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exam 1 genetics quiz ? Flashcards

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1
Q

You work in a lab. You engineer a mutant mouse that doesn’t synthesize a protein important for the breakdown of the sugar galactose and study the results. What type of geneticist are you?

A) Proteome geneticist
B) Molecular geneticist
C) Population geneticist
D) Transmission geneticist

A

B) Molecular geneticist

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2
Q

Which of the following could be used to study the effects of drugs on gene expression?

A) molecular genetics
B) transmission genetics
C) quantitative genetics
D) population genetics

A

A) molecular genetics

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3
Q

If a carbohydrate is going to be broken down for energy, which of the following molecules would be directly involved in the breakdown?

A) microtubules
B) lipids
C) enzymes
D) nucleotides
E) chromosomes

A

C) enzymes

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4
Q

Which of the following acts to accelerate chemical reactions in a cell?

A) enzymes
B) lipids
C) nucleic acids
D) carbohydrates

A

A) enzymes

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5
Q

A cellular structure that contains genetic information is called a ___________.

A) nucleotide
B) nucleic acid
C) genetic code
D) chromosome

A

D) chromosome

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6
Q

The changes in the genetic makeup of a population over time are called _______.

A) Biological evolution
B) Model organisms studies
C) homologous recombination
D) genetic crosses
E) hypothesis testing

A

A) Biological evolution

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7
Q

A diploid cell within an organism’s body that is not a reproductive cell is _______.

A) rare
B) an allele
C) a somatic cell
D) a gamete
E) a sperm cell

A

C) a somatic cell

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8
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia cells are characterized by the so-called Philadelphia chromosome, which contains part of chromosome 22 fused with chromosome 9. The Philadelphia chromosome is the result of a translocation, in which two chromosomes exchange material. The genetic variation found in chronic myelogenous leukemia is therefore due to?

A) variation in the total number of chromosomes.
B) gene mutations.
C) major alterations in the structure of a chromosome.

A

C) major alterations in the structure of a chromosome.

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9
Q

Genetics is an experimental, as opposed to theoretical, science because ______.

A) it does not rely on observations but only on hypothesis-testing experiments
B) Hypotheses are tested by reviewing the literature to see what others have found
C) Hypotheses are tested by performing experiments
D) No hypotheses are accepted or rejected unless they are voted on by a council of scientists

A

C) Hypotheses are tested by performing experiments

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10
Q

What is the first step that both scientists and students perform to answer questions in genetics?

A) Gathering background information
B) Analyzing data
C) Reaching a conclusion
D) Performing an experiment

A

A) Gathering background information

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11
Q

Cell division in prokaryotic cells is called ________, while in eukaryotic cells it is called ________.

A) binary fission; binary fission
B) binary fission; mitosis
C) mitosis; binary fission
D) mitosis; mitosis

A

B) binary fission; mitosis

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12
Q

Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical?

A) homologous chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) X and Y chromosomes
D) All of these choices are identical.

A

B) sister chromatids

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13
Q

A cytogeneticist would primarily do which of the following?

A) determine the genetic sequence of a specific gene
B) study the evolutionary changes in a specific trait
C) study the distribution of traits in a population
D) examine chromosomes using a karyotype

A

D) examine chromosomes using a karyotype

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14
Q

The location of a gene on a chromosome is called its _____________.

A) allele
B) locus
C) karyotype
D) homolog

A

B) locus

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15
Q

Which of the following represents the correct order of events during prophase I?

A) Leptotene - zygotene - pachytene - diplotene - diakinesis
B) Pachytene - diplotene - diakinesis - leptotene - zygotene
C) Diplotene - pachytene - leptotene - diakinesis - zygotene
D) Zygotene - leptotene - pachytene - diakinesis - diplotene

A

A) Leptotene - zygotene - pachytene - diplotene - diakinesis

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16
Q

A bivalent contains how many sister chromatids?

A) 4
B) depends on the cell
C) 8
D) 2

A

A) 4

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17
Q

Select the phase when sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell.

A) Prophase
B) Telophase
C) Metaphase
D) Anaphase
E) Prometaphase

A

D) Anaphase

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18
Q

Select the phase when the separated sister chromatids are considered independent chromosomes.

A) Metaphase
B) Prophase
C) Prometaphase
D) Telophase
E) Anaphase

A

E) Anaphase

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19
Q

In plants, the haploid generation is called the ______, and the diploid generation is called the __________.

A) oogenesis; gametophyte
B) sporophyte; spermatogenesis
C) sporophyte; gametophyte
D) gametophyte; sporophyte

A

D) gametophyte; sporophyte

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20
Q

During sexual reproduction, gametes are made that contain ______ amount of genetic material as a somatic cell in the organism.

A) the same
B) twice the
C) half the
D) A quarter of the

A

C) half the

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21
Q

Which of the following uses a genetic cross to determine patterns of inheritance?

A) transmission genetics
B) molecular genetics
C) population genetics
D) evolutionary genetics

A

A) transmission genetics

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22
Q

_______ is the use of the information in gene sequences to synthesize functional proteins that affect cellular characteristics.

A) The human genome project
B) Loss-of-function mutation
C) Gene expression
D) Proteomics

A

C) Gene expression

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23
Q

RNA is formed by the process of _____________.

A) transcription
B) translation
C) both transcription and translation

A

A) transcription

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24
Q

Which one of the following is NOT one of the general classes of macromolecules that are necessary for cellular function?

A) lipids
B) nucleic acids
C) ions
D) carbohydrates
E) proteins

A

C) ions

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25
Q

A characteristic that an organism displays is called __________.

A) trait
B) gene
C) chromosome
D) gene expression
E) DNA

A

A) trait

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26
Q

Genetic variation is ultimately based upon which of the following?

A) translation
B) carbohydrate content of the cell
C) morphological differences
D) variations in nucleotide sequence of the DNA

A

D) variations in nucleotide sequence of the DNA

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27
Q

Three populations of an organism, each with drastically different external markings, but still members of the same species, would be called _______.

A) mutants
B) morphs
C) communities
D) homologs
E) alleles

A

B) morphs

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28
Q

The process of binary fission is primarily used for asexual reproduction in ___________.

A) eukaryotes
B) prokaryotes

A

B) prokaryotes

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29
Q

Organelles are __________.

A) the region that contains the DNA in prokaryotic cells
B) membrane-bound compartments of eukaryotic cells
C) the outer, rigid covering of a prokaryotic cell
D) structures that contain the genetic material

A

B) membrane-bound compartments of eukaryotic cells

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30
Q

During sexual reproduction, each parent contributes one set of chromosomes. Similar chromosomes from each parent are called __________.

A) sex chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) homologs
D) karyotypes

A

C) homologs

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31
Q

The process of meiosis II is similar to that of __________.

A) mitosis
B) meiosis I
C) binary fission

A

A) mitosis

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32
Q

If an organism has five pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomal combinations are possible at metaphase I of meiosis?

A) 2^5
B) 5^2
C) 5^10
D) 10^5

A

A) 2^5

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33
Q

A diploid cell in G1 contains 5 pairs of chromosomes. During mitosis, how many chromosomes will be lined up on the metaphase plate in this cell?

A) 15
B) 10
C) 5
D) 20

A

B) 10

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34
Q

Select the phase when the nuclear membrane re-forms around the chromosomes.

A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) prometaphase
D) telophase
E) prophase

A

D) telophase

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35
Q

In animals, somatic cells are ________ and gametes are __________.

A) haploid; haploid
B) diploid; haploid
C) haploid; diploid
D) diploid; diploid

A

B) diploid; haploid

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36
Q

In plants, spore production occurs by

A) spermatogenesis
B) meiosis
C) oogenesis
D) mitosis
E) binary fission

A

B) meiosis

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37
Q

What aspect of meiosis best explains Mendel’s law of segregation?

A

separation of homologous chromosomes during Meiosis I

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38
Q

Consider a tree in which in thick trunk (T) is dominant to a skinny trunk (t), back bark (B) is dominant to brown bark (b) and round leaves (R) are dominant to oval leaves (r). You cross a tree that is heterozygous for all three traits to a tree that is homozygous recessive for all three traits. Using the forked line method or the multiplication method, calculate what fraction of the offspring will have a thick trunk, black bark, and round leaves.

A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) 1/8
D) 1/16

A

C) 1/8

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39
Q

Which situation would violate the law of independent assortment, as understood by Mendel?

A

A gene for leaf shape is linked to a gene for petal number nearby on the same chromosome, so their alleles usually segregate together.

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40
Q

When Mendel crossed two plants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?

A) 3:1
B) Varied depending on the trait
C) 1:2:1
D) 7:4
E) 9:3:3:1

A

A) 3:1

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41
Q

When Mendel crossed two plants that were heterozygous for a single trait, what was the genotypic ratio of their offspring?

A) 1:2:1
B) 3:1
C) 9:3:3:1
D) Varied depending on the trait
E) 1:1

A

A) 1:2:1

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42
Q

Mendel’s data and the study of chromosomes and meiosis did not support the idea of _______, which is the belief that seeds are produced by all parts of the body and transmitted to the next generation.

A) the chromosome theory of inheritance
B) the law of segregation
C) pangenesis
D) the law of independent assortment
E) the blending theory of inheritance

A

C) pangenesis

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43
Q

The anthers represent the _____ portion of the plant; the ovules represent the ____ portion of the plant.

A) male; female
B) female; male
C) male; male
D) female; female

A

A) male; female

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44
Q

The likelihood that the variation of observed data from expectations is due to random chance is called the _________.

A) empirical approach
B) goodness of fit
C) degrees of freedom
D) P value

A

D) P value

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45
Q

The chance that a future event will occur is called ____________.

A) probability
B) goodness of fit
C) degrees of freedom
D) random selection
E) All of these choices are correct

A

A) probability

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46
Q

The study of family trees in humans is called a _______ analysis.

A) factorial
B) probability
C) pedigree
D) monohybrid
E) statistical

A

C) pedigree

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47
Q

If a Punnett square is used to visualize a three-factor cross between two parents that are both heterozygous for all three genes involved, how many boxes would be inside of the square?

A) 48
B) 64
C) 8
D) can’t be determined
E) 3

A

B) 64

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48
Q

In a certain species of plants, red flowers (R) are dominant to pink flowers (r) and round leaves (L) are dominant to oval leaves (l). A plant with red flowers and round leaves is crossed to a plant with pink flowers and oval leaves. In the F1 generation, all of the plants have red flowers, but half of the plants have round leaves and half have oval leaves. What can we conclude about the parental plant with red flowers and round leaves?
A) The genotype of the plant with red flowers and round leaves is RRll.
B) The genotype of the plant with red flowers and round leaves is RRLL.
C) The genotype of the plant with red flowers and round leaves is RrLL.
D) The genotype of the plant with red flowers and round leaves is RRLl.
E )The genotype of the plant with red flowers and round leaves is RrLl.

A

D) The genotype of the plant with red flowers and round leaves is RRLl.

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49
Q

A true-breeding line of green pod pea plants is crossed with a true-breeding line of yellow pod plants. All of their offspring have green pods. From this information, it can be stated that the green color is _____ to the yellow color.

A) dominant
B) recessive
C) blended
D) subservient
E) None of these choices are correct.

A

A) dominant

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50
Q

An individual who has two different alleles for a trait is called ____________.

A) isozygous
B) true-breeding
C) homozygous
D) haploid
E) heterozygous

A

E) heterozygous

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51
Q

A couple would like to know what the probability is that out of five children, three will be girls. This is solved using which of the following?

A) chi square test
B) sum rule
C) random sampling error
D) binomial expansion
E) product rule

A

D) binomial expansion

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52
Q

In the biological sciences, the hypothesis is usually rejected if the P value is _____.
A) less than 0.05
B) less than 0.30
C) less than 1
D) greater than 1
E) less than 0.95

A

A) less than 0.05

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53
Q

In humans, patterns of inheritance are often studied using which of the following?

A) two-factor crosses
B) self-fertilization
C) production of true-breeding lines
D) pedigree analysis

A

D) pedigree analysis

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54
Q

what is a gene

A

code for functional units (proteins)

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55
Q

what is an allele

A

alternative form to specific gene

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56
Q

what is a trait

A

characteristic organism displays

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57
Q

what is an enzyme and what are its 3 functions

A

biological protein catalyst
1. speeds up run
2. decreases activation energy
3. can be reused

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58
Q

what is a proteome

A

the entire collection of proteins

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59
Q

what is natural selection

A

nature selects traits that are most advantagous to the environment

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60
Q

what is the purpose of organelles
A) create protein
B) compartmentalize
C) be a powerhouse
D) create chaos

A

Compartmentalize

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61
Q

what are the function of protein
A) help with shape and signaling
B) transport substances
C) be a motor
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

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62
Q

T or F? mutations have to be heritable

A

TRUE

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63
Q

what is norm of reaction

A

the understanding that there are interactions between the genes and the environment that affect the phenotype (appearance)

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64
Q

what is cytogenetics

A

microscopic examinations of chromosome

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65
Q

what are the gene loci

A

actual physical location of genes

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66
Q

what is the importance of kinetochores

A

fibers that actually bind to chromosome at the centromere and allow it to be moved

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67
Q

what happens during the zygotene phase

A

synaptonemal complex forms / synapsis

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68
Q

what happens during the pachytene phase

A

bivalents crossing over (prophase I)

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69
Q

what are the end products of mitosis

A

2 identical diploid

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70
Q

what are the end products of meiosis

A

4 unique haploid

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71
Q

meiosis 1
A) goes diploid to haploid
B) goes from haploid to haploid
C) is called the reduction phase
D) is called the equational phase
E) A and C
F) B and C

A

A and C

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72
Q

what is the synaptonemal complex

A

protein structure that forms between the homologous chromosomes

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73
Q

If a geneticist describes a trait as being 70% penetrant, what would that mean?
A) The trait is present in 70% of the population.
B) The expression of the trait varies by individual.
C) Only 70% of the individuals who have a particular genotype express the trait.
D) It is lethal in 30% of the individuals who have the trait.

A

Only 70% of the individuals who have a particular genotype express the trait.

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74
Q

The phenylketonuria phenotype in humans is an example of __________.

A) incomplete penetrance
B) codominance
C) an environmental-influenced trait
D) incomplete dominance
E) All of these choices are correct.

A

an environmental influenced trait

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75
Q

epistasis is

A) another term for overdominance
B) when one gene can mask the expression of a second gene
C) a trait that is only expressed in one sex of the species
D) when two dominant alleles can be expressed in the same individual
E) None of these choices are correct.

A

when one gene can mask the expression of a second gene

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76
Q

Which of the following is not correct concerning epistatic interactions?

A) They produce variations in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio of a dihybrid cross.
B)They always result in a 9:7 ratio of a dihybrid cross.
C) They are due to gene interactions.
D) They are often associated with enzymatic pathways.
E) They can result when a gene at one locus masks the expression of a gene at a different locus.

A

They always result in a 9:7 ratio of a dihybrid cross.

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77
Q

In human blood groups, the fact that an individual can have an AB blood type is an example of ___________.
A) incomplete penetrance
B) temperature-sensitive conditional allele
C) codominance
D) sex-influenced trait
E) incomplete dominance

A

codominance

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78
Q

At the molecular level, which of the following best explains heterozygous advantage and overdominance?

A) A heterozygous individual can produce more varieties of homodimer proteins.
B)The alleles produce two different proteins with slightly different functions.
C) The proteins produced by the alleles may provide a broader range of environmental tolerance, such as temperature ranges.
D) Infectious organisms may recognize only a specific functional protein.
E) All of the answers are possibilities.

A

All of the answers are possibilities.

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79
Q

The alleles that cause Huntington disease in humans are an example of ____________.

A) essential genes
B) nonessential genes
C) semilethal alleles
D) lethal alleles
E) sex linked allele

A

lethal alleles

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80
Q

In rabbits, full coat color (C  ) is the dominant trait. A second allele, chinchilla (c ch ), is recessive to full coat color. Himalayan coat color (c h ) is recessive to chinchilla and full coat colors, and albino (c ) is recessive to all coat colors. If two chinchilla rabbits mate, what coat color is not possible in their offspring?

A) full coat color
B) chinchilla coat color
C) himalayan coat color
D) albino coat color
E) All coat colors are possible.

A

full coat color

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81
Q

In cattle, the scurs trait follows a sex-influenced pattern of inheritance. A heterozygous male has the _______ phenotype and a heterozygous female has a _______ phenotype.

A) hornless; scurs
B) scurs; hornless
C) hornless; hornless
D) scurs; scurs

A

scurs; hornless

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82
Q

The multiple effects of a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is called _______.

A) expressivity
B) epistasis
C) pleiotropy
D) overdominance
E) penetrance

A

pleiotropy

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83
Q

In which of the following organisms is the level of X chromosome expression altered in males?

A) C. elegans
B) Drosophila
C) mammals
D) humans

A

Drosophila

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84
Q

Who originally identified a highly condensed structure in the interphase of nuclei?

A) Ohno
B) Barr and Bertram
C) Lyon

A

Barr and Bertram

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85
Q

The coat color of calico cats is a result of _____.

A) imprinting
B) extra nuclear inheritance
C) maternal inheritance
D) X-inactivation

A

X-inactivation

86
Q

In a Z-W system, which is considered to be the homogametic sex?

A) males
B) females

A

males

87
Q

In humans, which sex is considered to be the heterogametic sex?

A) male
B) female

A

male

88
Q

A human individual has a karyotype that is XY but is phenotypically female. An explanation for this could be

A) sex is determined by genes located on autosomes, not sex chromosomes.
B) a deletion of the SRY gene on the Y chromosome, thus resulting in an female phenotype.
C) the SRY gene has been amplified 10 fold on the Y chromosome.
D) a translocation of the SRY gene to one of the X chromosomes has occurred, thus resulting in a female phenotype.

A

a deletion of the SRY gene on the Y chromosome, thus resulting in an female phenotype.

89
Q

If a gene is located on the X chromosome, but not the Y, it is said to be an example of ________.

A) reciprocal cross
B) sex-linkage
C) autosomal inheritance
D) pseudoautosomal inheritance
E) holandric

A

sex-linkage

90
Q

X-linked hypophosphatemia (XLH) is an X-linked dominant disease that results in weak or soft bones. A girl with XLH has a dad with XLH. Her mother does not have XLH. What is the probability that her sisters will have XLH? What about her brothers?

A) 50% of her brothers and sisters will have XLH.
B) None of her brothers or sisters will have XLH.
C) All of her sisters and none of her brothers will have XLH.
D) All of her brothers and sisters will have XLH.
E) All of her brothers and none of her sisters will have XLH.

A

All of her sisters and none of her brothers will have XLH.

91
Q

The first person to experimentally determine that a trait is located on a specific chromosome was ____________.

A) Mendel
B) Morgan
C) Boveri and Sutton
D) Weissman

A

Morgan

92
Q

Red-green colorblindness is a X-linked recessive trait in humans. If a woman who is a carrier for red-green colorblindness marries a normal male, what percent of their sons will be colorblind?

A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 0%

A

50%

93
Q

In genomic imprinting, erasure of DNA methylation occurs in the

A) chloroplasts.
B) cells destined to become gametes.
C) mitochondria.
D) somatic cells of the embryo.

A

cells destined to become gametes.

94
Q

R and r represent dominant and recessive alleles, respectively, for a gene that is imprinted. Imprinting of the allele occurs in the male and the allele is silenced when it is imprinted. Which mating would result in a ratio of 1:1 of dominant and recessive phenotypes in the offspring?

A) rr female x Rr male
B) rr female x RR male
C) Rr female x Rr male
D) RR female x rr male

A

Rr female x Rr male

95
Q

Heteroplasmy is associated with inheritance patterns involving _______.

A) nuclear genes
B) chloroplasts
C) genomic imprinting
D) ribosomes
E) maternal effect

A

chloroplasts

96
Q

Which mating of four-o’clock plants would produce progeny that were either green, variegated, or white if the color variation is due to a mutation in a chloroplast gene?

A) variegated female x green male
B) green female x variegated male
C) white female x white male
D) white female x green male

A

variegated female x green male

97
Q

What is a disease associated with extranuclear inheritance?

A) LHON
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Angelman syndrome
D) Muscular dystrophy

A

LHON

98
Q

Which of the following is primarily responsible for the maternal effect?

A) nurse cells
B) oocytes
C) sperm cells
D) placenta

A

A) nurse cells

99
Q

What is the genotype of the father for a snail that has the genotype Dd and has a left hand twist shell?

A) It cannot be determined.
B) dd
C) Dd
D) DD

A

It cannot be determined

100
Q

Who is largely responsible for proposing the endosymbiosis theory?

A) Haig and Schimper
B) Haig and Correns
C) Schimper and Wallin
D) Wallin and Correns

A

Schimper and Wallin

101
Q

Mitochondria are thought to have originated from ______, and chloroplasts likely arose from ______.

A) single-celled fungi; tobacco mosaic virus
B) purple bacteria; cyanobacteria
C) cyanobacteria; tobacco mosaic virus
D) purple bacteria; single-celled fungi

A

purple bacteria; cyanobacteria

102
Q

What type of inheritance is observed with extranuclear DNA?
A.Paternal inheritance
B.Mendelian inheritance
C.Sex-linked inheritance
D.Cytoplasmic inheritance

A

Cytoplasmic inheritance

103
Q

The inheritance patterns of genetic material that is not contained in the nucleus of the cell is called _______.

A

both extranuclear inheritance and cytoplasmic inheritance

104
Q

Diseases associated with mitochondria mutations in humans are usually

A

degenerative

105
Q

What would be the genotype of the mother of a female snail that has a Dd genotype and a shell with a left hand twist?

A

dd

106
Q

The multiple effects of a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is called _______.

a. epistasis
b. overdominance
c. penetrance
d. pleiotropy
e. expressivity

A

pleiotropy

107
Q

If an allele is dominant in one sex and recessive in another, it is an example of ___________.

a. sex-limited inheritance
b. sex-influenced inheritance
c. simple Mendelian inheritance
d. incomplete dominance

A

sex-influenced inheritance

108
Q

Genes that are not required for survival, but are likely to be beneficial to the organism, are called _________.

a. lethal alleles
b. conditional lethal alleles
c. essential genes
d. nonessential genes
e. semilethal alleles

A

nonessential genes

109
Q

A heterozygote possesses a phenotype that is intermediate between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes. This is most likely an example of ________.

a. sex-influenced inheritance
b. incomplete dominance
c. lethal alleles
d. gene dosage

A

incomplete dominance

110
Q

In overdominance, the _______ genotype is beneficial over the _______ genotypes.

a. homozygous recessive; homozygous dominant
b. heterozygous; homozygous
c. homozygous; heterozygous
d. homozygous dominant; homozygous recessive
e. incomplete dominant; codominant

A

heterozygous; homozygous

111
Q

When wild-type offspring are produced from a cross between parents that both display the same recessive phenotype, this illustrates the genetic phenomenon of _______.

a. simple recessive alleles
b. incomplete penetrance
c. a spontaneous mutation
d. gene dosage
e. complementation

A

complementation

112
Q

Polydactyly in humans is an example of __________.

a. incomplete dominance
b. gene dosage
c. incomplete penetrance
d. sex-limited inheritance
e. codominance

A

incomplete penetrance

113
Q

Sex determination in humans and Drosophila is similar in the fact that

a. females lack X chromosomes.
b. the ratio of X chromosomes to sets of autosomes determines maleness or femaleness in both.
c. males have one X chromosome and females have two X chromosomes.
d. males in both will always have one Y chromosome, whereas females will not have a Y chromosome.

A

males have one X chromosome and females have two X chromosomes.

114
Q

Who originally identified a highly condensed structure in the interphase of nuclei?

a. Barr and Bertram
b. Lyon
c. Ohno

A

Barr and Bertram

115
Q

In which of the following organisms is the level of X chromosome expression altered in males?

a. mammals
b. humans
c. C. elegans
d. Drosophila

A

Drosophila

116
Q

The Lyon hypothesis attempts to explain the molecular mechanism of _____.

a. maternal inheritance
b. X-inactivation
c. genomic imprinting
d. extra nuclear inheritance

A

X-inactivation

117
Q

The likelihood that the variation of observed data from expectations is due to random chance is called the _________.

a. goodness of fit
b. empirical approach
c. P value
d. degrees of freedom

A

P value

118
Q

If over several generations a character does not vary in a group of organisms, that group can be called a _______.

a. heterozygote
b. cross-fertilized line
c. true-breeding line
d. variant
e. hybrid

A

true-breeding line

119
Q

Consider a bird in which a high-pitched song (H) is dominant to a low-pitched song (h). You cross two birds that are heterozygous for the gene for song pitch. Predict the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring.

a. 1/4 HH: 1/2 Hh: 1/4 hh; 3/4 high-pitched song: 1/4 low-pitched song
b. 1/2 HH: 1/2 hh; 1/2 high-pitched song: 1/2 low-pitched song
c. 1/4 HH: 1/2 Hh: 1/4 hh; 1/2 high-pitched song: 1/2 low-pitched song
d. All Hh; All high-pitched song

A

1/4 HH: 1/2 Hh: 1/4 hh; 3/4 high-pitched song: 1/4 low-pitched song

120
Q

Which situation below would violate the law of independent assortment, as understood by Mendel?

a. Combining certain alleles of different genes results in a plant that grows poorly.
b. A mutant gene can prevent pod formation altogether, thus preventing expression of the round or wrinkled pea alleles.
c. A plant breeder is able to create a true-breeding line that combines the alleles for white flowers and wrinkled peas.
d. A gene for petal color does not affect the expression of a gene for petal number.
e. A gene for leaf shape is linked to a gene for petal number nearby on the same chromosome, so their alleles usually segregate together.

A

A gene for leaf shape is linked to a gene for petal number nearby on the same chromosome, so their alleles usually segregate together.

121
Q

In a genetic cross, the _______ represent offspring with genetic combinations that were not found in the parental lines.

a. nonrecombinants
b. P generation
c. parentals
d. nonparentals

A

nonparentals

122
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PDD) is an X-linked recessive disease. What is the probability that the brother of a girl with G6PDD will also have G6PDD if their mother is unaffected.

100%
25%
0%
50%

A

50%

123
Q

Brown spotting of the teeth in humans is caused by a dominant X-linked gene. If a man with normal teeth marries a woman with brown teeth who had a father with normal teeth, then _______ of their daughters will have brown teeth.

50%
0%
25%
100%

A

50%

124
Q

In certain birds, feather color is Z-linked, and green coloring is dominant to purple coloring. A purple feathered male mates with a green feathered female. Predict the phenotypic ratios in their offspring.

A) All of the progeny will be green.
B) Half of the offspring will be green females and the other half will be purple males.
C) Half of the offspring will be purple females and the other half will be green males.
D) 1/4 of the progeny will be green females, 1/4 green males, 1/4 purple females, and 1/4 purple males.

A

Half of the offspring will be purple females and the other half will be green males.

125
Q

How many Barr bodies would an individual with a XXY genotype possess?

1
2
0

A

1

126
Q

If two individuals with different distinct characteristics are mated, their offspring is called a _______.

hybrid
cross
true-breeding line
strain
gamete

A

hybrid

127
Q

Mendel’s data and the study of chromosomes and meiosis did not support the idea of _______, which is the belief that seeds are produced by all parts of the body and transmitted to the next generation.

A) the law of independent assortment
B) the law of segregation
C) the chromosome theory of inheritance
D) the blending theory of inheritance
E) pangenesis

A

pangenesis

128
Q

What resulted from Mendel’s work with single-factor crosses?

A. law of biological evolution
B. law of segregation
C. law of independent assortment
D. theory of natural selection

A

law of segregation

129
Q

To determine the genotype of a pea plant with purple flowers it was crossed with a pea plant with white flowers. Half of the offspring exhibited the dominant purple flower while the other half had white flowers. What was the genotype of the parental pea plant with the purple flowers?

can’t be determined
homozygous recessive
heterozygous
homozygous dominant

A

heterozygous

130
Q

Mendel’s work with two-factor crosses led directly to which of the following?

A) chromosomal theory of inheritance
B) theory of biological evolution
C) law of independent assortment
D) particulate theory of inheritance
E) law of segregation

A

law of independent assortment

131
Q

What aspect of meiosis best explains Mendel’s law of independent assortment?

A) selective removal of genetic information to create haploid gametes
B) transmission of genes together when they lie nearby on the same chromosome
C) separation of homologous chromosomes during Meiosis I
D) separation of identical alleles during Meiosis II
E) random alignment of different bivalents during Meiosis I

A

random alignment of different bivalents during Meiosis I

132
Q

Select the phase when sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell.

Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
Telophase
Prometaphase

A

Anaphase

133
Q

The physical structure that is formed when two chromatids cross over is called a(n) _______.

chiasma
karyotype
bivalent
synaptonemal complex

A

chiasma

134
Q

When does crossing over occur?

A) Prior to leptotene, when synapsis is complete
B) Prior to pachytene, before synapsis is complete
C) During diplotene
D) Prior to pachytene, when synapsis is complete
E) Prior to leptotene, before synapsis is complete

A

Prior to pachytene, when synapsis is complete

135
Q

A karyotype is a(n) __________.

A) organelle of eukaryotic cells
B) division of the cytoplasmic material following mitosis
C) photographic representation of the chromosome of a cell
D) stage of prophase I in meiosis

A

photographic representation of the chromosome of a cell

136
Q

Cell division in prokaryotic cells is called ________, while in eukaryotic cells it is called ________.

binary fission; binary fission
mitosis; mitosis
binary fission; mitosis
mitosis; binary fission

A

binary fission; mitosis

137
Q

A variation of a gene is called a(n)

A) allele
B) morph
C) genome
D) proteome
E) species

A

allele

138
Q

In plants, spore production occurs by

A) spermatogenesis
B) meiosis
C) oogenesis
D) mitosis
E) binary fission

A

meiosis

139
Q

In animals, somatic cells are ________ and gametes are __________.

A) haploid; haploid
B) diploid; haploid
C) haploid; diploid
D) diploid; diploid

A

diploid; haploid

140
Q

Select the phase when the nuclear membrane re-forms around the chromosomes.

A) Anaphase
B) Metaphase
C) Prometaphase
D) Telophase
E) Prophase

A

telophase

141
Q

A diploid cell in G1 contains 5 pairs of chromosomes. During mitosis, how many chromosomes will be lined up on the metaphase plate in this cell?

A) 15
B) 10
C) 5
D) 20

A

10

142
Q

If an organism has five pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomal combinations are possible at metaphase I of meiosis?

2^5
5^2
5^10
10^5

A

2^5

143
Q

The process of meiosis II is similar to that of __________.

A) mitosis
B) meiosis I
C) binary fission

A

mitosis

144
Q

Organelles are

A) the region that contains the DNA in prokaryotic cells
B) membrane-bound compartments of eukaryotic cells
C) the outer, rigid covering of a prokaryotic cell
D) structures that contain the genetic material

A

membrane-bound compartments of eukaryotic cells

145
Q

Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical

A) homologous chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) X and Y chromosomes
D) All of these choices are correct

A

sister chromatids

146
Q

Three populations of an organism, each with drastically different external markings, but still members of the same species, would be called _______.

A) mutants
B) morphs
C) communities
D) homologs
E) alleles

A

morphs

147
Q

Which one of the following is NOT one of the general classes of macromolecules that are necessary for cellular function?

A) lipids
B) nucleic acids
C) ions
D) carbohydrates
E) proteins

A

ions

148
Q

Select the phase when chromosomes start to condense.

a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Prometaphase
d. Telophase
e. Anaphase

A

Prophase

149
Q

The bivalent structure forms during which of the following?

a. pachytene
b. leptotene
c. diakinesis
d. zygotene
e. diplotene

A

zygotene

150
Q

The end result of meiosis in animals is ______.

a. four diploid cells
b. four haploid cells
c. two haploid cells
d. two diploid cells

A

four haploid cells

151
Q

Genes are physically located within ______.

a. microtubules
b. centrosomes
c. kinetochores
d. chromosomes

A

chromosomes

152
Q

During this phase of the cell cycle, the sister chromatids are formed in eukaryotes.

a. Cytokinesis
b. Prophase
c. G1 phase
d. G2 phase
e. S phase

A

S phase

153
Q

The basic unit of heredity is the ___________.

a. trait
b. gene
c. individual
d. macromolecule

A

gene

154
Q
A

environment

155
Q

_______ is the use of the information in gene sequences to synthesize functional proteins that affect cellular characteristics.

A) Gene expression
B) Proteomics
C) Loss-of-function mutation
D) The human genome project

A

Gene expression

156
Q

The building blocks of DNA are

amino acids
nucleotides
carbohydrates
lipids
enzymes

A

nucleotides

157
Q

The general purpose of the synaptonemal complex is to __________.

A

provide a link between homologous chromosomes in meiosis

158
Q

The observable characteristics of an organism are called its ___________.

A

phenotype

159
Q

In a certain family pedigree, you observe that 7 of a couple’s 12 children display a disease trait. In the subsequent generation, some of the children of affected individuals have the disease, but none of the children of two unaffected parents do. You conclude that the disease is caused by a ______ allele.

A

dominant

160
Q

The product of the Xist gene is a(n) ______.

A

RNA

161
Q

An example of a mechanism in which sex is determined by environmental factors is

A

fertilized eggs incubated at one temperature produce males, whereas eggs incubated at a different temperature produce females.

162
Q

Pseudoautosomal inheritance occurs when

A

a gene on a sex chromosome has the same inheritance pattern as a gene on an autosome.

163
Q

Several members of a family have polydactyly, and they differ in their numbers of extra fingers and toes. Yet, certain relatives who should have extra digits don’t. An aunt has two children, a son with two extra fingers and a daughter with an extra toe. Also her father has an extra digit on each hand and foot. Polydactyly in this family is
A.variably expressive and incompletely penetrant.
B.invariably expressive and completely penetrant.
C.pleiotropic.
D.incompletely dominant.

A

variably expressive and incompletely penetrant.

164
Q

An experiment in which plants with the same genotype are raised under conditions that differ in soil quality could evaluate ______.
A. overdominance
B. genetic polymorphisms
C. gene interactions
D. the norm of reaction

A

the norm of reaction

165
Q

Epistasis occurs when the alleles of one gene mask the phenotypic effects of the alleles of another gene at a different locus. This phenomenon can be observed in the sweet pea, Lathyrus odoratus: C (one purple-color-producing) allele is dominant to c (white); P (another purple-color-producing) allele is dominant to p (white); cc or pp masks the P or C alleles, producing white color. Determine the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of a cross between a purple and white sweet pea (CcPp x ccPP)

A

1 CcPP (purple) : 1 CcPp (purple) : 1 ccPP (white) : 1 ccPp (white)

166
Q

Sickle-cell disease in humans is an example of ______.

A

heterozygote advantage

167
Q

In four-o’clock plants, red flower color is dominant to white flower color. However, heterozygous plants have a pink color. If a pink-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, what will be the phenotypic ratios of their offspring?

A

½ pink, ½ white

168
Q

Recall that scurs in cattle that exhibit sex-influenced inheritance. There are two alleles ScP, which represents scurs being present and ScA, which indicates scurs being absent. ScP is dominant in males and recessive in females. ScA is dominant in females and recessive in males. From a mating between a heterozygous male with scurs and a heterozygous female without scurs, what proportion of male offspring will lack scurs (be hornless)?

A

25%

169
Q

Cytokinesis in animals occurs through the formation of a _______, whereas in plants a _______ forms.

A

cleavage furrow; cell plate

170
Q

A cross in which a researcher investigates the patterns of inheritance of a single trait is called a _______.

A

monohybrid cross

171
Q

A coin is flipped 100 times, with a result of 53 heads and 47 tails. The deviation between the observed numbers and the expected 50-50 results is called _________.

A

random sampling error

172
Q

Dosage compensation offsets the problem associated with differences in the number of ________ chromosomes in many species.
A. autosome
B. somatic
C. sex
D. nuclear

A

sex

173
Q

A male that is produced from an unfertilized haploid egg is an example of what type of sex determination system?
A. X-Y
B. Z-W
C. haplo-diploid
D. X-O

A

haplo-diploid

174
Q

A _______ allele typically encodes a protein that is made in the proper amount and functions normally.
A. wild-type
B. loss-of-function
C. lethal
D. gain-of-function
E. mutant

A

wild-type

175
Q

An experiment in which plants with the same genotype are raised under conditions that differ in soil quality could evaluate ______.
A. overdominance
B. genetic polymorphisms
C. gene interactions
D. the norm of reaction

A

the norm of reaction

176
Q

At the molecular level, type A and type B blood differ in which of the following characteristics?
A. the antigens present on the surface of the red blood cell
B. the type of sugar found in each type
C. the antibodies that are generated against the other blood type
D. all of these choices are correct

A

all of these choices are correct

177
Q

For a certain trait, a heterozygous individual has a selective advantage over a homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive individual. This is called ________.
A.codominance
B.incomplete dominance
C.multiple allele systems
D.overdominance
E.incomplete penetrance

A

overdominance

178
Q

You cross two dogs with an Irish spotting phenotype. Some of the progeny have the extreme-white phenotype. What were the genotypes of the parents?
A.sIsw and swsw
B.sIsI and swsw
C.S+sI and sIsw
D.sIsw and sIsw

A

sIsw and sIsw

179
Q

A paralog ____________.
A.only found on the X but not the Y chromosome
B. can explain the lack of phenotype for a gene knockout
C.is found for every gene in mammals
D.cannot be mutated
E.has the same DNA sequence as the original duplicated gene

A

can explain the lack of phenotype for a gene knockout

180
Q

Which type of microtubule is paired to its correct function?
a. aster microtubules - position the spindle apparatus
b. polar microtubules - attach to the kinetochore
c. kinetochore microtubules - separate the poles

A

aster microtubules - position the spindle apparatus

181
Q

A pollen grain in a plant represents the ________.

A

male gametophyte

182
Q

In a two-factor cross using Mendelian inheritance, if both parents are heterozygous for both traits, what will be the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?

A

9:3:3:1

183
Q

Recall that in pea plants, purple flower color is dominant and white is recessive. If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what is the probability that the first two offspring will have purple flowers?

A

9/16

184
Q

In a dihybrid cross of two heterozygous individuals, you expect a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in the offspring, but observe a ratio of 9:7. What is the most likely explanation?

A

epistatic interactions of the two genes

185
Q

What disease is associated with imprinting?

A

Angelman Syndrome

186
Q

What is the type of inheritance that is based on a reversible modification of genomic DNA that results in the alleles of only one parent being transcriptionally active?

A

epigentic

187
Q

How is a chloroplast genome similar to a prokaryotic genome?
A.There is only one chromosome per cell or chloroplast.
B.They are both circular.
C.They both code for all the proteins they need for functioning.
D.They are both linear.

A

They are both circular.

188
Q

Where is extranuclear DNA located in mammalian cells?

A

mitochondria

189
Q

If a snail that has a right hand twist and is DD is mated to a snail that has a left hand twist and is dd what is the expected ratio of progeny?

A

It depends on which parent snail is female and which is male.

190
Q

A nurse cell is a cell that

A

surrounds an oocyte during oogenesis

191
Q

The symbiotic relationship where one organism lives inside another species is called
A.heteroplasmy.
B.cytoplasmic inheritance.
C.endosymbiosis.
D.exosymbiosis.
E.genomic imprinting.

A

endosymbiosis.

192
Q

What is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene?
A.methylation
B.nitration
C.phosphorylation
D.acetylation

A

methylation

193
Q

The molecular explanation for imprinting in mammals involves differential _______ of various DNA regions.
A.mutations
B.endosymbiosis
C.methylation
D.heteroplasmy
E.phosphorylation

A

methylation

194
Q

G and g are dominant and recessive alleles, respectively, for a gene. If a mating of a gg female with a Gg male resulted in offspring that all have the recessive phenotype, this would most likely be an example of
A.a recessive lethal gene.
B.a maternal effect gene.
C.imprinting which results in silencing of the maternal alleles.
D.environmental influence on phenotype.

A

a maternal effect gene.

195
Q

An individual with type A blood and an individual with type B blood mate and have offspring. What blood type is not possible in their offspring?

A) type AB blood
B) type O blood
C) All blood types are possible.
D) type B blood
E) type A blood

A

All blood types are possible.

196
Q

Alleles that cause death in a certain temperature range are examples of _________.

A) semilethal alleles
B) lethal alleles
C) nonessential genes
D) conditional lethal alleles
E) essential genes

A

conditional lethal alleles

197
Q

Contribution of mitochondria by the sperm cell to the zygote is called

A) endosymbiosis.
B) heteroplasmy.
C) paternal effect.
D) paternal leakage.
E) genomic imprinting.

A

paternal leakage.

198
Q

What controls the coiling of shells in snail offspring?

A) father’s phenotype
B) mother’s genotype
C) mother’s phenotype
D) father’s genotype

A

mother’s genotype

199
Q

In maternal effect, the _____ of the mother determines the _______ of the offspring.

a) phenotype, genotype
b) genotype, phenotype
c) rRNA, tRNA
d) imprinting, genotype

A

genotype, phenotype

200
Q

The interaction of two genes to produce a phenotype was first described by ______.
A. Morgan and Bridges
B. Mendel
C. Darwin
D. Bateson and Punnett
E. None of these choices are correct.

A

Bateson and Punnett

201
Q

Statistical analysis determines the _______ between observed data and what was expected from the original hypothesis.

A

goodness of fit

202
Q

Which of the following characteristics made the pea plant Pisum sativum an ideal organism for Mendel’s studies?
A) It has the ability to self-fertilize.
B) It was possible to cross-fertilize one plant with another.
C) It has easily identifiable traits.
D) All of these choices

A

All of these choices

203
Q

Which of the following indicates the correct order of these events? Think Mitosis.

A

Prophase - Prometaphase - Metaphase - Anaphase - Telophase

204
Q

The differences in inherited traits among individuals in a population are called _______.

A

genetic variation

205
Q

You are a geneticist studying a newly discovered genetic disorder. The disorder follows a pattern of maternal inheritance, and both male and female children are affected. Strangely, within a family, all the children are affected but to very different degrees. What could explain this variation?
A.The disorder is caused by a nuclear mutation and the variation is due to X-chromosome inactivation.
B.The disorder is caused by a nuclear mutation and the variation is due to maternal effect.
C.The disorder is caused by a mitochondrial mutation and the variation is due to imprinting.
D.The disorder is caused by a mitochondrial mutation and the variation is due to heteroplasmy.

A

The disorder is caused by a mitochondrial mutation and the variation is due to heteroplasmy.

206
Q

Monoallelic expression is associated with which of the following?

A

genomic imprinting

207
Q

What gene is most responsible for X-inactivation?

A

X-ist

208
Q

Select the phase during which the centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell.

A

prophase

209
Q

In humans, gametes are different than other cells of the body in that they are_____

A

haploid

210
Q

Most cellular characteristics, such as structure and function, are the result of the synthesis and activity of different ______.

A

proteins

211
Q

select the phase when the microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to the kinetochores
A) Prometaphase
B) Telophase
C) Prophase
D) Anaphase
E) Metaphase

A

Prometaphase

GENETICS (5 decks)

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