respiratory distress.

A

48

102
Q

To help venous blood return in a client who’s in shock, the nurse should elevate the client’s legs no more than ________. This procedure is contraindicated in a client with a head injury, however.

A

45 degrees

103
Q

The _______________ is the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates when taken simultaneously by two nurses using the same watch.

A

pulse deficit

104
Q

To reduce the client’s risk of vomiting and aspiration, the nurse should schedule postural drainage before _____ or _____________ hours after meals.

A

before; 2-4 hours

105
Q

A positive _____________, seen in meningitis, occurs when an attempt to flex the hip of a recumbent patient causes painful spasms of the hamstring muscle and resistance to further extension of the leg at the knee.

A

Kernig’s sign

106
Q

After an orchiectomy, the ____________________ level is monitored for elevation. A rising level of this tumor marker is consistent with nonseminomatous malignancy of the testicle that has spread to other parts of the body.

A

alpha feto protein

107
Q

Herniated nucleus pulposus (intervertebral disk) most commonly occurs in the:

A

lumbar and lumbosacral regions

108
Q

_____________ is surgical removal of the herniated portion of an intervertebral disc.

A

Laminectomy

109
Q

Surgical treatment of a gastric ulcer includes severing the vagus nerve (vagotomy) to reduce the amount of ____________ secreted by the gastric cells.

A

gastric acid

110
Q

_______________ is an alteration in thought processes that’s characterized by skipping from one topic to another, unrelated topic.

A

Flight of ideas

111
Q

__________________ is the lack of concern for a profound disability, such as blindness, deafness, or paralysis that may occur in a client who has a conversion disorder.

A

La bell indifference

112
Q

In an infant, a bulging fontanel is the most significant sign of increasing _____.

A

ICP

113
Q

Moderate anxiety decreases a person’s ability to perceive and concentrate. The person is selectively inattentive (focuses on immediate concerns), and the perceptual field narrows (______________).

A

tunnelvision

114
Q

A client who has a phobic disorder uses self-protective ______________ as an ego defense mechanism.

A

avoidance

115
Q

In a client with anorexia nervosa, the highest treatment priority is correction of ___________ and __________ imbalances.

A

nutritional and electrolyte

116
Q

A normal lithium therapeutic level is:

A

0.5 to 1.2 mEq/L

117
Q

The ______________ forces exhalation against a closed glottis, such as when taking a deep breath to blow up a balloon or bearing down, as with a bowel movement. it increases _______________ and often slows tachycardia.

A

Valsalva maneuver

intrathoracic

118
Q

Early s/s of alcohol withdrawal include:

A

anxiety
anorexia
tremors
insomnia

119
Q

S/s of alcohol withdrawal may begin as early as _____ after the last alcohol intake or be delayed as long as _______ days.

A

8 hours

7-10

120
Q

Thorazine =

A

chlorpromazine

121
Q

The nurse shouldn’t administer chlorpromazine (Thorazine) to a client who has ingested _________ because it may cause oversedation and _____________.

A

alcohol

respiratory distress

122
Q

When mean arterial pressure falls below ______ and systolic blood pressure drops below ________, vital organ perfusion is seriously compromised.

A

60 mmHg

80 mmHg

123
Q

Lidocaine =

A

Xylocaine

124
Q

Lidocaine is the drug of choice for reducing ____________________.

A

premature ventricular contractions

125
Q

Lithium toxicity can occur when sodium and fluid intake are insufficient, causing:

A

lithium retention

126
Q

_______________ is artificial rupture of the amniotic membranes.

A

Amniotomy

127
Q

An alcoholic who achieves sobriety is called a _________________ because there’s no cure for alcoholism.

A

recovering alcoholic

128
Q

A client is at greatest risk of dying during the first _________ after a myocardial infarction.

A

24-48

129
Q

During a myocardial infarction, the _____ ventricle usually sustains the greatest damage.

A

left

130
Q

The pain of a myocardial infarction results from myocardial ischemia cause by:

A

anoxia.

131
Q

An oral ________________ solution should be given after meals and client should swish the drug in his mouth.

A

nystatin (Mycostatin)

132
Q

_____________ is more likely to affect a full-term infant than a premature infant because of the slow growth of the full-term infant and the initial decreased amount of nutritional intake.

A

Pyloric stenosis

133
Q

For a client who has heart failure or cardiogenic pulmonary edema, nursing interventions focus on:

A

decreasing venous return to the heart and increasing left ventricular output.

134
Q

The interventions to decrease venous return and increase left ventricular output included:

A

placing client in high Fowler’s
administering oxygen
diuretics
positive inotropic drugs

135
Q

A positive tuberculin skin test is an induration of _______ or greater at the injection site.

A

10mm

136
Q

The s/s of ________________, a chronic systemic fungal infection, resemble those of tuberculosis.

A

histoplasmosis

137
Q

Fluid oscillation in the tubing of a chest drainage system indicates that the system is

A

working properly

138
Q

In burn victims, the leading cause of death is _______________. The second leading cause is __________.

A

respiratory compromise

infection

139
Q

The exocrine function of the pancreas is the secretion of enzymes used to digest:

A

carbohydrates, fats and proteins

140
Q

A client with hepatitis A (infectious hepatitis) should consume a diet that’s moderately high in fat and high in _____________ and __________, and should eat the largest meal in the ____________.

A

carbohydrates and protein

morning

141
Q

The nurse should place a client who has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in

A

semi-Fowler’s position

142
Q

Esophageal balloon tamponade shouldn’t be inflated

A

> 20 mm Hg

143
Q

Overproduction of ____________ by the pituitary gland can cause galactorrhea and amenorrhea.

A

prolactin

144
Q

Intermittent claudication is a classic symptom of _________________ in the leg.

A

Arterial insufficiency

145
Q

During pregnancy, weight gain averages

A

25-30 lbs (11 - 13.5 kg)

146
Q

In ________________, the most common finding is gross, painless, hematuria.

A

bladder carcinoma

147
Q

The nurse can elicit _______________ by occluding the brachial or radial artery.

A

Trousseau’s sign

148
Q

Hand and finger spasms that occur during occlusion of the brachial or radial artery indicate Trousseau’s sign and suggest:

A

hypocalcemia

149
Q

Trousseau’s sign can also be elicited by inflating a BP cuff 20 mmHg above the client’s systolic pressure for:

A

2 minutes

150
Q

Parenteral administration of heparin sodium is contraindicated in clients with:

A 
renal or liver disease
GI bleeding
recent surgery or trauma
pregnant clients
women >60
151
Q

Drugs that potentiate the effects of anticoagulants include:

A 
aspirin
chloral hydrate
glucagon
anabolic steroids
chloramphenicol
152
Q

According to Erikson, the school-age child (ages 6-12) is in the _____________________ stage of psychosocial development.

A

industry-versus-inferiority

153
Q

For a burn patient, care priorities include:

A

maintaining a patent airway
preventing or correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalance
controlling pain
preventing infection

154
Q

Elastic stockings should be worn on both legs and should only be removed for:

A

skin care

155
Q

________________ is the formation of antibodies within the body in response to vaccination or exposure to disease. The length of immunity is longer than that of passive immunity.

A

Active immunity

156
Q

_________________ is administration of antibodies that were preformed outside the body.

A

Passive immunization

157
Q

Chickenpox causes a rash that has four stages:

A

macules
papules
vesicles
crusts

158
Q

Chickenpox lesions of various stages occur ______________ during the illness.

A

simultaneously

159
Q

A child with chickenpox can return to school after all the lesions have:

A

crusted

160
Q

______________ has a teratogenic effect on the fetus during the first trimester. It produces abnormalities in up to 40% of cases without interrupting the pregnancy.

A

Rubella

161
Q

To calculate a pediatric dose using ______________, the nurse should multiply the adult dose by the child’s weight in pounds and divide the result by 150.

A

Clark’s rule

162
Q

To calculate a pediatric dose using _______________, the nurse should multiply the adult dose by the child’s age in years and divide the result by the sum of the child’s age plus 12.

A

Young’s rule

163
Q

A client who’s receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) shouldn’t receive a ___________ preparation because of the increased risk of ________________. Concomitant use may affect cardiac contractility and lead to arrhythmias.

A

calcium

digoxin toxicity

164
Q

For blood transfusion in an adult, the appropriate needle size is

A

16 to 20 gauge

165
Q

_____________________ is inflation of the lung during inspiration with compressed air or oxygen. The goal of this therapy is to keep the lung open.

A

Intermittent positive-pressure breathing

166
Q

To prevent infection in clients with sickle cell anemia, penicillin prophylaxis is started at age

A

2 months

167
Q

___________ is caused by paralysis of the extensor muscles in the forearm and hand.

A

Wristdrop

168
Q

_____________ results from excessive plantar flexion and is usually a complication of prolonged bed rest.

A

Footdrop

169
Q

The goal of diet therapy for a client with _______________ is to achieve normal body weight and to maintain it.

A

diabetes mellitus

170
Q

______________ is pain that incapacitates a client and can’t be relieved by drugs or conventional therapies.

A

Intractable pain

171
Q

In clients who have glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, the RBC’s can’t metabolize adequate amounts of glucose, and _________ occurs.

A

hemolysis

172
Q

The unit measurement of sound is

A

decibel

173
Q

On-call medication is medication that should be ready for immediate administration when the call to administer it is received. It should be administered within _____ minutes of receiving the call.

A

5

174
Q

If gagging, nausea, or vomiting occurs when an airway is removed, the nurse should place the client in a lateral position with the upper arm:

A

supported on a pillow

175
Q

Emancipated minors are individuals younger than the age of majority who aren’t under parental control, such as:

A

married minors
those who serve in the military
college students who live away from home

176
Q

___________ consent is required for any invasive procedure.

A

Informed

177
Q

A client who can’t write his name to give consent for treatment must make an ________ in the presence of two witnesses, such as a nurse, priest, or physician.

A

X

178
Q

When a postoperative client arrives in the recovery room, the nurse should position the client on his ______ or with his head turned to the _______ and the chin extended if he can’t be placed on his side.

A

side; side

179
Q

In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse should report a:

A

RR > 30

temp > 100 or

180
Q

Immunity to rubella can be measured by a ___________________. This test identifies exposure to rubella infection and determines susceptibility in pregnant women. A titer _______ indicates immunity.

A

hemagglutination inhibition test (rubella titer)

1:8

181
Q

When used to describe the degree of fetal descent during labor, _____________ means the presenting part isn’t engaged in the pelvic inlet, but is freely movable (ballotable) above the pelvic inlet.

A

floating

182
Q

Irreversible brain damage may occur if the central nervous system is deprived of oxygen for more than

A

4 minutes

183
Q

When used to describe the degree of fetal descent, _____________ occurs when the largest diameter of the presenting part has passed through the pelvic inlet.

A

engagement

184
Q

The _______________ I.M. injection technique seals the drug deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin irritation and staining. It requires a needle that’s _____ or longer. The needle used to draw up the drug shouldn’t be the one used to inject it.

A

Z-track

1”

185
Q

Fetal station indicates the location of the presenting part in relation to the _____________. It’s described as -1, -2, -3, -4, -5 to indicate the number of centimeters above the level. Station -5 is at the _________________.

A

ischial spine

pelvic inlet

186
Q

Station 0 is at the level of the :

A

ischial spine

187
Q

Fetal station +1, +2, +3, +4, +5 indicates the number of centimeters it is below the:

A

ischial spine

188
Q

During the first stage of labor, the _____________ position usually provides the greatest degree of comfort., although the client may assume any comfortable position.

A

side-lying

189
Q

During delivery, if the umbilical cord can’t be loosened and slipped from around the neonate’s neck, it should be:

A

clamped with two clamps and cut between the clamps

prepare to ventilate neonate during birth

190
Q

An APGAR score of ________ indicates no immediate distress.

A

7-10

191
Q

An APGAR score of ________ indicates moderate distress.

A

4-6

192
Q

An APGAR score of ________ indicates severe distress.

A

0-3

193
Q

Treatment for polycythemia vera includes______________ to suppress bone marrow growth:

A

administering oxygen
radioisotope therapy
chemotherapy agents (chlorambucil & nitrogen mustard)

194
Q

A client with acute renal failure should receive a __________ calorie diet that’s low in _________, __________, and ___________.

A

high
protein
potassium
sodium

195
Q

Addison’s disease is caused by hypofunction of the adrenal gland and is characterized by:

A

fatigue
anemia
weight loss
bronze skin pigmentation

196
Q

Without _____________ therapy, Addison’s disease is usually fatal.

A

cortisol replacement

197
Q

The RACE acronym stand for:

A

R - remove the client
A - activate the alarm
C - contain the fire by closing the door
E - extinguish the fire if it can be done safely

198
Q

When caring for a depressed client, the nurse’s first priority is ____________ because of the increased risk of suicide.

A

safety

199
Q

Glaucoma is managed conservatively with beta-adrenergic blockers such as timolol (Timoptic), which decrease ____________ sympathetic impulses to the eye, and with miotic eyedrops such as pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine), which ___________ the pupils.

A

sympathetic impulses

constrict

200
Q

Miotics effectively treat glaucoma by reducing ____________. They do this by:

A 
intraocular pressure;
constricting the pupil
contracting the ciliary muscles
opening the anterior chamber angle
increasing the outflow of aqueous humor

Nclex Study (9 decks)

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