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neurology > general > Flashcards

general Flashcards

1
Q

history of acute red eye

A 
red
pain
discharge
photophobia
flashing lights
blurred vision
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2
Q

middle ear most important relations

A

middle cranial fossa
internal carotid artery
sigmoid sinus and internal jugular vein

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3
Q

stapedius
posterior belly of digastric muscle
stylohyoid muscles are innervated by

A

facial nerve

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4
Q

sensation to the middle ear is supplied by

A

jacobsons nerve tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve

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5
Q

pinna upper half is innervated by the

A

mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve

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6
Q

pinna lower half is innervated by

A

greater auricular nerve C2/3

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7
Q

external auditory canal sensation is supplied by

A

Arnold’s nerve - auricular branch of vagus nerve

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8
Q

saccule detects what acceleration in which plane?

A

linear and vertical

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9
Q

utricle detects what acceleration in which plane?

A

linear acceleration in a horizontal plane

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10
Q

inner layers of the retina are supplied by

A

central retinal artery

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11
Q

3,4,5 short posterior ciliary arteries supply the

A

posterior part of the choroid, outer retina

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12
Q

the anterior choroid, ciliary body and iris is supplied by

A

long posterior ciliary arteries

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13
Q

meningiomas frequently occur along the line of

A

falx, convexity or sphenoid

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14
Q

how much CSF produced in a day

A

400-450cc/day

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15
Q

epileptic lesions only occur above the

A

tentorium

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16
Q

saltatory conduction refers too

A

propagation of action potential along myelinated axons from one node of ranvier to the next

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17
Q

area 4

A

primary motor cortex

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18
Q

area 44,45

A

Broc’s area of motor speech

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19
Q

area’s 3,1,2

A

primary sensory area

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20
Q

areas 41,42

A

primary auditory cortex

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21
Q

area 17

A

primary visual cortex

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22
Q

areas 18,19 is the

A

visual association cortex

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23
Q

aphasia means

A

problem with speech

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24
Q

broca’s aphasia represents damage to the

A

frontal lobe

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25
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia represents damage to

A

temporal lobe

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26
Q

Broca’s aphasia is

A

missing small words, aware of difficulties

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27
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia is

A

fluent speech with meaningless words, no knowledge of mistakes

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28
Q

commissural fibres connect

A

2 hemispheres

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29
Q

association fibres connect

A

cortexes

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30
Q

projection fibres connect

A

cortex and various sub cortical centres via corona radiata and internal capsule

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31
Q

internal capsule is supplied by

A

middle cerebral artery

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32
Q

output regions of the basal ganglia

A

globus pallidus and substantia nigra

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33
Q

input regions of the basal ganglia are

A

caudate nucleus and putamen

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34
Q

basal ganglia receives input from

A

motor cortex, premotor cortex and thalamus

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35
Q

which basal ganglia projects to the thalamus

A

globus pallidus

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36
Q

75% of strokes occur in people over the age of

A

> 65

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37
Q

how many patients die within a year of a stroke

A

1/3rd

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38
Q

what percentage of strokes are ischaemic?

A

85%

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39
Q

ACA occlusion

A

contralateral paralysis of foot and leg, sensory loss over foot and leg, impairment of gait and stance

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40
Q

MCA occlusion

A

contralateral paralysis of face/arm/leg with sensory loss and homonymous hemianopia. gaze paralysis to opposite side, aphasia if on dominant side

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41
Q

Anosagnosia meaning

A

denial of hemiplegia

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42
Q

prosopagnosia meaning

A

failure to recognise faces

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43
Q

lacunar stroke syndromes

A

pure motor stroke
pure sensory
dysarthria
ataxic hemiparesis

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44
Q

posterior circulation symptoms

A

coma, vertigo, nausea, vomiting, cranial nerve palsies, ataxia, hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, crossed sensori-motor deficit, visual field deficits.

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45
Q 
IV TPA <3h
IV TPA 3-4.5h
stroke units
aspirin 
thromboectomy 
which has the highest NNT?
A

thrombectomy

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46
Q

thrombectomy NNT

A

4-8

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47
Q

aspirin NNT

A

111

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48
Q

exclusion criteria for IV TPA

A 
blood on CT
recent surgery
recent bleeding
coagulation
BP >185 systolic >110 diastolic 
glucose <2.8 or >22mmol/L
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49
Q

ischaemia occurs at which blood flow rate

A

20mL/100g/minute

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50
Q

normal cerebral blood flow average is

A

55-60mL/100g per minute

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51
Q

equation for calculating CPP is

A

CPP=MAP-ICP

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52
Q

MAP is equal to

A

DP+1/3PP or 2/3DP + 1/3SP

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53
Q

CPP range is

A

50-150mm Hg

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54
Q

factors that influence cerebral blood flow

A

CPP
conc. of arterial CO2
arterial PO2

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55
Q

carbon dioxide influence on cerebrovascular blood flow is

A

dilatation and inhibit autoregulation

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56
Q

compliance equation

A

dV / dP

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57
Q

frontal lobe periventricular function

A

gait

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58
Q

frontal lobe paracentral lobule function

A

bladder control

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59
Q

astereognosis refers to the

A

inability to identify an object by active touch of the hands without sensory input

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60
Q

dysgraphesthesia refer to

A

inability to recognise writing on the skin by pure touch sensation

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61
Q

agraphia refers to

A

inability to communicate through writing

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62
Q

finger anomia

A

inability to recognise name or fingers

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63
Q

apraxia refers to

A

difficulty with motor planning when performing tasks and movement

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64
Q

cerebellum damage DANISH P

A 
dysdiadochokinesia 
ataxia
nystagmus
intention tremor
slurred speech
hypotonia
past pointing
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65
Q

dysdiadochokinesia refers to

A

inability to perform rapid alternating movements

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66
Q

hypotonia refers to

A

floppy baby syndrome

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67
Q

EMG stands for

A

electromyography

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68
Q

EMG investigates

A

peripheral nerve and muscle problems

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69
Q

EEG investigates

A

electrical activity within the brain

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70
Q

evoked potentials investigate

A

visual and somatosensory in central pathways

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71
Q

GCS eye opening spontaneous score

A

4

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72
Q

GCS verbal response incomprehensible score

A

2

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73
Q

GCS motor response withdrawing from pain score

A

4

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74
Q

GCS eye opening to pain score

A

2

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75
Q

GCS verbal response confused score

A

4

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76
Q

GCS best motor response extending to pain

A

2

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77
Q

GCS best verbal response score inappropriate words

A

3

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78
Q

GCS motor response flexing to pain score

A

3

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79
Q

GCS eye opening to speech

A

3

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80
Q

pupillary reactions cranial nerves

A

2 + 3

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81
Q

corneal response cranial nerves

A

5 + 7

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82
Q

spontaneous eye movement cranial nerves

A

3, 4, 6

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83
Q

oculocephalic responses

A

3, 4, 6, 8

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84
Q

oculovestibular responses

A

3, 4, 6, 8

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85
Q

respiratory pattern

A

medullary centre

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86
Q

coma without focal or lateralising signs and without meningism causes

A

anoxic, metabolic, intoxication, systemic infection, hyper/hypothermia, epilepsy

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87
Q

investigations for coma with lateralizing signs or menigism

A

toxicology, blood sugar, electrolytes, hepatic or renal function, acid base assessment, blood pressure, CO

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88
Q

coma without focal or lateralising signs but with menigism causes

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage, meningitis, encephalitis

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89
Q

coma without focal or lateralising signs but with menigism investigations

A

CT, lumbar puncture

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90
Q

Coma with focal brainstem or lateralising cerebral signs

A

cerebral tumour, cerebral haemorrhage, cerebral infarction, cerebral abscess

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91
Q

Coma with focal brainstem or lateralising cerebral signs investigations

A

CT/MRI then a metabolic screen, lumbar puncture, EEG

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92
Q

40% of coma’s are due to (>5hrs)

A

drug ingestion +/-alcohol

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93
Q

factors affecting coma outcome

A 
age
cause
depth
duration 
brain stem reflexes
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94
Q

which is the most important prognostic factor

A

brain stem reflexes

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95
Q

what is the percentage of recovery in coma

A

15% for longer than 6 hours

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96
Q

subdural haematoma forms what shape on a CT

A

convex

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97
Q

extradural haematoma forms what shape on a ct

A

concave/convex

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98
Q

2nd most common global cause of blindness

A

Glaucoma

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99
Q

presence of what autoimmune disease increases risk to anterior uveitis

A

HLA-B27

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100
Q

mimics of dementia are

A

hydrocephalus
tumour
depression

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101
Q

treatable causes of dementia

A

vitamin deficiency B12
endocrine thyroid disease
infective HIV syphilis

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102
Q

rapid progression with myoclonus dementia indicates

A

CJD

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103
Q

how many are dead or disabled at 10 years

A

60-90%

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104
Q

non-drug induced side effects of PD

A 
Depression
dementia
autonomic
speech, swallow
balance
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105
Q

drug therapy of PD complications

A

motor fluctuations
dyskinesias
psychiatric

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106
Q

craniorachischisis refers to

A

failure of neural tube closure along the entire neuroaxis

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107
Q

myotomes C5 is for

A

elbow flexors

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108
Q

myotomes C6 is for

A

wrist extensors

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109
Q

myotomes C7 is for

A

elbow extensor

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110
Q

myotome C8 is for

A

finger extensor

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111
Q

myotome T1 is for

A

intrinsic hand muscles

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112
Q

myelopathy

A

neurological deficit due to compression of spinal cord

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113
Q

radiculopathy stands for

A

compression of nerve root leading to dermatomal and mytomal deficits

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114
Q

cervical spondylosis stands for

A

degenerative changes in cervical spin leading to compression

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115
Q

epidural abscess organisms

A

staph aureus, streptococcus, e coli

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116
Q

optic nerve tests

A

visual acuity, fields, pupillary reactions, fundoscopy, colour vision

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117
Q

tests for 3, 4, 6 CN

A

ptosis, pupils, pupillary reactions, eye movements

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118
Q

3+4 CN is located nuclei In the

A

mid brain

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119
Q

5 + 6 + 7 is located nuclei In the CN

A

PONS

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120
Q

8 CN nuclei location

A

pontomedullary

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121
Q

9, 10, 11, 12 nuclei is located in

A

medulla

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122
Q

optic neuritis signs

A 
monocular visual loss
pain on eye movement
reduced visual acuity
reduced colour vision 
optic disc may be swollen 
MS
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123
Q

hypothalamus secretes what for wakefulness

A

orexin (hypocretin)

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124
Q

SCN stands for

A

suprachiasmatic nuclei

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125
Q

stimulation of the Suprachiasmatic nuclei stimulates

A

release of melatonin from the pineal gland and sleepiness

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126
Q

what percentage of sleep is REM

A

25%

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127
Q

after first seizure and a patient has normal investigations they may drive again after

A

6 months

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128
Q

after a first seizure and a patient has normal investigations they may drive a HGV or a PSV after

A

5 years If normal investigations and no anti-epileptic meds

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129
Q

an epileptic seizure is

A

intermittent stereotyped disturbance of consciousness behaviour, emotion, motor function or sensation from abnormal neuronal discharges

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130
Q

primary generalised epilepsy tend to arise before what age?

A

25 years

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131
Q

a focal partial epilepsy occurs at what age?

A

any age

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132
Q

focal onset epilepsy patients under 50 require a

A

MRI

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133
Q

epileptic medication side effects of sodium valproate

A

tremor, weight gain, ataxia, nausea, drowsiness, transient hair loss, pancreatitis, hepatitis

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134
Q

epileptic medication side effects of carbamazepine

A

ataxia, drowsiness, nystagmus, blurred vision, low serum sodium levels, skin rash.

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135
Q

epileptic medication lamotrigine side effects

A

skin rash, difficulty sleeping

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136
Q

epileptic medication levetiracetam side effects

A

irritability, depression

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137
Q

epileptic medication topiramate side effects

A

weight loss, word-finding difficulties, tingling hands and feet

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138
Q

epileptic medication zonisamide side effects

A

bowel upset, cognitive problems

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139
Q

epileptic medication lacosamide side effects

A

dizziness

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140
Q

epileptic medication pregabalin side effects

A

weight gain

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141
Q

epileptic medication vigabatrin side effects

A

behavioural problems and visual field defects

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142
Q

epileptic patients can hold a group 1 licence after

A

seizure free for a year, or only night time seizures,

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143
Q

status epileptics is a tonic-clonic seizure lasting longer than

A

30 minutes

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144
Q

proximal shoulder muscles are mapped to spatially to

A

medial motorneurones

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145
Q

distal finger muscles are mapped spatially to

A

lateral motorneurones

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146
Q

a monosynapic reflex name

A

stretch reflex

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147
Q

in an inverse stretch reflex what sensory nerve travels from GTO

A

1b

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148
Q

history in functional neurology symptoms

A 
disability
onset and course
timeline
dissociative symptoms
illness beliefs 
social
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149
Q

functional symtpoms in neurology

A 
incosistency
absent signs of disease
eye movements, convergent spasm
tremor that dissapears
paralysis
fixed dystonia, comples regional pain
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150
Q

Hoover’s sign is

A

hip’s extension is weak when tested directly. Hip extension is normal when the patient is asked to flex the opposite hip

functional weakness

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151
Q

what percentage of headaches are primary

A

90%

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152
Q

abortive treatment to for headaches should be limtied to how many days a month

A

20 days per month

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153
Q

aura with migraines effect what percentage of sufferers

A

33%

154
Q

duration of a typical migraine aura

A

15-60 minutes

155
Q

chronic migraine is defined as occuring longer than how many days a month

A

> 15 on which >8 have to be migraine for more than 3 months

156
Q

onset time of a cluster headache

A

9 minutes

157
Q

duration of a cluster headache

A

15 minutes to 3 hours

158
Q

paroxysmal hemicrania frequency of attack

A

1-40

159
Q

duration of attack with a paroxysmal hemicrania headaches

A

2-30mins

160
Q

duration of SUNCT headache attack

A

5-240 seconds

161
Q

attack frequency of a SUNCT headache

A

3-200

162
Q

trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias types of headaches

A

cluster headache, Paroxysmal, SUNCT

163
Q

what percentage of paroxysmal hemicrania have chronic attacks

A

80%

164
Q

paroxysmal hemicrania percentage of suferrers who are restless and agitatetd

A

50%

165
Q

what percentage of paroxysmal hemicrania attacks stimulated by bending/rotating the head

A

10%

166
Q

differential diagnosis for thunderclap headache

A

primary headache, subarachnoid, intercerebral haemorrhage, TIA/stroke, thrombosis, meningitis, pituitary apoplexy, intracranial hypotension

167
Q

what number of patients with a thunderclap headaches have a SAH

A

1 in 10

168
Q

CSF protein consituents (mg/l)

A

300

169
Q

glucose CSF constiuents mg/dl

A

40-80

170
Q

total volume of CSF

A

150ml

171
Q

congenital aetiology of hydrocephalus

A

chiari malformation
aqueductal stenosis
dandy-walker malformation

172
Q

acquired aetiology of hydrocephalus

A 
meningitis
post-haemorrhagic
neoplastic 
post op
cerebellar stroke 
post traumatic
173
Q

Perinaud’s syndrome signs

A

sunsetting
convergent nystagmus
eyelid retraction

174
Q

protein contents of CSF in meningitis

A

> 1g/l

175
Q

GCS <14 in what percentage of meningitis cases?

A

69%

176
Q

petechial skin rash is characteristic in what?

A

meningitis

177
Q

infective differential diagnosis in meningitis

A

bacterial, viral, fungal

178
Q

the inflammatory differential diagnosis for meningitis

A

sarcoidosis

179
Q

drug induced differential diagnosis for meningitis

A

NSAIDS, IVIG

180
Q

malignant differential diagnosis for meninigitis

A

metastatic, haematological

181
Q

bacterial causes of meningitis

A 
neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
182
Q

viral causes of meningitis

A

enteroviruses

183
Q

flu-like prodrome for encephalitis normally lasts for

A

4-10 days

184
Q

encephalitis differential diagnosis infective

A

viral

185
Q

encephalitis differential diagnosis inflammatory

A

limbic encephalitis, ADEM, anti VGKC, anti NMDA receptor

186
Q

encephalitis differential diagnosis metabolic

A

hepatic, uraemic, hyperglycaemic

187
Q

encephalitis differential diagnosis malignant

A

metastatic, paraneoplastic

188
Q

indications for a CT scan before a lumbar puncture

A 
focal neurological deficit 
new onset seizures
papilloedema 
abnormal level of consciousness GCS <10
severe immunocompromised state
189
Q

contraindictions for a lumbar puncture

A

focal symptoms suggesting a focal brain mass

reduced conscious levels suggests intracranial pressur

190
Q

herpes simplex virus remains latent where

A

trigeminal, or sacral gangl

191
Q

differential diagnosis for brain abcess and empyema

A

focal lesion, tumour

subdural haematoma

192
Q

streptococci in what percentage of cases in brain abscess

A

70%

193
Q

what percentage of brain abcesses contain anaerobes?

A

40-100%

194
Q

HIV indicator illnesses in the brain

A

cerebral toxoplasmosis
aseptic meningitis
primary cerebral lymphoma
cerebral abscess

cryptococcal meningitis
space occupying lesion
dementia
leucoencephalopathy

195
Q

brain infections in HIV patients with low CD4 counts

A 
cryptococcus neoformans
toxoplasma gondii
progressive multifocal leukonecephalopathy (PML)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
HIV encephalopathy (dementia)
196
Q

lyme disease caustive agent bacteria

A

spirochaete Borrelia Burgdorferi

197
Q

the early localised infection in stage 1 of Lyme disease lasts for

A

1-30 days

198
Q

what percentage of stage 1 lyme disease suffer from a flu like symptoms for a week?

A

50%

199
Q

polioviruses are all what group of viruses

A

enterovirsues

200
Q

syphilis causitive agent bacteria

A

Trepomena pallidum

201
Q

leptospirosis causitive agent bacteria

A

leptospira interrogans

202
Q

tetanus infective agent

A

clostridium tetani

203
Q

risus sardonicus stands for

A

tetanus rigidity and spams

204
Q

clostridium tetani in tetanus is what sort of bacteria

A

anaerobic gram positive bacillus, spore forming

205
Q

differential diagnosis to sporadic CJD

A

CNS vasculitis
inflammatory encephalopathies
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Alzheimer’s disease with myclonus

206
Q

Cornea layers

A

epithelium - stratified squamous non-keratinised
Bowman’s membrane
stroma
descemet’s lay

207
Q

chordoid consists of

A

fenestrated blood vessels of

208
Q

the lens if a … what structure

A

transparent crystalline biconvex

209
Q

the lens is suspended by what from the ciliary body

A

zonules

210
Q

out of the mucinous layer, aqueous layer and oily layer which one is the most superficial

A

oily

211
Q

ancilliary tests in loss of vision are

A

Amsler chart, visual field assessment, flurescein angiography, optical coher and colour vision

212
Q

what percentage of age related macular degeneration is dry AMD

A

90%

213
Q

anterograde amnesia refers to

A

cannot form new memories

214
Q

retrograde amnesia refers to

A

cannot access old memories

215
Q

long term potentiation refers to

A

increased amplitude in graded membrane potential in post synaptic cells inolved in long

216
Q

declarative or explicit memory

A

abstract memory, episodic, semantic

217
Q

procedural, reflexive, implicit memories

A

acquired through repetition, motor skills in the cerebellum

218
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome refers to

A

vitamin B1 deficiency leading to damage in the limbic system, ability to consolidate memory is impaired

219
Q

high level function of stragety is controlled by what structures

A

association neocortex, basal ganglion

220
Q

middle level function of tactics is controlled by what structures

A

motor cortex, cerebellum

221
Q

low level function of execution is performed by what structures

A

brainstem, spinal cord

222
Q

stragety to voluntary motor control refers to

A

movement to best achieve a goal

223
Q

tactics to voluntary motor control refers to

A

sequence of spatiotemporal muscle contractions to achieve goal

224
Q

execution to voluntary motor control refers to

A

activation of motor neuron and interneurone pools

225
Q

lateral pathways control which movements of which muscles

A

voluntary distal muscles

226
Q

ventromedial pathways control what

A

posture and locomotion

227
Q

lateral pathways are under what direct control?

A

direct cortical

228
Q

ventromedial apthways are under what control ?

A

brain stem

229
Q

2/3rd’s of the CST originate in which area’s of the frontal motor cortex

A

areas 4 and 6, rest is somatosensory

230
Q

rubrospinal tract originates where?

A

red nucelus of the midbrian

231
Q

vestibulospinal tract function is to

A

stabilise head and neck

232
Q

tectospinal tracts function is to

A

ensure eyes remain stable as body move

233
Q

the ventromedial pathways are the

A

pontine and medullary reticulospinal tracts

234
Q

Pre motor area connects which pathway neurones innervating proxismal motor untis

A

reticulospinal

235
Q

damahe to areas 5 and 7 result in

A

neglect to contralateral side to the damahe

236
Q

thinking about movement activates which area

A

area 6

237
Q

basal ganglia loop major subcortical input to area 6 comes from the

A

ventral lateral nucleus in Dorsal thalamus Vlo

238
Q

corticostriatal pathway is what sort of pathways

A

multiple parallel pathways with different functions

239
Q

the input zones of the basal ganglia are the

A

caudate and putamen

240
Q

what sort of neurones are in the putamen and caudate

A

medium spiny neurones

241
Q

medium spiny neurones in the putamen and caudate receive what sort of cortical inputs?

A

excitatory glutamatergic cortical inputs

242
Q

the axons in the basal ganglia, putamen and caudate are what sort?

A

inhibitory GABAergic and project to the globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata

243
Q

putamen fires before what movement?

A

limb and trunk movements

244
Q

the caudate fires before what movement?

A

eyes

245
Q

cortex to putamen pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory

A

excitatory

246
Q

putamen to globus pallidus pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory

A

inhibitory

247
Q

globus pallidus to VLo neurones pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory

A

inhibitory

248
Q

VLo back to SMA pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory

A

excitatory

249
Q

functional consequence of cortical activation of putamen is

A

excitation

250
Q

at rest globus pallidus neurones are spontaneously

A

active and inhibit VLo

251
Q

cortical excitation of the putamen results in a

A

positive feedback loop focussing on widespread activation of cortical area onto cortical SMA

252
Q

dopamine effects on cortical inputs (direct) and (indirect)

A

enhances direct, and suppresses indirect

253
Q

cerebellum contains what percentage of total CNS neurones

A

50%

254
Q

layer 5, areas 4,6 and somatosensory cortex are a part of which huge projection

A

cortico-ponto-cerebellar

255
Q

how many new cases of MS are in Aberdeen in each year?

A

50-60

256
Q

female male ratio pathogenesis

A

2-3:1

257
Q

80% of cases of MS present with what?

A

relapse

258
Q

differential optic neuritis

A 
neuromyelitis optica
sarcoidosis
ischaemic optic neuropathy
toxic /drugs/B12 deficiency
Wegener's granulomatosis
local compression
lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
infection borrelia
259
Q

differential for myelitis

A 
inflammation 
neuromyelitis optica
SLE
sarcoidosis
infection
tumour
paraneoplastic process
stroke
260
Q

differential diagnosis for MS

A 
acute disseminated encephalomyelitis 
auto immune conditions 
sarcoidosis
vasculitis
infection
adrenoleukodystrophy
261
Q

what percentage of MS is primary progressive

A

10-`15%

262
Q

relapsing remitting percentage of MS

A

85%

263
Q

what fraction of MS progression results in being wheelchair bound

A

1/4

264
Q

good prognostic indicators for MS

A

female
present with optic neuritis
long interval between 1-2
few relapses in 1st 5 years

265
Q

bad prognostic markers for MS

A

male
older age
multifocal symptoms and signs
motor symptoms and signs

266
Q

primary progressive MS presents in what decade

A

5th-6th decade

267
Q

Devic’s disease signs

(neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder

A

optic neuritis
myelitis
aquaporin-4 antibodies
antibody negative

268
Q

MS relapse often involves what percentage of infection?

A

25-30%

269
Q

side effects of disease modifying treatment

A 
flu
injection reaction
abnormalities of blood count and liver
not a cure
no effect on progression
270
Q

muscle disease classification congenital groups

A

structural
contractile
coupling
energy

271
Q

muscle disease classification congenital structural causes

A

muscular dystrophy

272
Q

muscle disease classification congenital contractile causes

A

congenital myopathy

273
Q

muscle disease classification congenital couplings causes

A

channelopathies

274
Q

muscle disease classification congenital energy causes

A

enzymes/mitochondria

275
Q

acquired muscles disease classification groups

A

metabolic
endocrine
inflammatory
iatrogenic

276
Q

acquired muscle disease classification metabolic metabolites causes

A

Ca, k

277
Q

acquired muscle disease classification iatrogenic medication causes

A

steroids, statins

278
Q

muscular dystrophies causes (condition names)

A 
Duchenne's
Becker's
facioscapulohumeral
myotonic dystrophy
limb-girdle
279
Q

channelopathy condition names

A 
familial hypokalemic periodic paralysis (CA, NA, K) 
hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (NA)
paramyotonia congenita(NA)
myotonia 
congenita (CL)
280
Q

generalised peripheral neuropathy causes

A

hereditary, metabolic, toxic drug, infectious lyme, HIV, leprosy, malignancy paraneoplastic, inflammatory

281
Q

acute generalised peripheral neuropathy is called

A

guillian barre syndrome

282
Q

chronic generalised peripheral neuropathy is called

A

chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

283
Q

prognosis percentage of mortality of motor neurone disease

A

50% within 14 months

284
Q

groups of neurotransmitters

A

acetylcholine, monoamines, amino acids, purines, neuropeptides, NO

285
Q

monoamines neurotransmitters

A

noradrenaline
dopamine
serotonin

286
Q

amino acid neurotransmitters

A

glutamate
GABA
glycine

287
Q

purine neurotransmitters

A

ATP

adenosine

288
Q

neuropeptide neurotransmitters

A

endorphins
CCK
substance P

289
Q

dopamine receptor is

A

adenylate cyclase metabotropic

290
Q

dopamine is broken down into

A

homovanillic acid

291
Q

nociception is conducted along which fibers

A

A-delta

C - fibers

292
Q

descending pain pathway is through the

A

periaqueductal grey

293
Q

allodynia refers to

A

decreased threshold for response

294
Q

hyperalgesia refers to

A

exaggerated response to normal and supranormal stimuli

295
Q

neuropathic pain is initiated by dysfunction where

A

somatosensory nervous system

296
Q

indications for CT

A

head trauma, stroke, thunderclap headache, cancer, hydrocephalus, haemorrhage

297
Q

indications for MRI

A

demyelination, CNS tumours, spine, TIA, epilepsy, paediatric neurology, headache

298
Q

contraindications for a MRI scan

A

cardiac pacemakers, metallic implants, claustrophobia, pregnancy, tattoos

299
Q

PET scans are used for

A

tumour, inflammation and infection glucose metabolism

300
Q

uncal herniation is caused by

A

cerebrum moves inferiorly over edge of tentorium

301
Q

metastatic intracranial tumour sources

A

breast, lung, kidney, colon, melanoma

302
Q

adults CNS tumour occur above

A

tentorium

303
Q

children CNS tumour occur below

A

tentorium

304
Q

Glioma characteristics

A

disuse edges

no metastatic

305
Q

meningioma arise from what cells

A

arachnocytes

306
Q

CNS lymphoma is normally what type of cell

A

diffuse large B cell lymphoma

307
Q

CNS lymphoma is an example of what neoplasm

A

high grade

308
Q

hypotension results in what sort of pattern of interrupted blood supply

A

watershed infarction

309
Q

cardiac arrest results in what sort of pattern interrupted blood supply

A

cortical infarction

310
Q

what number of 100,00 die from head injuries

A

10

311
Q

secondary injuries of head injury

A

hypotension
hypoxia
infection
haematoma

312
Q

complications of a head injury

A 
disability
epilepsy
infection
psychiatric illness 
haemorrhage
dementia
fatality
313
Q

skull fracture types

A 
linear
depressed
fragmented mosaic
ring
contre coup
314
Q

ring fractures are caused by and result in

A

foramen magnum ring from a fall by height

315
Q

service definition of rehabilitation

A

use of all means to minimise the impact of disabling conditions and to assist people with activity limitation to achieve their desired level of autonomy and participation in society

316
Q

A beta fibres are what sort of fibres

A

large myelinated

317
Q

speed of large myelinated A beta fibres (m/s)

A

30-70

318
Q

large myelinated A beta fibres functions

A

touch, pressure, vibration

319
Q

A delta fibres are what sort of fibres

A

small myelinated

320
Q

speed of A delta small fibres myelinated (m/s)

A

5-30

321
Q

A delta small fibres myelinated functions

A

cold “fast”, pain, pressure

322
Q

C fibres are what sort of fibres

A

unmyelinated fibres

323
Q

C fibres unmyelinated speeds (m/s)

A

0.5-2

324
Q

C fibres unmyelinated functions

A

slow, pain

325
Q

proprioception is mediated by

A

A alpha and A beta

326
Q

A alpha and A beta fibres are what class of sensory fibres

A

mechanoreceptive

327
Q

A delta and C fibres are what kind of fibres

A

thermoreceptive, nociceptive

328
Q

signal transduction in nociception is activated by

A

low pH, heat, local chemical mediators; bradykinin, histamine, prostaglandins

329
Q

two internal carotid arteries enter the skull through

A

carotid canal (foramen Lacerum)

330
Q

medulla oblongata surface features

A

pyramids and decussation
olives laterally
connected to cerebellum by inferior cerebral peduncle CN; 9, 10, 11, 12

331
Q

medulla white tracts

A

pyramidal, medial lemniscus, inferior cerebellar peduncle

332
Q

medulla grey matter

A 
cranial n nuclei and inferior olivary nucleus
nuclei of reticular formation (vital)
sensory nuclei (gracile and cuneate)
333
Q

Pons surface features

A

middle cerebellar peduncle

CN; 5, 6, 7, 8

334
Q

pons section white matter

A

middle cerebellar peduncle
medial lemniscus sensory
pyramidal tract (motor)

335
Q

pons grey matter

A

cranial n. nuclei
pontine nuclei
nucelii of reticular formation

336
Q

midbrain surface features

A

cerebral peduncle
superior cerebellar peduncle
copora quadrigemina (S+I colliculus)
CN 4 +3

337
Q

midbrain grey matter and nucleus for which CN

A

periaqueductal and 3 + 4

338
Q

3 semi circular canals connect to the

A

saccule

339
Q

otolith organs are

A

utricle and saccule

340
Q

at the base of the bony canals, the ampulla contains what sensory receptors

A

crista

341
Q

the cristae , the sensory receptors in the ampulla contains a gelatinous flexible structure called

A

cupula

342
Q

the larger cilia hair cells are called

A

kinocilium

343
Q

smaller hair cilia cells are called

A

stereocilia

344
Q

distortion of the cilia away from the kinocilium leads to

A

hyperpolarisation

345
Q

sensory apparatus of the utricle and saccule are known as

A

maculae

346
Q

the maculae on the utricle is orientated on what plane?

A

horizontal

347
Q

the maculae on the saccule is located on what plane?

A

vertical plane

348
Q

vestibular system reflexes

A

tonic labyrinthine reflexes - head to body
dynamic righting reflexes - rapid postural adjustment

vestibulo-ocular reflexes

349
Q

types of vestibulo-ocular reflexes

A

static reflex

dynamic vestibular nystagmus

350
Q

COWS nystagmus

A

COLD OPPOSITE, WARM SAME

351
Q

kinetosis refers to

A

motion sickness

352
Q

rhodopsin is what sort of protein

A

integral transmembrane helical protein

353
Q

when light falls on retinal is isomerises into what

A

cis to trans

354
Q

chromophore resting in opsin is produced from what

A

vitamin A

355
Q

Bitot’s spots are a sign of what

A

vitamin A deficiency

356
Q

vitamin A deficiency leads to what in the cornea

A

corneal melting

357
Q

refractive errors

A

myopia
hyperopia
astigmatism
presbyopia

358
Q

myopia refers to

A

short sighted

359
Q

hyperopia refers to

A

long sighted

360
Q

astigmatism refers to

A

non-spherical curvature of cornea

361
Q

presbyopia refers to

A

long sightedness of age

362
Q

myopia requires what lenses

A

biconcave

363
Q

hyperopia requires what lenses

A

biconvex

364
Q

astigmatism requires what lenses

A

cylindrical glasses

365
Q

right optic nerve damaged

A

blindness in one eye

366
Q

optic chiasma disrupted in middle

A

bitemporal hemianopia

367
Q

right optic tract is damaged

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopia

368
Q

optic radiation is damaged

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopia

369
Q

LR abducts causes SR and IR to

A

SR elevates

IR depresses

370
Q

MR adducts causing Sr and IR to

A

SR intorsion

IR extorsion

371
Q

eyeball adduction SO and IO

A

SO depression

IO elevation

372
Q

eyeball abducted SO and IO

A

SO intorsion

IO extorsion

373
Q

RADSIN

A

Recti ADductors, Superiors, INtortors

374
Q

SO 123 actions

A

1 intorsion
2 depression
3 abduction

375
Q

IO 123 actions

A

1 extorsion
2 elevation
3 abduction

376
Q

IR 123 actions

A

1 depression
2 adduction
3 extorsion

377
Q

SR 123 actions

A

1 - elevation
2 adduction
3 intorsion

378
Q

MR action

A

adduction

379
Q

LR action

A

abduction

380
Q

amblyopia refers to

A

lazy eye

381
Q

diplopia refers to

A

double vision

382
Q

horner’s syndrome signs

A

ptosis
miosis
anhidrosis

neurology (6 decks)

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