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PPL - Air law > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

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1
Q

accident (time frame)

A

between the time a person boards the a/c with the intention of a flight until all persons have disembarked and the engine or any propellers/rotors have come to a stop.

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2
Q

Accident

A

It involves a person being fatally or seriously injured, this can be persons inside the a/c, someone hit by part of the a/c or someone exposed to jet blast.

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3
Q

accident liability exceptions

A

if injures are self-inflicted, inflicted by another person or due to being a stowaway on the a/c

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4
Q

act

A

civil aviation act 1990

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5
Q

aerobatic flight

A

an intentional manoeuvre in which the a/c is in sustained inverted flight or is rolled from upright to inverted or from inverted to upright position. As well as manoeuvres such as rolls, loops, spins, upward vertical flight culminating in a stall turn, hammerhead or whip stall or a combination of these manoeuvres

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6
Q

Aerodrome

A

Any defined area of land or water intended or designed to be used either fully or partly for the landing, departure and surface movement of a/c. It includes any buildings, installations and equipment on or adjacent to any such area used.

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7
Q

aerodrome elevation

A

the elevation of the highest point of the landing area

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8
Q

Requirements to hold an aviation document

A

Required for all pilots, aviation employees, equipment and companies who supply the aviation industry with a service. This is to prevent uncertified companies or people compromising aviation safety or security. Documents must meet CAA act standards and be issued for a specified period by the director and to what conditions they deem appropriate. You can appeal against any decision to the district court.

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9
Q

Change in medical condition

A

You must advise the director as soon as practicable. If your aviation medical examiner (AME) or the operator is aware or suspects a change in your medical condition they must advise you and tell the director of the change as soon as practicable

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10
Q

Change in medical condition section 4 and 5

A

guard the AME against criminal proceedings

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11
Q

Change in medical condition section 27G 1 (b)

A

states the director can make exceptions for temporary medical conditions so that they don’t have to be reported

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12
Q

Once the director is informed of a medical condition they can ____

A

Suspend, revoke or impose restrictions on your medical certificate. This depends on advice the director receives regarding if your medical condition is going to affect your ability to operate safely.

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13
Q

surrender of a medical certificate, who to surrender it to

A
  • The director,
  • A person authorised by the director
  • A police officer
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14
Q

Who must the director notify about a surrender of a medical certificate

A

Any aviation document holder and anyone else that may be affected

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15
Q

Returning your own medical certificate

A

You can return your medical certificate to the director and ask in writing for the director to cancel it

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16
Q

Safety offences

A

As a pilot or a person/company that holds an aviation document, if you do anything to cause unnecessary danger to any person or property you are committing an offence and can be personally fined $10,000 or sent to prison for 12 months, or as a body corporate can be fined up to $100,000. Operating an a/c in a careless manner is an offence and can lead to a fine of up to $10,000

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17
Q

ATC service purpose

A

Preventing collisions and expediting and maintaining a safe and efficient flow of air traffic

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18
Q

Airworthiness certificate issuing

A
  • NZ registered a/c it is issued under part 21h

- Foreign registered a/c it is issued by the competent authority of the state of registry

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19
Q

Airworthy condition of a a/c definition

A

The condition of an a/c including its components, fuel and other materials/substances essential to the manufacture and operation of the a/c, that complies with all requirements prescribed by the CAA rules

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20
Q

Alerting service

A

An air traffic service provided to notify and assist appropriate organisations regarding a/c in need of SAR aid

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21
Q

Altitude

A

Vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point measured from MSL

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22
Q

Apron

A

A defined area on a land aerodrome for the loading/unloading of passengers or cargo, refuelling, parking or maintenance

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23
Q

ATC clearance

A

Authorisation for an a/c to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit

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24
Q

ATC instruction

A

A directive issued by ATC requiring a pilot to take specific action

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25
Q

Aviation event

A

An event conducted below the minimum safe heights prescribed under part 91 that is either an:

  • airshow or airshow practice
  • air race or air race practice
  • aerobatic competition
  • aerobatic training
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26
Q

AWIB service

A

an automatic broadcast of aerodrome and weather information provided specifically for the facilitation of aviation and for the avoidance of doubt, it is not an ATC service

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27
Q

BWR

A

Verbal comment in support of aviation, describing any of the following current weather conditions observed at a particular place or airspace

  • Wind direction/strength
  • MSL air pressure
  • Air temp
  • Weather conditions
  • Cloud cover
28
Q

Ceiling

A

The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000ft covering more than half the sky

29
Q

Controlled flight

A

Any flight subject to ATC clearance

30
Q

Cost sharing flight

A

Any flight that is performed solely for the carriage of persons where it is:

  • not advertised to the public
  • crew members receive no payment or reward for services
  • the persons carried including crew members share equally in the cost of the flight
  • no payment or reward is required of a person on the flight other than sharing in cost.
31
Q

Cross-country flight

A

A flight which extends more than 25nm in a straight line distance from the centre of the aerodrome of departure

32
Q

Dangerous good

A

Articles or substances that are capable of/have properties of posing risk to health, safety, property or the environment and are listed/classified in accordance with the ICAO’s technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air

33
Q

day

A

the hours between the beginning of MCT and the end of ECT

34
Q

dual flight time

A

flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from an appropriately licensed and rated pilot onboard a dual control aircraft

35
Q

ELT

A

(emergency locator transmitter) - equipment that broadcasts a distinctive signal on a designated radio frequency to facilitate a SAR operation

36
Q

final reserve fuel

A

min quantity of fuel required to provide a margin to secure the safe completion of a flight in the event of any unplanned manoeuvring in the vicinity of the destination or alternate/suitable aerodrome, and in ordinary circumstances remains onboard until completion of landing.

37
Q

fit and proper person

A

a person who satisfies the fit and proper person test specified in the act

38
Q

flight information service

A

air traffic service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information intended for the safe and efficient conduct of flights

39
Q

PIC duties

A
  • responsible for the safe operation of the a/c in flight
  • safety and well-being of all passengers, crew and cargo
  • has final authority to control the a/c while in command
  • the maintenance of discipline of all persons on board.
  • Subject to section 13A PIC is responsible for compliance with all relevant requirements of this act and regulations and rules under this act
40
Q

it and proper person test criteria

A

the director is able to consider any information they think may be relevant when determining if a person is a fit and proper person to hold a document under the act. You must maintain your fit and proper status and inform the director if this changes

41
Q

Fit and proper person test criteria - prejudice info

A

if this info is going to prejudice your application, the director must inform you so you can comment on the info received. The director doesn’t have to disclose this info to you if it will endanger the safety of another person. However, the director has to let you know that they are considering info that they will not disclose to you and there is a process you must follow to get access to this info.

42
Q

aerodrome operational area

A

the movement area at an aerodrome and its associated strips and safety areas; and any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft operations

43
Q

aerodrome traffic circuit

A

the pattern flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome

44
Q

aeronautical information circular

A

a notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIPNZ; and relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters

45
Q

AIP

A

aerodrome information publication - a publication issued by, or with the authority of, a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation

46
Q

AIP supplement

A

temporary changes to the information contained in the AIPNZ that are published by means of special pages

47
Q

ABN

A

aerodrome beacon

48
Q

AGL

A

above ground level

49
Q

AFIS

A

aerodrome flight information service

50
Q

AFRU

A

aerodrome frequency response unit

51
Q

AMSL

A

above mean sea level

52
Q

ATIS

A

automatic terminal information service

53
Q

AWIB

A

aerodrome and weather information broadcast

54
Q

AWS

A

automatic weather station

55
Q

BWR

A

basic weather report

56
Q

CAR

A

civil aviation rules

57
Q

DTHR

A

displaced runway threshold

58
Q

ECT

A

evening civil twilight

59
Q

ELT

A

emergency locator transmitter

60
Q

ME1

A

a medical examiner with a medical examiner 1 certificate issued under the act

61
Q

ME2

A

a medical examiner with a medical examiner 2 certificate issued under the act

62
Q

MCT

A

morning civil twilight

63
Q

POB

A

persons on board

64
Q

QNH

A

altimeter sub scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground

65
Q

VFR

A

visual flight rules

66
Q

VPC

A

visual planing chart

PPL - Air law (4 decks)

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