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GENETICS > GEN EXAM 2 QUIZZES > Flashcards

GEN EXAM 2 QUIZZES Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equation

A. The population is large
B. There is nonrandom mating
C. There is no mutation in the gene being studied
D. There is no migration into or out of the population
E. There is no selection against a given genotype

A

B. There is nonrandom mating

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2
Q

The formula p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 is associated with which of the following

A. calculations of heterozygosity
B. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C. calculations of recombination frequencies
D. degrees of freedom
E. None of these choice are correct

A

B. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

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3
Q

Given a population of 1,000 individuals what is the average number of generations it will take to fix a new mutation assuming no selection for or against the new mutation?

A. 4,000
B. 100,000
C. 1,000
D. 25,000

A

A. 4,000

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4
Q

What is the probability of fixation of a gene in a population of 30 individuals (assume no selection for or against a mutation)?

A. 3.3%
B. 3%
C. 0.167%
D 1.67%

A

D 1.67%

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5
Q

Given the allele frequency for a gene in population A is 0.3 and the frequency for the same alleles in population B is 0.5 and that 25 individuals from A migrate to and mate randomly with the 475 individuals in population B, what is the new allele frequency (P_C) in the conglomerate?

A. 0.2
B. 0.49
C. 0.052
D. 0.8

A

B. 0.49

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6
Q

Consider a hypothetical gene B for which there are two alleles in the population. For every ten BB individuals that survive, six Bb individuals survive, and one bb individual survives. What are the relative fitness values for each genotype?

A. wB = 26; wb = 7
B. wBB = 0.59; wBb = 0.35; wbb = 1.0
C. wBB = 100; wBb = 0.6; wbb = 0.01
D. wBB = 1.0; wBb = 0.6; wbb = 0.1

A

D. wBB = 1.0; wBb = 0.6; wbb = 0.1

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7
Q

The prevalence of the allele for sickle cell anemia in some populations is an example of which of the following?

A. balancing selection
B. non-Darwinian selection
C. nonrandom mating
D. heterogenous environments
E. inverted selection

A

A. balancing selection

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8
Q

The term for the mating for two genetically unrelated individuals is

A. disassortative mating
B. inbreeding
C. outbreeding
D. assertive mating

A

C. outbreeding

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9
Q

Microevolution is defined as

A. changes in gene flow from one generation to the next
B. morphological changes that occur from one generation to the next
C. changes in the gene pool from one generation to the next
D. the ability of different genotypes to succeed in a particular environment

A

C. changes in the gene pool from one generation to the next

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10
Q

You are preparing to perform DNA fingerprinting by PCR for the first time. Select the reagent that would result in complications in the interpretation of your results.

A. PCR primers that anneal to regions flanking the microsatellites
B. Taq polymerase
C. Human DNA
D. PCR primers that anneal to the repetitive region of the microsatellites

A

D. PCR primers that anneal to the repetitive region of the microsatellites

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11
Q

Heritability may be calculated as which of the following?

A. the total variance minus environmental variance
B. total variance minus genetic variance
C. genetic variance divided by environmental science
D. genetic variance divided by total variance
E. None of these choices

A

D. genetic variance divided by total variance

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12
Q

Calculate the narrow sense heritability for a grandparent-grandchild relationship when the observed correlation coefficient is 0.2.

A. 0.8
B. 2.5
C. 0.4
D. 1.25

A

A. 0.8

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13
Q

What must be true regarding the strains of organisms used to construct a QTL map?
A. they must differ for the quantitative trait
B. they must differ for the molecular markers
C. both of these choice must be true

A

C. both of these choice must be true

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14
Q

Which of the following steps is NOT used in conducting a backcross in order to map a QTL?
A. the F2 offspring contain different combinations of the parental chromosomes
B. by using genetic markers, it is determined which parent each chromosome came from and thus genes are identified
C. the F1 offspring are crossed with each other
D. two inbred strains that differ in a quantitative trait are crossed

A

C. the F1 offspring are crossed with each other

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15
Q

Quantitative traits usually have which of the following characteristics?

A. environmental influence
B. polygenic basis
C. continuous distribution
D. All of these are correct

A

D. All of these are correct

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16
Q

If the difference between the mean of the parents and the mean of the starting population is 1.0 and the difference between the mean of the offspring and the mean of the starting population is 0.45 then the realized heritability is

A. 0.45
B. 2.22
C. 0.56
D. 1.45

A

A. 0.45

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17
Q

In calculations of the degrees of freedom for a correlation coefficient, what value does the degrees of freedom take?

A. (n-1)
B. 2(n-1)
C. (n-1) / 2
D. (n-2)

A

D. (n-2)

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18
Q

After calculating a correlation coefficient, you discover that the value is not significant at the 5% level. What can be done that may result in a significant difference?

A. increase the sample size
B. decrease the sample size
C. nothing, the value will remain the same regardless of sample size

A

A. increase the sample size

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19
Q

The square root of the variance is called the _____

A. standard deviation
B. covariance
C. standard error
D. mean

A

A. standard deviation

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20
Q

Calculate the mean plant height, the variance and the standard deviation for 10 plants that have the following heights: 5 cm, 6 cm, 6 cm, 7 cm, 7 cm, 7 cm, 8 cm, 9 cm, 9 cm, and 10 cm

A. mean: 7.4 cm, variance: 2.5 cm^2; standard deviation: 1.6 cm
B. mean: 7.5 cm, variance: 3.5 cm^2, standard deviation: 1.6 cm
C. mean: 7.4 cm, variance: 2.5 cm^2, standard deviation: 1.9 cm
D. mean: 7 cm, variance: 3.5 cm^2, standard deviation: 1.9 cm

A

A. mean: 7.4 cm, variance: 2.5 cm^2; standard deviation: 1.6 cm

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21
Q

In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings, and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the frequency of alleles in this population?
A. 35% c; 45% c+
B. 46.7% c; 53.3% c+
C. 50% c; 50% c+
D. 55% c; 45% c+
E. None of these choices are correct.

A

B. 46.7% c; 53.3% c+

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22
Q

Which type of selection would lead to two distinct phenotypes?

A.disruptive selection
B.directional selection
C.phenotype selection
D.fitness selection
E.stabilizing selection

A

A.disruptive selection

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23
Q

Which of the following types of selection creates two phenotypic classes from a single original distribution?

A.disruptive selection
B.directional selection
C.phenotype selection
D.fitness selection
E.stabilizing selection

A

A.disruptive selection

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24
Q

How does inbreeding affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A.It makes it more likely for the population to remain in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
B.It results in a higher level of either dominant or recessive homozygotes.
C.It results in a higher level of heterozygotes.
D.It has no effect on the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

A

B.It results in a higher level of either dominant or recessive homozygotes.

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25
Q

By what process do new alleles arise?

A.Migration
B.Natural selection
C.Nonrandom mating
D.Mutation
E.Genetic drift

A

D.Mutation

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26
Q

Calculate the narrow-sense heritability of height between aunts and nieces if the observed phenotypic correlation coefficient is 0.1

A.2.5
B.0.25
C.4
D.0.4

A

D. 0.4

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27
Q

A heritability value of 0.997 indicates which of the following?

A.The majority of the phenotypic variation has a genetic basis.
B.The majority of the phenotypic variation has an environmental basis.
C.The trait is polygenic.
D.There is a significant difference between the two strains.
E.None of these choices are correct.

A

A. The majority of the phenotypic variation has a genetic basis.

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28
Q

QTL mapping determines the relationship between genes for quantitative traits and which of the following?

A.structural genes
B.the centromere
C.transposon sites
D.molecular markers such as RFLPs

A

D. molecular markers such as RFLPs

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29
Q

In QTL mapping, the parental strains are crossed and the F1 generation backcrossed to which of the following?

A. a wild-type organism
B. a strain that is homozygous recessive for all markers
C. the F2 generation
D. the parental generation

A

D. the parental generation

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30
Q

In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c ) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+ ). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings, and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of curly or straight wing alleles in this population?

A. 2
B. 150
C. 230
D. 300
E. None of these choices are correct

A

D. 300

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31
Q

What is the frequency of an allele in a conglomerate population if 50 individuals from a population where the allele has a frequency of 0.6 migrates into a population of 450 individuals where the allele frequency is 0.3?

A. 0.3
B. 0.33
C. 0.18
D. 0.9

A

B. 0.33

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32
Q

Calculate the inbreeding coefficient of an individual given an n of 4 (excluding the inbred offspring) with one common ancestor. The inbreeding of the common ancestor is unknown.

A. 50%
B. 3.125%
C. 25%
D. 6.25%

A

D. 6.25%

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33
Q

Repetitive sequences are useful for DNA fingerprinting because they

A. are inherited and can show significant variability between individuals.
B. are not inherited and so are unique to every individual.
C. never undergo mutation.
D. are unique to every individual and change from generation to generation.

A

A. are inherited and can show significant variability between individuals.

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34
Q

Inbreeding reduces which of the following variances to near zero?

A. genetic variance
B. environmental variance
C. both variances
D. neither variance

A

A. genetic variance

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35
Q

After several generations of artificial selective breeding, a plateau is reached where artificial selection is no longer effective. This is called the _______.

A. selection coefficient
B. selection limit
C. realized limit
D. realized heritability

A

B. selection limit

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36
Q

Which of the following best describes the degrees of freedom for the calculation of variance?

A. (n - 1)
B. (n - 1)/n
C. (n + 1)
D. 2(n + 1)

A

A. (n - 1)

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37
Q

What must be true for a correlation coefficient to be calculated between two traits?

A. The values for the traits must have been obtained from unbiased sampling.
B. The relationship between the two traits must be linear.
C. The traits must follow a normal distribution.
D. All of these choices are correct.

A

D. All of these choices are correct.

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38
Q

Suppose the genes for eye color and wing shape are both on the X chromosome (they are linked) and are known to be 68 map units apart. In a mating between a Xw+m+Xwm female and a XwmY male that produces 1000 progeny, how many recombinant progeny would you expect to observe?

A. 320
B. 500
C. 340
D. 680

A

B. 500

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39
Q

The visual proof that chromosomes exchange pieces of information during crossing over was provided by __________.

A. Bateson and Punnett
B. Morgan and Bridges
C. Creighton and McClintock
D. Watson and Crick

A

C. Creighton and McClintock

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40
Q

Experimental evidence that crossing over occurs between the X chromosomes of female Drosophila was provided by __________.

A. Morgan
B. Punnett
C. Darwin
D. Bateson

A

A. Morgan

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41
Q

The diploid garden pea plant has 14 chromosomes. The haploid fungus Neurospora crassa has 7 chromosomes. Neither organism has separate male and female individuals. Therefore, the number of linkage groups in these two organisms is

A. Garden pea has 14 linkage groups, and Neurospora has 7.
B. Garden pea has 7 linkage groups, and Neurospora has 7.
C. Garden pea has 8 linkage groups, and Neurospora has 8.
D. Garden pea has 15 linkage groups, and Neurospora has 8.

A

B. Garden pea has 7 linkage groups, and Neurospora has 7.

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42
Q

Two genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be _____.

A. linked
B. recombinant
C. parental-like
D. nonparental-like

A

linked

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43
Q

Another name for a chromosome is a _______, since it contains genes that are often inherited together.

A. linkage group
B. crossing over group
C. genetic recombinant
D. bivalent

A

A. linkage group

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44
Q

While mapping two genes in Drosophila, you observe 30 recombinants among 200 total offspring. What is the distance between these genes?

A. 30 map units
B. 6.67 map units
C. 200 map units
D. 15 map units

A

D. 15 map units

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45
Q

A testcross is always performed between the individual that is heterozygous for the genes to be mapped and an individual who is ____________.

A. Heterozygous for the genes
B. Homozygous dominant for the genes
C. Homozygous recessive for the genes
D. Lacking the genes
E. None of the answers are correct

A

C. Homozygous recessive for the genes

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46
Q

In a mapping cross, you determine that the recombination frequency between:
loci Q and P is 12%
loci Q and L is 15%.
If locus Q is in between loci P and L, then the recombination frequency between P and L should be approximately

A. 3%.
B. 27%.
C. 50%.
D. 75%.

A

B. 27%.

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47
Q

Which of the following are necessary characteristics of an organism in order to easily construct a genetic linkage map?

A. short generation times
B. produces large numbers of offspring
C. easily crossed
D. All of these choices are correct.

A

D. All of these choices are correct.

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48
Q

Twin spotting provides evidence of what genetic event?

A. mutation
B. meiotic recombination
C. linkage
D. mitotic recombination

A

D. mitotic recombination

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49
Q

Which of the following defines gene linkage?

A. Two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome.
B. Genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.
C. The process by which genetic information is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.
D. All of these choices are correct.
E. Both two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome and genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.

A

E. Both two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome and genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.

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50
Q

In humans, there are _______ autosomal linkage groups, plus an X and Y chromosome linkage group.

A. 23
B. 46
C. 92
D. 22

A

D. 22

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51
Q

Assume that genes C and D are located on the same chromosome. On one chromosome alleles C and D are found, while the homolog contains alleles c and d. Which of the following would be an example of a recombination event?

A. alleles C and D together on one chromosome
B. alleles c and D together on one chromosome
C. alleles C and d together on one chromosome
D. alleles c and d together on one chromosome
E. both alleles C and d together on one chromosome and alleles c and D together on one chromosome

A

E. both alleles C and d together on one chromosome and alleles c and D together on one chromosome

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52
Q

Creighton and McClintock worked with _____ as their model system to show that homologous chromosomes physically exchange genetic information during crossing over.

A. corn
B. fruit flies
C. tobacco
D. peas

A

A. corn

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53
Q

Crossing over is more likely to occur between genes that are ______ on a chromosome.
A. not
B. far apart
C. close together

A

B. far apart

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54
Q

The middle gene of a three gene mapping experiment can be determined by examining the genotypes of which of the following?
A. offspring that resemble the parents
B. offspring that exhibit a single crossover event
C. offspring that exhibit double crossover events
D. None of these choices are correct.

A

C. offspring that exhibit double crossover events

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55
Q

An organism that contains patches of tissue that vary for a specific characteristic, such as a pigment, is an example of _____.
A. linkage
B. meiotic recombination
C. translocations
D. mitotic recombination

A

D. mitotic recombination

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56
Q

Which of the following statistical tests is used to determine if two genes are linked or assorting independently?
A. chi square test
B. product rule
C. binomial expansion
D. sum rule

A

A. chi square test

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57
Q

A diploid organism has a total of 36 chromosomes. Assuming all possible chromosome combinations are viable, if a mutant tetraploid version of this organism was created how many chromosomes would it have? If a mutant version of the diploid organism was monosomic for chromosome 9 how many chromosomes would it have?
A. 144; 35
B. 72; 35
C. 72; 37
D. 144; 37

A

B. 72; 35

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58
Q

A _______ translocation occurs when a piece of one chromosome is attached to another chromosome.
A. balanced
B. complex
C. simple
D. reciprocal

A

C. simple

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59
Q

What process is the cause of human genetic diseases such a cri-du-chat syndrome?
A. deletion
B. translocation
C. inversion
D. duplication

A

A. deletion

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60
Q

Inversions detectable by light microscopy are contained within what percent of the human population?
A. less than 1%
B. greater than 10%
C. approximately 2%
D. approximately 5%

A

C. approximately 2%

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61
Q

A wholphin is a rare hybrid animal born from mating a female bottlenose dolphin with a male false killer whale. Wholphins are diploid. Interestingly, wholphins are fertile. What can you conclude from the fact that wholphins are fertile?
A. Wholphins are allotetraploid.
B. One of the parents must have been aneuploid.
C. Dolphins and false killer whales are actually the same species.
D. Dolphins and false killer whales likely have the same number of chromosomes.

A

D. Dolphins and false killer whales likely have the same number of chromosomes.

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62
Q

Which correctly describes mitotic nondisjunction?
A. It is a relatively rare event.
B. It results in the loss of chromosomes in some cells.
C. It usually does not affect all of the cells of the organism.
D. All of these choices are correct

A

D. All of these choices are correct

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63
Q

The failure of chromosomes to separate during anaphase is called __________.
A. nondisjunction
B. synapsis
C. epistasis
D. maternal effect

A

A. nondisjunction

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64
Q

Chromosomes may be identified based on which of the following characteristics?
A. location of the centromere
B. banding patterns
C. size of the chromosome
D. All of these choices are correct.

A

D. All of these choices are correct.

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65
Q

Edward and Patau syndromes are examples of __________.
A. allopolyploidy
B. autopolyploidy
C. translocations
D. aneuploidy

A

D. aneuploidy

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66
Q

The polytene chromosomes of Drosophila are an example of _________.
A. aneuploidy
B. polyploidy
C. translocations
D. inversion loops
E. None of these choices are correct.

A

B. polyploidy

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67
Q

A map distance of 23.6 between two genes indicates which of the following?

A.There are 23.6 other genes between the two genes of interest.
B.23.6% of the offspring do not survive.
C.23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes.
D.The genes are 23.6 millimeters apart.

A

C. 23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes.

68
Q

In meiotic nondisjunction, meiotic products can be n+1, n-1, or n depending on when nondisjunction occurs. If non disjunction occurs in meiosis I, what is the outcome?

A.Two trisomic and two monosomic products
B.One trisomic and three monosomic products
C.One trisomic, one monosomic, and two normal products
D.None of these choices are correct.

A

A.Two trisomic and two monosomic products

69
Q

What causes gene duplications?

A.The crossing over of misaligned chromosomes
B.deletion of important genetic information
C.reciprocal translocations
D.position effect
E.None of these choices are correct.

A

A.The crossing over of misaligned chromosomes

70
Q

An inversion heterozygote contains which of the following?

A.two homologous chromosomes with inversions
B.two normal chromosomes
C.one normal chromosome and one chromosome with an inversion
D.None of these choices are correct.

A

C. one normal chromosome and one chromosome with an inversion

71
Q

Which of the following describes an organism with two complete sets of chromosomes from two different species?

A.allodiploid
B.tetraploid
C.aneuploid
D.allotetraploid

A

D. allotetraploid

72
Q

Trisomy 8 usually leads to the early miscarriage of a fetus. However, adult individuals have been found with cells that have three copies of chromosome 8 in them. How can this be?

A.The trisomic 8 adults likely have a mosaic region with trisomy 8.
B.This individual must be triploid.
C.The trisomic cells underwent complete nondisjunction.
D.The trisomic cells underwent a meiotic nondisjunction.

A

A.The trisomic 8 adults likely have a mosaic region with trisomy 8.

73
Q

Which of the following would produce the most euploid progeny, sperm cells that result from a nondisjunction following meiosis I or meiosis II?

A.All progeny will be euploid with either non-disjunction event.
B.Sperm that are produced following a non-disjunction event in meiosis II.
C.Sperm that are produced following a non-disjunction event in meiosis I.
D.Neither will produce any euploid progeny.

A

B. Sperm that are produced following a non-disjunction event in meiosis II.

74
Q

Variations in chromosome structure are important for which of the following reason(s)?

A.evolution of new species
B.may result in the production of abnormal offspring
C.may alter the phenotype of an organism
D.All of these choices are correct.

A

D. All of these choices are correct.

75
Q

What are Klinefelter and Turner syndromes examples of?

A.sex chromosome aneuploidy
B.paracentric inversions
C.reciprocal translocations
D.autosomal aneuploidy

A

A. sex chromosome aneuploidy

76
Q

Which human cells exhibit endopolyploidy?

A.sex cells
B.liver cells
C.red blood cells
D.nerve cells
E.all somatic cells

A

B.liver cells

77
Q

Which of the following is incorrect concerning quantitative traits?

A.Individuals fall into distinct classes for comparison.
B.The phenotypic variation for the trait is continuous.
C.The frequency distribution follows a bell-shaped curve.
D.All of these choices are correct.

A

A. Individuals fall into distinct classes for comparison.

78
Q

A SNP would best be described as

A.a gene that comes in multiple different alleles.
B.a balanced polymorphism system.
C.a single nucleotide difference between two DNA sequences.
D.the least frequent type of mutation.
E.None of these choices are correct.

A

C. a single nucleotide difference between two DNA sequences.

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equation?

A.Individuals of the population mate randomly.
B.Selection favors the dominant allele.
C.The population size is very large.
D.There is no mutation occurring in the population.
E.There is no migration into or out of the population.

A

B. Selection favors the dominant allele.

80
Q

A natural disaster that resulted in the loss of genetic diversity in a population would be an example of a

A.bottleneck effect.
B.natural selection.
C.genetic drift.
D.founder effect.

A

A. bottleneck effect.

81
Q

Select the definition of genetic drift.

A.Changes in genome size in a species due to random mutations
B.Changes in genotype frequencies in a population due to new mutations
C.Changes in allele frequencies in a population due to migration
D.Changes in allele frequencies in a population due to random fluctuations

A

D. Changes in allele frequencies in a population due to random fluctuations

82
Q

The probability that two alleles will be identical for a given gene in an individual because the alleles are from the same ancestor is estimated by

A.the inbreeding coefficient.
B.the chi-square test.
C.the calculation of average heterozygosity.
D.the Hardy-Weinberg equation

A

A. the inbreeding coefficient.

83
Q

Horizontal gene transfer occurs

A.between prokaryotic species only.
B.within and between species of eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
C.only from prokaryotes to eukaryotes.
D.between eukaryotic species only.

A

B.within and between species of eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

84
Q

If the allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.4, what value is used for the term p2 in the equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1?

A. 0.16
B. 16
C. 0.2
D. 0.4

A

A. 0.16

85
Q

Migration of a random few individuals from one population to a new area to establish a new population is an example of

A. selection.
B. mutation.
C. bottleneck effect.
D. founder effect.

A

D. founder effect.

86
Q

Which of the following types of selection favors one extreme of a phenotypic distribution?

A. stabilizing selection
B. disruptive selection
C. balancing selection
D. directional selection

A

D. directional selection

87
Q

When analyzing two variables, the strength of the association between the variables is called the ____.

A. standard deviation
B. correlation coefficient
C. covariance
D. variance

A

B. correlation coefficient

88
Q

In a mapping experiment with three genes, which phenotype should occur most often in the F2 offspring?

A. parental phenotypes
B. phenotypes of individuals with single crossover events
C. phenotypes of individuals with double crossover events
D. All of these choices should be equal in the F2 generation.

A

A. parental phenotypes

89
Q

First observational evidence that genes may be inherited together rather than by simple Mendelian inheritance was provided by _____.

A. Bateson and Punnett
B. Mendel
C. Morgan and Bridges
D. Boveri and Sutton

A

A. Bateson and Punnett

90
Q

Which of the following is not one of the properties of gene linkage that Morgan obtained from his experiments?

A. Genes that are on the same chromosome are always transmitted together as a unit.
B. Crossing over exchanges pieces of chromosomes and creates new allele combinations.
C. Genes that are on the same chromosome may be inherited together.
D. The likelihood of crossing over occurring between two genes is dependent on the distance of the genes from one another.

A

A. Genes that are on the same chromosome are always transmitted together as a unit.

91
Q

The individual who is credited with discovering genetic linkage in Drosophila is _____.

A. Alfred Sturtevant
B. Thomas Hunt Morgan
C. Gregor Mendel
D. Barbara McClintock

A

B. Thomas Hunt Morgan

92
Q

Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. The asterisk (*) indicates the centromere.Before: A B C D * E F G H After: A B C D * E F E F G H

A. terminal deletion
B. gene duplication
C. inversion
D. interstitial deletion

A

B. gene duplication

93
Q

Which of the following generally has the least effect on the phenotype of the individual who carries it?

A. Robertsonian translocation
B. unbalanced translocation
C. balanced translocation
D. All of these choices are equally detrimental to the phenotype

A

C. balanced translocation

94
Q

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive blood clotting disorder. A normal man and a woman with hemophilia A have a child with Turner Syndrome (XO). This child does not have hemophilia. In whom did nondisjunction occur? In meiosis I or meiosis II?

A. Woman; meiosis I
B. Woman; there is not enough information to tell if the nondisjunction happened in meiosis I or II
C. Man; meiosis I
D. Man; meiosis II
E. Woman; meiosis II

A

B. Woman; there is not enough information to tell if the nondisjunction happened in meiosis I or II

95
Q

_______ is a drug that is used to experimentally produce polyploidy in organisms.

A. Polymosca
B. Colchicine
C. Penicillin
D. Karyocine

A

B. Colchicine

96
Q

The term _______ refers to genetic differences between members of the same species.

A. chromosomal variation
B. chromosomal deletions
C. genetic variation
D. polyploidy

A

C. genetic variation

97
Q

In mammals, the majority of cardiomyocytes (cardiac muscle cells) undergo repeated DNA replication without cytokinesis as a part of normal development and in response to injury or heart attack. Many cardiomyocytes are tetraploid, and some cells have even higher DNA content. This variation in DNA content is an example of __________.

A. copy number variation
B. aneuploidy
C. alloploidy
D. endopolyploidy

A

D. endopolyploidy

98
Q

A structure called a(n) _______ allows the transfer of genetic information during conjugation.

A. sex pilus
B. plasmid
C. F factor
D. transformation bridge

A

A. sex pilus

99
Q

This form of DNA transfer was first observed by Lederberg and Tatum (1946) in Escherichia coli.

A. transduction
B. transformation
C. fission
D. conjugation

A

D. conjugation

100
Q

How does a transducing phage directly contribute to DNA transfer between bacteria?

A. By injecting a fragment of the bacterial genome from a previous host into another bacterial cell
B. By incorporating DNA fragments from two different bacterial cells so that recombination can occur within the phage
C. By injecting phage DNA into a living bacterial cell
D. By stimulating the formation of a sex pilus

A

A. By injecting a fragment of the bacterial genome from a previous host into another bacterial cell

101
Q

During transformation, if the extracellular endonuclease was not functioning properly, at which stage would transformation be halted?

A. During homologous recombination
B. During heteroduplex repair
C. After DNA fragment binding to a cell surface receptor on the bacterium
D. During DNA transport into the cell

A

C. After DNA fragment binding to a cell surface receptor on the bacterium

102
Q

What do competence factors do?

A.inhibit genetic transfer between donor and recipient cells
B.promote bacteriophage binding for transduction
C.allow DNA in the environment to bind to the cell surface
D.allow the formation of a sex pilus

A

C. allow DNA in the environment to bind to the cell surface

103
Q

The units of genetic distance derived from bacterial conjugation studies are called _____.

A. centimorgans
B. minutes
C. seconds
D. recombination units

A

B. minutes

104
Q

How do researchers interrupt the process of conjugation?

A. using tweezers
B. using a special gene
C. using a microscope
D. using a blender

A

D. using a blender

105
Q

What is the most important result of horizontal gene transfer as it relates to human health?

A. It can cause the disappearance of genes from the human genome, leading to disease.
B. It has been used successfully to treat dozens of diseases, by replacing damaged DNA in the cells of the patient.
C. It spreads antibiotic resistance in pathogenic bacteria.
D. It can explain the occurrence of nonheritable genetic diseases.

A

C. It spreads antibiotic resistance in pathogenic bacteria.

106
Q

When a bacteria assimilates genetic material (DNA) directly from the environment, this is called

A. transduction.
B. fission.
C. conjugation.
D. transformation.

A

D. transformation.

107
Q

Loss of function mutations are easier to study in _______ organisms, such as bacteria.

A. haploid
B. diploid
C. triploid

A

A. haploid

108
Q

Small circular pieces of DNA, separate from the bacterial chromosome, are called _______.

A. plasmids
B. relaxosomes
C. heteroduplexes

A

A. plasmids

109
Q

You are performing transduction experiments using recipient bacteria that are auxotrophic for histidine, leucine, and tryptophan. You notice that following transduction, recombinant bacteria that are his+ are usually also trp+ but that they are less likely to also be leu+. What can you conclude about this transduction experiment?

A. When these phages were made they took up two separate pieces of DNA, one containing his+ and one containing trp+.
B. In the donor bacterial genome, the genes for his+ and trp+are close together.
C. In the original phage genome, the genes for his+ and trp+are close together.
D. The donor bacterial genome was leu-.

A

B. In the donor bacterial genome, the genes for his+ and trp+are close together.

110
Q

Who was the first to discover the process of natural transformation?

A. Griffith
B. Sturtevant
C. Avery
D. Morgan

A

A. Griffith

111
Q

A cell with an F factor integrated into the bacterial chromosome is called __________.

A. Hfr
B. a conjugative plasmid
C. F+

A

A. Hfr

112
Q

During a phage life cycle sometimes a phage is packaged carrying a portion of the host cell chromosome, which results in transduction. During conjugation, which plasmid can most directly be compared to the phage that carries a fragment of the host cell chromosome?

A. F’ factor
B. F factor
C. R factor
D. Col-plasmid

A

A. F’ factor

113
Q

Which process uses a bacteriophage as an intermediary for the genetic information?

A. fission
B. transformation
C. conjugation
D. transduction

A

D. transduction

114
Q

In a chi square test to determine if two genes are linked or assorting independently, what is the default (null) hypothesis that is tested?

A. The genes are assorting independently.
B. The genes are linked to one another.
C. The genes are located on the sex chromosomes.
D. No crossing over occurs.

A

A. The genes are assorting independently.

115
Q

The production of gene families, such as the globin genes, is the result of ________.

A. inversions
B. deficiencies
C. gene duplications
D. simple translocations
E. None of these choices are correct.

A

C. gene duplications

116
Q

Genetic abnormalities that occur after fertilization may result in some tissues of the body differing in their genetic composition. This is called ________.

A. polyploidy
B. mosaicism
C. polypheny
D. genetic variation

A

B. mosaicism

117
Q

A Xw+m+Xwm female was mated to a XwmY male. Out of 1000 total F1 progeny there were 230 flies that were otherwise wild type with white eyes and 240 flies that were otherwise wild type with miniature wings. What is the distance between the genes for eye color and wing length?

A. 47 Map Units
B. 23 map units
C. 24 map units
D. 53 map units

A

A. 47 Map Units

118
Q

In the equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, what does the term 2pq represent?

A) the genotypic frequency of homozygous recessive individuals
B) the genotypic frequency of homozygous dominant individuals
C) the genotypic frequency of heterozygous individuals
D) the sum of the phenotypic frequencies in the population
E) None of these choices are correct.

A

C) the genotypic frequency of heterozygous individuals

119
Q

Natural selection occurs when

A) humans breed certain individuals with the most desirable phenotypes.
B) the genotype of an individual does not determine whether or not is has reproductive success.
C) individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for environmental conditions have lower reproductive success but live longer.
D) individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for environmental conditions have higher reproductive success and contribute more alleles to the next generation.

A

D) individuals whose phenotypes are best suited for environmental conditions have higher reproductive success and contribute more alleles to the next generation.

120
Q

If two individuals of a population, who vary in their phenotype, preferentially mate, it is called _____.

A) Outbreeding
B) Inbreeding
C) Negative assortative mating
D) Positive assortative mating

A

C) Negative assortative mating

121
Q

Which of the following expressions denotes a trisomic organism?

A) 3n
B) 2n+1
C) 2n+2
D) 2n-1

A

B) 2n+1

122
Q

A loss of an internal portion of a chromosome is called a(n) __________.

A) terminal deficiency
B) interstitial deletion
C) reciprocal translocation
D) gene duplication

A

B) interstitial deletion

123
Q

The short arm of a chromosome is denoted by the letter _______ and the long arm by the letter _______.

A) q; p
B) p; q
C) s; l
D) c; d

A

B) p; q

124
Q

Polytene chromosomes are

A) chromosomes that lack telomeres.
B) chromosomes with high copy number variation.
C) backup copies of chromosomes that are kept segregated away from the functional copies.
D) bundles of hundreds of copies of the same chromosome.

A

D) bundles of hundreds of copies of the same chromosome.

125
Q

If a disease is associated with copy number variation, that suggests that it is caused by the presence of?

A. a duplicated or deleted copy of a gene
B. a much longer version of a gene
C. mRNA transcripts missing the translation STOP sequence
D. extra telomeres

A

A. a duplicated or deleted copy of a gene

126
Q

Robertsonian translocation usually occur between what types of chromosomes?

A. telocentric
B. metacentric
C. acrocentric
D. submetacentric

A

C. acrocentric

127
Q

A selective breeding program is trying to develop an agricultural plant with decreased stem length to aid in mechanical harvesting. The mean stem height of the population is 36 cm while the mean stem height of the parents is 30 cm and the mean stem height of the offspring is 33 cm. What is the realized heritability for stem height in this crop?

A. 0.33
B. 0
C. 1
D. 0.5

A

D. 0.5

128
Q

A phenotypically normal person is having fertility issues. They consult a geneticist. Their karyotype shows they have 45 chromosomes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of their chromosome abnormality?

A. Inversion
B. Robertsonian translocation
C. Partial deletion
D. Balanced translocation

A

B. Robertsonian translocation

129
Q

The site on a plasmid that is cut, producing a single strand of DNA, to allow conjugation to occur is called the ____________.

A. relaxase
B. origin of transfer
C. nucleoprotein
D. T DNA

A

B. origin of transfer

130
Q

Bacterial cells that can participate in ______ are known as competent cells.

A. transduction
B. fission
C. conjugation
D. transformation

A

D. transformation

131
Q

If the origin of transfer was located directly to the right of the galE gene on this map of the E. coli chromosome, and gene transfer proceeded counterclockwise, how many minutes after the galE gene was transferred would the dnaB gene be transferred in an interrupted mating experiment?

A. 75 minutes
B. 16 minutes
C. 25 minutes
D. 107 minutes

A

C. 25 minutes

132
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding bacterial genetics?

A. DNA is transferred between individuals by either conjugation, transduction, or transformation.
B. Bacteria are usually haploid organisms.
C. Bacteria primarily reproduce asexually.
D. The patterns of inheritance in bacteria are studied using the same techniques as eukaryotic organisms.

A

D. The patterns of inheritance in bacteria are studied using the same techniques as eukaryotic organisms.

133
Q

Which does not require any recombination with the bacterial chromosome?

A. transduction
B. transformation
C. conjugation

A

C. conjugation

134
Q

The mechanism that results in a change in allele frequencies due to random processes is known as?

A. genetic drift
B. natural selection
C. migration
D. non random mating

A

A. genetic drift

135
Q

If in a population the rate of mutation that converts the A allele to the a allele is 10-6 and the current frequency of the A allele is 0.75 and the a allele is 0.25, then the frequency of the A and a
alleles in the next generation will be

A) A: 0.75
a: 0.25
B) A: 0.7499993
a: 0.2500007
C) A: 0.750007
a: 0.2499993
D) A: 0.74
a: 0.26

A

B) A: 0.7499993
a: 0.2500007

136
Q

For a quantitative trait, the total variance of the population is due to which of the following?

A. The amount of variance due to genetic factors only
B. The amount of variance due to environmental factors only
C. The difference between the variance attributed to genetic and environmental factors
D. The sum of the genetic and environmental variances

A

D. The sum of the genetic and environmental variances

137
Q

Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. The asterisk (*) indicates the centromere.
Before: A B C D * E F G H
After: A C D * E F G H

A. interstitial deletion
B. terminal deletion
C. gene duplication
D. recombination

A

A. interstitial deletion

138
Q

A translocation cross may occur in an individual which has which of the following?

A) reciprocal translocation
B) unbalanced translocation
C) simple translocations
D) All of these choices are correct.

A

a. Reciprocal translocation

139
Q

The African clawed frog (Xenopus laevis) is allotetraploid, likely as a result of an interspecies mating long ago, followed by a duplication of the entire genome. Xenopus laevis is fertile and has a normal life cycle. In contrast, mules, the allodiploid offspring of a male donkey and a female horse, are generally sterile. Why can Xenopus reproduce and mules cannot?

A. Frogs are less sensitive to multiple copies of the genome than mammals.
B. In allotetraploid organisms each chromosome has a chromosome to pair up with in meiosis, whereas in allodiploid organisms they do not.
C. The two frogs that interbred to form the Xenopus laevis must have been more closely genetically related than the donkey and horse are.
D. The mule must have a genetic mutation that prevents it from reproducing.

A

B. In allotetraploid organisms each chromosome has a chromosome to pair up with in meiosis, whereas in allodiploid organisms they do not.

140
Q

Which type of plant would usually be a seedless variety

A. aneuploid
B. triploid
C. diploid
D. tetraploid

A

B. triploid

141
Q

After conjugation, the enzyme that rejoins the ends of the linear DNA into a circular plasmid is called _________.

A. relaxase
B. F factor
C. nucleoprotein
D. relaxosome

A

A. relaxase

142
Q

DNA transfer by transduction depends on what occasional mistake that can occur during a phage lytic cycle?

A. A piece of host cell DNA is packaged into a phage.
B. The phage and bacterial genome fragments recombine.
C. The hose cell undergoes lysis before any new phages are produced.
D. A host cell protein is incorporated into a phage.

A

A. a piece of host cell dna is packaged into a phage

143
Q

DNA transfer via a physical connection between bacteria is known as

A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. transduction
D. fission

A

A. conjugation

144
Q

In experiments, interrupted mating may be used to

A. alter the genotype of the donor cell.
B. determine the relative position of genes.
C. generate loss of function alleles.
D. inhibit transduction.

A

B. determine the relative position of genes.

145
Q

Genetic drift has the greatest influence on allele frequencies for which population size?

A. Genetic drift has the same impact on both large and small populations.
B. large
C. small
D. Genetic drift has no effect on the allele frequencies

A

C. small

146
Q

Mutations represent
A) a minor part of microevolution.
B) an essential part of microevolution.
C) deleterious changes to the fitness of an individual.
D) advantageous changes to genes.

A

B) an essential part of microevolution.

147
Q

Which term describes all the alleles of every gene in the population?
A) conglomerate
B) gene pool
C) polymorphisms
D) genotype frequency

A

B) gene pool

148
Q

What is true concerning a quantitative trait?

A. Individuals fall into distinct classes for comparison
B. The phenotypic variation for the trait is continuous
C. The phenotypic variation for the trait falls into two to three classes
D. The frequency distribution of the trait will have an asymmetrical shape

A

B. The phenotypic variation for the trait is continuous

149
Q

Eye color in Drosophila is an example of

A. Discontinuous, non-quantitative trait
B. Discontinuous, quantitative trait
C. Continuous, non-quantitative trait
D. Continuous, quantitative trait

A

A. Discontinuous, non-quantitative trait

150
Q

Polygenic inheritance may result in a continuum of phenotypes because

A. the genes that are involved can be considered to be co-dominant.
B. the alleles for each gene are either completely dominant or recessive.
C. there is a low environmental effect.
D. there is a high environmental effect

A

A. the genes that are involved can be considered to be co-dominant.

151
Q

A selective breeding program is trying to develop an agircultural plant with decreased stem length to aid in mechanical harvesting. The mean stem height of the popluation is 36 cm while the mean stem height of the parents is 30 cm and the mean stem height of the offspring is 33 cm. What is the realized heritability for stem height in this crop?

A. 1
B. 3
C. -3
D. 0.1

A

A. 1

152
Q

Which of the following would have the shortest p arm of the chromosome?

A. acrocentic
B. metacentric
C. telocentric
D. submetacentric

A

C. telocentric

153
Q

Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in
chromosome structure occurred. The asterisk (*) indicates the centromere.
Before: A B C D * E F G H
After: A B G F E * D C H

A) reciprocal translocation
B) pericentric inversion
C) paracentric inversion
D) gene duplication
E) None of the answers are correct.

A

B) pericentric inversion

154
Q

Describe endopolyploidy, and how it might benefit an organism.

A) Portions of the organism have extra copies of all chromosomes, for producing additional gene
products.
B) The entire organism has extra copies of certain chromosomes, for producing additional gene
products.
C) The entire organism has extra copies of all chromosomes, to act as backup in case of DNA
damage.
D) Portions of the organism have extra copies of certain genes, for the functions of specialized
cell types.

A

A) Portions of the organism have extra copies of all chromosomes, for producing additional gene
products.

155
Q

Represents a mechanism of genetic transfer in bacteria.

A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. All of the answers are correct

A

D. All of the answers are correct

156
Q

Can occur either as a lytic or lysogenic cycle.

A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. All of the answers are correct

A

B. Transduction

157
Q

First observed by Lederberg and Zinder (1952) in Salmonella typhimurium.

A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. All of the answers are correct

A

B. Transduction

158
Q

Uses competent cells.

A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. All of the answers are correct

A

A. Transformation

159
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning F factors?

A. Another term for a plasmid
B. It stands for fertility factor
C. It allows conjugation to occur
D. F+ bacteria act as donor strains in conjugation
E. All of the answers are correct

A

E. All of the answers are correct

160
Q

The protein complex that initiates the process of conjugation following contact between two bacteria is called the _________.

A. Origin of transfer
B. T DNA
C. Relaxosome
D. Nucleoprotein

A

C. Relaxosome

161
Q

Interrupted mating is defined as ____________.

A. The inability of a bacteriophage to transfer genetic material
B. A mechanism of transformation
C. A process by which conjugation is stopped using a blender
D. A process of asexual reproduction in bacteria

A

C. A process by which conjugation is stopped using a blender

162
Q

Which of the following matings would have the highest frequency of chromosomal gene transfer?

A. F+xF-
B. F’xF-
C. Hfr x F-

A

C. Hfr x F-

163
Q

The transfer of genetic material from two unrelated species is called ________.

A. Vertical gene transfer
B. Conjugation
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Binary fission
E. Horizontal gene transfer

A

E. Horizontal gene transfer

164
Q

In the experiment performed by Lederberg and Tatum bacteria of different genotypes had to be mixed together to obtain a genetic transfer. However, Davis performed the experiment in a slightly different manner by separating cells with a filter incapable of allowing bacteria to pass. What possibility did the experiment by Davis exclude that could have occurred by the protocol used by Lederberg and Tatum?

A. Transduction
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation

A

C. Transformation

165
Q

Inversion loops can occur in which of the following?

A. reciprocal translocations
B. paracentric inversions
C. pericentric inversions
D. gene duplications
E. both paracentric inversions and pericentric inversions

A

E. both paracentric inversions and pericentric inversions

166
Q

After two cells make contact via the conjugation bridge, the protein complex that initiates DNA transfer is called the

A. relaxosome.
B. T DNA.
C. origin of transfer.
D. nucleoprotein complex.

A

A. relaxosome.

GENETICS (5 decks)

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