Gene expression Flashcards

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1
Q

What are stem cells?

A
  • Unspecialised cells
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2
Q

What are totipotent cells?

A
  • Stem cells that differentiate into any type of specialised cells
  • Can form placental cells
  • Exist for a limited time
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3
Q

Where are totipotent cells found?

A
  • Very early stages of embryos
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4
Q

What are pluripotent cells?

A
  • Stem cells that can differentiate into many types of specialised cells
  • But can’t form placental cells
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5
Q

Where are pluripotent cells found?

A
  • Embryos
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6
Q

What can pluripotent cells be used for?

A

-Treating different human disorders

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7
Q

What are multipotent cells?

A
  • Stem cells that differentiate into a few types of specialised cells
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8
Q

Where a multipotent cells found?

A
  • Bone marrow of mature mammals
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9
Q

What are unipotent cells?

A
  • Stem cells that differentiate into one type of specialised cell
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10
Q

Where are unipotent cells found?

A
  • Mature mammals
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11
Q

What happens when a gene is expressed?

A
  • It is transcribed into mRNA and translated into a protein
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12
Q

3 main sources of stem cells

A
  • Adult bone marrow
  • Embryos
  • iPS - induced pluripotent stem cells
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13
Q

What are the benefits of using stem cells in disease?

A
  • Reduce preventable deaths

- Used to treat conditions that decrease the quality of life

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14
Q

What are the disadvantages of using stem cells?

A
  • Obtaining them from embryos is controversial (ethical)

- Using embryo stem cells is depriving an embryo of life

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15
Q

Where are iPS produced from?

A
  • Specialised adult somatic cell
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16
Q

How are iPS cells produced?

A
  • Somatic cells are converted to iPS cells by activating genes using transcription factors
  • Somatic cells then become unspecialised
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17
Q

What are bone marrow transplants used for?

A
  • To treat blood and immune disorders
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18
Q

Name a benefit of development biology?

A
  • Can inform us why organs fail or have abnormalities
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19
Q

What is a frameshift?

A
  • When bases are inserted, duplicated or removed into the genome
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20
Q

Advantage of using iPS then transplanting bone marrow?

A
  • As it is generated from the same patient, it will have the same molecular markers
  • It will not be rejected by the immune system as it is not recognised as foreign
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21
Q

What are transcription factors?

A
  • A protein that control gene expression by stimulating or inhibiting the transcription of target gene
22
Q

Where are transcription factors produced?

A
  • Cytoplasm before moving to the nucleus
23
Q

What are activators?

A
  • Transcription factors that stimulate gene expression

- They interact with RNA polymerase and allowing it to bind to DNA

24
Q

What are repressors?

A
  • Transcription factors that inhibit gene expression

- Stop RNA polymerase from binding to DNA

25
Q

How does oestrogen react with DNA?

A
  • Oestrogen enters the cytoplasm as it is lipid soluble
  • It binds to receptors on transcription factors causing them to change shape
  • Transcription factors form a receptor-hormone complex that enters the nucleus
  • Receptor-hormone complex binds to promoter region of DNA
  • This activates transcription, stimulating protein synthesis
26
Q

What is chromatin?

A
  • A combination of DNA and histones
27
Q

What is an epigenome?

A
  • A chemical layer that surrounds the chromatin
28
Q

How does the epigenome affect the chromatin

A
  • Makes it more condensed - preventing transcription factors from binding, inhibiting transcription
  • Makes it less condensed - easier access for transcription factors, promoting transcription
29
Q

What are epigenetic markers?

A
  • A group that does not alter the base sequence but influences the chromatin’s structure
  • Eg, Methyl or Acetyl groups
30
Q

How does increased methylation inhibit transcription?

A
  • Methyl groups bind to CpG site on DNA causing the chromatids to condense
  • So transcription factors can’t reach DNA
31
Q

How does decreased acetylation inhibit transcription?

A
  • Acetyl groups are removed from histones
  • Increasing the positive charge on histones, increasing attraction with phosphate groups in DNA
  • Causing the chromatin’s to condense
  • So transcription factors cannot bind
32
Q

What is abnormal methylation?

A
  • When methylation is not regulated, leading to uncontrollable cell division
  • Which can disease
33
Q

What is a tumour suppressor gene?

A
  • Prevent cell division
34
Q

What happens is methylation is increased too much

A
  • It can decrease the expression of the tumour suppressor gene
  • So cells divide uncontrollably and tumours are produced
35
Q

What happens if methylation is decreased too much?

A
  • It can increase the expression of proto-oncogenes

- So cells divide uncontrollably leading to the formation of a tumour

36
Q

What is a proto-oncogene?

A
  • It promotes cell division
37
Q

What is translation?

A
  • A process where proteins are synthesised using genetic code
38
Q

What is RNAi?

A
  • A small molecule of double-stranded RNA

- It interferes with mRNA by breaking it down, so it cannot be translated

39
Q

What is siRNA?

A
  • A type of RNAi that is complementary to the mRNA sequence it inhibits
  • It targets a specific region on the mRNA before breaking it down into smaller fragments which are degraded
40
Q

What is miRNA?

A
  • It is not fully complementary to the mRNA sequence
  • It can target multiple sequences
  • After it binds, the mRNA is either degraded or stored
41
Q

How can gene expression be measured?

A
  • Through microarrays
42
Q

What are microarrays?

A
  • A way of studying the extent in which certain genes are expressed in a cell
43
Q

What is benign tumour?

A
  • Not cancerous
  • They divide uncontrollably but do not spread to other tissues
  • But can develop into malignant tumours
44
Q

What are malignant tumours?

A
  • Cancerous
  • Cells divide uncontrollably and spread to other tissues
  • Can be life threatening and grow rapidly
45
Q

What hormone is associated with breast cancer?

A
  • High levels of oestrogen
46
Q

What environmental factors are associated with cancer?

A
  • Exposure to radiation
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol consumption
  • Diet high in fat
47
Q

What is correlation?

A
  • A relationship between 2 different variables
48
Q

What determines the intensity of treatment required?

A
  • Type of mutation
49
Q

What is an inversion mutation?

A
  • Where the order of bases in the DNA sequence are reversed
50
Q

What are translocation mutations?

A
  • Where a section of the DNA sequence is moved to another section of the DNA sequence
51
Q

What can cause mutation?

A
  • Mutagenic agents

- An error in DNA replication