Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pediatrics 2 > general 3 > Flashcards

general 3 Flashcards

1
Q

when should infant have regained birth weight

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how do you assess quality of feeds

A

weight gain

urine output

history –every 2-3 hours for 10-15 min per side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define lethargy

A

level of consciousness characterized by poor or absent eye movements or as failure of a child to recognize parents or to interact with persons or objects in the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does a large fontanelle suggest?

A

skeletal disorders (rickets, osteogenesis imperfecta)

chromosomal abnormalities (trisomy 21)

hypothyroid

malnutrition

increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does a small fontanelle suggest?

A

premature closure or just small

microcephaly

craniosynostosis

hyperthyroid

normal variant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does a sunken fontanelle suggest

A

dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does a bulging fontanelle suggest

A

increased ICP (meningitis, hydrocephals, subdural heatoma, lead poisoning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the most common cause of congenital hypothyroid in the US?

A

some form of thyroid dysgenesis i.e–

aplasia
hypoplasia
ectopic gland (2/3 of thyroid dysgenesis)
———–
in mothers with autoimmune thyroiditis, transplacental passage of thyrotropin-receptor-blocking antibody is associated with transient hypothyroid

infants born to mothers treated for graves can have transient hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most common cause of hypothyroid at birth worldwide

A

iodine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which is more common in neonates–primary or secondary hypothyroid

A

primary (95%)
–hypothalamic-pituitary axis is functioning and thus TSH is high

secondary or tertiary hypothyroid happen at the level of the pituitary or hypothalamus and these are more rare–> low TSH and low T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how does congenital hypothyroid present

A

normal at birth because protected by maternal hormone –> may be several months before infants with CH show classic signs of hypothyroid

  1. feeding problems
  2. decreased activity
  3. constipation
  4. prolonged jaundice
  5. skin mottling
  6. umbilical hernia

if untreated–
large tongue
hoarse cry
puffy myxedematous facies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is one of the most common preventable causes of intellectual disability

A

congenital hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment of congenital hypothyroid

A

levothyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ddx for lethargy in two week old infant

A

infection

intracranial pathology (hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, hydraencephaly)

metabolic disorder

chromosomal abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ddx for neonate with poor feeding and decreased activity

A
  1. congenital hypothyroid
  2. shaken baby syndrome
  3. down syndrome
  4. sepsis
  5. CAH
  6. inborn error of metabolism
  7. hypoglycemia
  8. botulism
  9. hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
  10. polycythemia
  11. hyperbilirubinemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

risk factors for shaken baby syndrome

A

young/single parents

significant stressors in the home

lower education level

history of seizures or irritability raises suspicion for this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why do downs syndrome patients feed poorly

A

hypotonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how does salt losing CAH present

A

lethargy, vomiting, dehydration that can progress to shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what happens if you dont treat inborn errors or metabolism

A

progressive encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what tests do you order in the infant with hypotonia

A
  1. serum sodium and potassium (CAH–low sodium and high potassium)
  2. serum ammonia (many inborn errors of metabolism; normal in congenital hypothyroid)
  3. glucose (critical)
  4. T4, TSH (thyroid disorders)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does low sodium and high potassium suggest in the the hypotonic infant

A

CAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

signs of meningitis in less than 1 year old

A

often DONT have kernigs or brudzinskis sign

fever
hypothermia
bulging fontanelles
lethargy
irritability
restlessness
paroxysmal crying (crying when picked up)
poor feeding
vomiting
diarrhea
nucchal rigidity (extreme--hyperextension of entire spine--"opisthotonos")

*if have kernigs or brudzinskis must assume meningitis and do LP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what bug most often causes occult bacteremia in infants

A

strep pneumo (lower now because of vaccination)

also can be Hib, N. meningitidis and salmonella enteriditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

kernigs sign

A

resistance to extension of the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

brudzinskis sign

A

flexion of hip and knee in response to flexion of neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ddx of infant with fever

A

UTI

pneumonia

sepsis/bacteremia

occult bacteremia

bacterial meningitis

viral meningitis

roseola

primary HSV gingivostomatitis

otitis media

vaccine reacion

viral URTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does UTI usually present in kids

A

fever and no focus on physical exam and unremarkable ROS

fussiness and lack of appetite are common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

risks for UTI

A

uncircumcised male under 6 months

any female under 24 months

signs or symptoms pointing towards UTI (suprapubic tenderness, history of UTI, foul smelling urine)

temp above 39C or fever more than 24 hours without source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how do most kids with pna present

A 
cough
tachypnea
fever
rales
low Sa02
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most common cause of bacterial meningitis in babies?

A

s. pneumo and n. meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what commonly causes viral meningitis

A

enterovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is roseola

A

common viral illness in kids under 2

caused by human herpes virus 6

high fever often only symptoms in first few days of illness…. 3-5 days

some develop rash as fever resolves–1-4 days

no therapy needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what population is most common for primary herpes simplex gingivostomatitis

A

10 months to 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what do you see on exam for otitis media

A

poor mobility and mild bulging (or more) of tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

best choice oral abx for pyelonephritis

A

cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

stages of pertussis

A
  1. catarrhal stage–1-2 week, URTI sx
  2. paroxysmal stage–4-6 weeks–repetitive, forceful coughing episodes followed by massive inspiratory effort–characteristic whoop (not usually in infants)
  3. convalescent stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

complications of pertussis in the infant

A

difficulty feeding because of cough

CNS complications like apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what type of vaccine is pertussis

A

acellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

vaccine efficacy for pertussis

A

70-90%…wanes with time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is epiglottitis

A

uncommon thanks to widespread immunization but important to consider in child with stridor

life threatening

most common between ages 2-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what organism causes epiglotittis

A

Hib previously–now more commonly staph or step because of immunizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

signs and symptoms epiglottitis

A

fever

stridor

drooling

dysphonia

dysphagia

respiratory distress

*most will appear toxic and may position airway in sniffing position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

should you examine the child who you suspect has epiglottitis?

A

no because risk acute deterioration–get airway management team involved in the OR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what sign is seen on radiography for epiglottitis

A

thumb sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is diagnostic of diphtheria

A

gray pseunomembrane in pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what causes stridor

A

airway narrowing above thoracic inlet

usually heard with inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what causes wheezing

A

airway narrowing below the thoracic inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is pneumonia

A

inflammation of lung parenchyma usualyl due to microorganisms or asporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the four most common viral causes of pneumonia

A

adenovirus
RSV
parainfluenza
influenza

*viral more common in kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how does pneumonia due to chlamydia pneumoniae present

A

staccato cough between 4-12 weeks of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the most common cause of wheeze in infants

A

bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is acute bronchiolitis

A

viral disease of lower respiratory tract

characterized by bronchiolar obstruction due to edema, mucus and cellular debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

most common cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

bronchiolitis on CXR

A

hyperinflation

increased interstitial markings

peribronchial cuffing

scattered atelectasis from bronchial obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

asthma on CXR

A

hyperinflation from air trapping

increased interstitial markings

patchy atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

most commonly aspirated foods

A

hot dogs

hard candy

nuts

grapes

popcorn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what normally causes croup

A

parainfluenza or another virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how does croup present

A

nonspecific URTI sx that progress to some degree of airway obstruction

barky cough and/or respiratory stridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what does a hoarse voice or cry suggest

A

problem in the upper airway–pharynx or larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what part of the physical exam makes foreign body aspiration most likely

A

asymmetric wheezing

fixed hyperinflation of the affected lung on radiographc

61
Q

list the possible causes of petechiae and purpura

A
  1. trauma
  2. platelet deficiency or dysfunction (immune mediated thrombocytopenia, BM infiltration or suppression, malignancy)
  3. coagulation abnormalities (hereditary or acquired clotting factor deficiencies)
  4. vascular fragility (immune mediated vasculitis
  5. combinations of the above(i.e infection causing coag abnormalities, vascular fragility, platelet consumption)
62
Q

what 5 factors should be considered in evaluating a skin lesion

A

type

arrangement

location

pattern of distribution

progression over time

63
Q

what are the possible ways to describe the following aspect of a skin lesion:
type

A
  1. shape (macules, papules, plaques, wheals, vesicles, pustules, nodules, cysts)
  2. size
  3. consistency (rubbery, fluctuant)
  4. colour
  5. secondary features (scaling, crusting, lichenification, excoriation, hypopigmentation)
64
Q

what are the possible ways to describe the following aspect of a skin lesion:
arrangement

A 
symmetric
scattered
clustered
linear
confluent
discrete
65
Q

what are the possible ways to describe the following aspect of a skin lesion:
location

A

scalp
trunk
extremities
sparing or including palms and soles

66
Q

what are the possible ways to describe the following aspect of a skin lesion:
pattern of distribution

A

flexor surfaces

sun exposed skin

dependent areas

67
Q

what are the possible ways to describe the following aspect of a skin lesion:
progression over time

A

i.e….

spreading head to toe or peripheral to central

changing from papules to vesicles to crusts

68
Q

what are some causes of hepatomegaly (generally)

A

inflammation (i.e viral hepatitis)

infiltration (leukemia/lymphoma)

accumulation of storage products (glycogen storage disease)

congestion (CHF)

obstruction (biliary atresia)

69
Q

what is henoch-schonlein purpura

A

HSP (aka anaphylactoid purpura)

self-limited, IgA mediated small vessel vasculitis

typically involves the skin, GI tract, joints, kidneys

70
Q

what immunoglobulin mediates HSP

A

IgA

71
Q

what organs are often involved in HSP

A

skin

GI tract

joints

kidneys

72
Q

what is the most commonly dx vasculitis in kids

A

HSP

73
Q

what is the hallmark of HSP

A

non-thrombocytopenic purpura

74
Q

what % of kids with HSP have renal involvement

A

30%

75
Q

what is the most common manifestation of renal involvement in HSP

A

hematuria

renal involvement is less common in kids under two

76
Q

what % of kids with HSP experience arthralgia or arthritis

A

75%

mainly knees and ankles

77
Q

what % of kids with HSP have colicky abdo pain

A

65%

about 50% may develop intestinal bleeding with guiaic positive stool

78
Q

what % of patients with HSP report a recent URTI

A

2/3

79
Q

what % of kids with HSP progress to renal failure

A

5%

fewer than 1% will develop end stage renal disease

80
Q

is HSP serious/severe?

A

it is considered a benign childhood disease but occasionally requires hospitalization for management of severe abdo pain, GI bleeding, intussusception and renal involvement

81
Q

how do you treat HSP

A

steroid treatment controversial but data suggests early corticosteroids in hospitalized kids with HSP may have benefit in reducing GI manifestations

no demonstrated benefit for corticosteroids for preventing renal problems

82
Q

what is ITP

A

caused by binding of an antiplatelet antibody to the platelet surface, leading to removal and destruction of platelets by the spleen and liver

83
Q

what is the most common cause od isolated thrombocytopenia in otherwise healthy kids

A

ITP

84
Q

where is the rash of HSP usually located

A

unique in that it tends to involve primarily the lower extremities

85
Q

how can HSP sometimes present

A

arthritis or arthralgia

86
Q

is HSP associated with splenomegaly

A

no

87
Q

is ITP associated with splenomegaly

A

no

88
Q

what are some common findings with leukemia

A

splenomegaly and lympohadenopathy

89
Q

how does a coagulation disorder usually present

A

may present with petechiae or superficial bruising but more often presents with easy bruising in deep tissues or hemarthrosis

90
Q

how do bleeding disorders often present

A

i.e hemophilias or vWD

easy bruising in response to minor trauma

spontaneous superficial bruising is less common

91
Q

how may hemophilias present

A

painful bleeding into joints (hemarthrosis)

92
Q

how does ITP often present

A

asymptomatic petechiae

non specific URTI precedes ITP more than 50% of then time

93
Q

how does leukemia usually present

A

constitutional symptoms such as fever, malaise, weight loss

bone pain common presentation –> pain from infiltration of bone marrow by malignant cells

petechiae can be caused by thrombocytopenia due to bone marrow replacement by malignant cells

94
Q

what virus can present with pretechial rash

A

i.e enteroviruses

kids usually have low grade fever

95
Q

can coughing or vomiting cause petechiae

A

yes–usually above the nipple line

96
Q

what are the typical presenting sx of bacterial endocarditis

A

fever, fatigue, weight loss

petechial rash commonly seen

bruising not characteristic

fever usually present but may be low grade

97
Q

how do kids with meningococcal septicemia often present

A

petechiae and purpura

early stages may have only mild sx–by the time the hemorrhagic rash appears, patients are usually very ill appearing and require emergent care

98
Q

describe the presentation of rocky mountain spotted fever

A

petechial–starts on EXTREMITIES before MOVING CENTRALLY

fever is hallmark

99
Q

what things should you look for on exam of lymph nodes

A 
size
location
distribution
texture
mobility
100
Q

what do you think in a child with supraclavicular lymph nodes

A

lymphoma

101
Q

what causes diffuse LAD

A

generalized infection
malignancy
storage diseases
chronic inflamm disease

102
Q

describe normal lymph node texture

A

smooth
soft to mildly firm
non tender
mobile

103
Q

what test should you do to decide between HSP and ITP

A

platelet count

i.e HSP is non thrombocytopenic and ITP is thrombocytopenic

HSP has normal platelets

104
Q

what tests should you do to evaluate HSP

A

platelet count

urinalysis–> renal involvement

BUN and creatinine–> if either hematuria or proteinuria are present, to check extent of renal disease

105
Q

are ESR and ANA helpful in diagnosis of HSP

A

no, too non specific

106
Q

list the causes of spenomegaly

A
  1. infection–EBV, CMV, bacterial sepsis, endocarditis
  2. hemolysis–sickle cell
  3. malignancy–leukemia, lymphoma
  4. storage diseases–gaucher disease
  5. systemic inflamm disease–SLE, JIA
  6. congestion–complication of portal HTN
107
Q

what is the most frequent cause of splenomegaly in kids

A

infection

108
Q

do more girls or boys get HSP? ITP?

A

HSP–more boys

ITP–same

109
Q

where is the rash in HSP

A

may begin as erythematous macules or urticarial wheals that evolve to petechiae and PALPABLE PURPURA

rash symmetrically distributed to gravity dependent or pressure sensitive areas–> lower extremities, elbows

younger patients are more likely to have involvement of the face or upper extremities

110
Q

what % of kids with ITP develop severe epistaxis or other mucous membrane hemorrhage

A

3%

111
Q

what is the most concerning complication of ITP and how common is it

A

intracranial hemorrhage

0.1-0.5% of cases

112
Q

what is the recurrence rate of HSP

A

about 30%

113
Q

tx of ITP

A

options:

observation

oral corticosteroids

IVIg

anti-D immunoglobin (rhogam)

114
Q

how long does HSP usually last

A

about a month and goes away on its own without tx

115
Q

how does intussucseption appear on abdo xray

A

abdo mass with a central ring of hypoattenuation –> corresponds to mesenteric fat in the intussuscpetum

116
Q

what is the most common form of bowel obstruction in kids between ages 6 months and 6 years

A

intussusception

80% occur in kids under 2, boys more than girl

117
Q

why does intussusception happen

A

occurs when proximal segment of bowel invaginates into the distal segment adjacent

accompanying mesentary becomes entrapped, causing vascular compression and eventual ischemia

118
Q

how does intussusception usually present

A
  1. paroxysms of severe abdo pain with inconsolable crying
  2. passage of “currant jelly” stool containing blood and mucus
  3. palpation of a “sausage shaped” mass in the right abdomen

minority of patients present with this classic triad–> you need high index of suspicion for diagnosis (may also have vomiting, lethargy, toxic appearance)

119
Q

what should you think if kid is passing “currant jelly” stool

A

intussusception

120
Q

how do you usually treat intussusception

A

air or barium enema

in HSP, it is usually ileo-ileal rather than ileo-colic and thus will not be reduced by air or barium enema–> dx requires abdo US and tx is usually surgical

121
Q

most common cause of vomiting and diarrhea in kids

A

viral gastroenteritis –> primary concern is dehydration

122
Q

what would severe or localized abdo pain in the setting of vomiting or diarrhea suggest

A

more serious condition than viral gastroenteritis

123
Q

what are the most reliable questions to ask when assessing hydration status by phone

A

childs level of activity

kids ability or desire to take fluids by mouth

dont ask parents to do physical exam by phone

124
Q

what is the most accurate method of determining the patients degree of dehydration?

A

subtract the patients current weight from his or her weight immediately prior to the illness

presume that weight lost is water lost (weight loss in grams equal to water loss in mL…weight loss in kg is water loss in L)

convert to percent dehydration–> total euvolemic body weight lost as water

125
Q

what are some things on physical exam that tell you a kids dehydration status

A

weight
vital signs
HEENT exam–fontanel, sunken eyes, mucous membranes)
skin turgor, temp, character of perfusion
mental status/level of activity

126
Q

how do you treat mild to moderate dehydration

A

(5-9%)

oral or enteral rehydration using appropriate oral rehydration solution

50-100mL/kg of ORS over 2-4 hours

10mL/kg ORS for each additional diarrheal stool

2mL/kg ORS for each additional emesis

127
Q

treatment for moderate to severe dehydration

A

(10-15%)

initial hydration should be via IV bolus using isotonic, non dextrose containing solution (NS or lactated Ringers)

20mL/kg IV bolus

repeat bolus after re-evaluation until the patient is clinically improved (awake, altert, well perfused, interested in and tolerating oral fluids, urine output is present)

often 60-100mL/kg total of bolus fluid is required

can then switch to oral

128
Q

what is ORS

A

contains glucose and electrolytes

is as effective, safer and cheaper than IV fluid for mild-mod dehydration

can be used effectively even when there is still some vomiting

129
Q

what is GER

A

regurgitation/spitting up may be difficult to distinguish from true vomiting

infants who reflux with overfeeding may sometimes have forceful vomiting

severe esophagitis may result in blood streaked emesis

pain from reflux or esophagitis may lead to feeding aversion when GER is severe

infant who is dehydrated from severe reflux may also have FTT

130
Q

what is the hallmark of infectious gastroenteritis

A

large watery stool

“enteritis” is not truly present if diarrhea is not present

131
Q

would you expect to see bilious emesis in gastroenteritis or GI tract obstruction above the ligament of Treitz?

A

no (small amounts of bile may accompany repetitive vomiting)

132
Q

does intestinal malrotation always cause symptoms?

A

no

malrotation can be present without volvulus (twisting of intestine causing obstruction)

however–malrotation may result in volvulus and result in vomiting and other signs of obstruction

133
Q

what type of emesis is common in malrotation/volvulus

A

bilious emesis (if below ligament of treitz)

134
Q

what causes the pain assoc with volvulus

A

bowel ischemia

135
Q

how may kids with malrotation/volvulus present

A

may present in shock which makes dx difficult

136
Q

what should be considered in kids with recurrent emesis

A

inborn error of metabolism

137
Q

what is pyloric stenosis and how does it present

A

escalating pattern of forceful/projectile, non-bilious vomiting

bilious emesis not typical because obstruction is above ligament of treitz

138
Q

what is the hallmark of pyloric stenosis

A

escalating pattern of forceful/projectile, non-bilious vomiting

also presence of hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with dehydration

139
Q

how does pyloric stenosis affect appetite

A

kids often have a vigorous appetite until late in the course

140
Q

how do kids with pyloric stenosis often present

A

mild to moderate dehydration due to persistent vomiting

141
Q

if you see also presence of hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with dehydration in the context of forceful vomiting, what should you consider

A

pyloric stenosis

142
Q

why might you see bloody emesis in pyloric stenosis

A

mallory weiss tear

143
Q

what might you observe in the abdominal exam of a kid with pyloric stenosis

A

visible peristaltic wave especially just after eating

144
Q

what is the physical exam finding on palpation suggestive of pyloric stenosis

A

palpable “olive” (the hypertrophic pyloric muscle) in the epigastric region (not uniformly perceptible)

145
Q

what CNS diseases may cause vomiting

A

hydrocephalus
intracranial neoplasm
trauma

146
Q

what cause of vomiting must you always consider, especially in the absence of fever or diarrhea

A

CNS diseases

147
Q

how do you work up pyloric stenosis

A

pyloric US–> study of choice

if US unavailable–> upper GI contract study–> “string sign” of very narrow pyloric channel

electrolyte studies–> often associated with electrolyte abnormalities because of loss of stomach fluid and inadequate fluid intake

148
Q

what should you consider in a vomiting infant and no other localizing symptoms

A

UTI

Pediatrics 2 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions