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G12 Q2 Exam Review > Gen Biology > Flashcards

Gen Biology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which statement accurately describes the differences in outcomes and contributions to genetic diversity between mitosis and meiosis?
    A. Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells, while meiosis generates genetic diversity through homologous
    recombination.
    B. Mitosis creates genetic diversity through crossing over, while meiosis leads to identical daughter cells.
    C. Both mitosis and meiosis produce genetically diverse cells through random chromosome segregation.
    D. Both mitosis and meiosis produce genetically identical cells due to DNA replication.
A

A. Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells, while
meiosis generates genetic diversity through homologous
recombination.

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2
Q
  1. Evaluate the significance of homologous recombination during meiosis. How does this process contribute to genetic diversity, and what would occur in its absence during meiotic divisions?
    A. Homologous recombination increases genetic diversity through the exchange of genetic material.
    A. Homologous recombination introduces mutations, reducing genetic diversity.
    A. The absence of homologous recombination has no impact on genetic diversity.
    A. Homologous recombination ensures identical offspring.
A

A. Homologous recombination increases genetic diversity through
the exchange of genetic material.

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3
Q
  1. In preparation for metaphase I during meiosis in a primary
    spermatocyte from a grasshopper testis, which step must occur
    first?
    A. The chromosomes inside the spermatocyte must undergo separation of their sister chromatids first
    A. The chromosomes inside the spermatocyte must move to opposite poles of the cell first.
    A. The chromosomes inside the spermatocyte must undergo an exchange of genetic material first.
    A. The chromosomes inside the spermatocyte must double in number first.
A

C. The chromosomes inside the spermatocyte must undergo an
exchange of genetic material first.

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4
Q
  1. Down syndrome is also known as ____________.
    A. Monosomy 21
    A. Trisomy 21
    A. Trisomy 18
    A. Trisomy 22
A

B.

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5
Q
  1. If an egg with 22 autosomes is fertilized by a sperm with 22
    autosomes and an X chromosome, the offspring will be
    ____________.
    A. female, XXX
    A. female, XO
    A. male, XXY
    A. male, XO
A

B.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes plants’
    chlorophyll and other accessory pigments?
    I. Chlorophyll provides the enzymes needed to produce
    carbohydrates.
    II. Chlorophyll molecules transfer photons from one to another.
    III. Chlorophyll absorbs light of specific wavelengths.
    IV. Plant pigments absorb solar energy.
    A. II, III, and IV only
    B. I, II, and III only
    C. III only
    D. I only
A

A.

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7
Q
  1. What is the final electron acceptor in the light reactions?
    A. Chlorophyll
    B. Oxygen
    C. NADP+
    D. Water
A

C.

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8
Q
  1. Following the generation of a proton gradient, protons flow back into the stroma through ATP synthase. Describe the pattern of electron flow during the light reactions.
    A. Proton flow powers the conversion of ADP to ATP.
    B. Protons are released into the thylakoid lumen.
    C. Protons combine with electrons to form water.
    D. Protons facilitate the reduction of NADP+.
A

A. Proton flow powers the conversion of ADP to ATP.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the movement
    of electrons during the light reactions of plants?
    A. P680 to P700 to Water to NADP+
    B. Water to P700 to NADP+ to P680
    C. P700 to P680 to NADP+ to Water
    D. Water to P680 to P700 to NADP+
A

D.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is mismatched?
    A. P700 of Photosystem I - passes the electron to the primary acceptor
    B. Photosystem II - absorbs photons of light energy
    C. Ferredoxin - transfers the electron to NADP
    D. Photolysis - replaces electron in P700
A

D.

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11
Q
  1. Suppose a scientist studies the differences in carbon dioxide availability for the Calvin cycle. Plant A is supplied with more carbon dioxide than Plant B. How would this affect the Calvin cycle process?
    A. Both plants A and B would show identical Calvin cycle processes due to carbon dioxide being a limiting factor.
    B. Plant B would demonstrate a higher efficiency in utilizing carbon dioxide during the Calvin cycle.
    C. The carbon dioxide supply would not impact the Calvin cycle in
    either plant A or B.
    D. Plant A would exhibit an increase in the rate of carbon fixation in the Calvin cycle.
A

D.

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12
Q
  1. How will NADH be utilized in aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
    A. NADH is oxidized and reduced in both aerobic and anaerobic
    processes.
    B. NADH is reduced in aerobic but not in anaerobic respiration.
    C. NADH is oxidized in anaerobic but not in aerobic respiration.
    D. NADH utilization is independent of the type of respiration.
A

C. NADH is oxidized in anaerobic but not in aerobic respiration.

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13
Q
  1. Certain organisms, such as some species of bacteria, can only thrive in anaerobic environments. What advantages or disadvantages can this have in different environments?
    A. The bacteria will have advantages in aerobic environments.
    B. The bacteria can only survive in oxygen-rich environments.
    C. The bacteria cannot survive in oxygen-rich environments.
    D. There is no significant impact on the organism
A

C. The bacteria cannot survive in oxygen-rich environments.

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14
Q
  1. What contributes to the higher ATP yield in aerobic processes?
    A. The presence of oxygen in the process.
    B. The temperature of the environment.
    C. The number of mitochondria.
    D. The process of glycolysis.
A

A. The presence of oxygen in the process.

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15
Q
  1. In a scenario where a cell is experiencing low oxygen levels,
    leading to anaerobic conditions, which stage of cellular respiration
    would still be functional, producing ATP without the involvement of
    the Electron Transport System and chemiosmosis?
    A. Electron Transport Chain
    B. Chemiosmosis
    C. Krebs Cycle
    D. Glycolysis
A

D. Glycolysis

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16
Q

In a species with a diploid number of 16 chromosomes, how many unique combinations of chromosomes can be produced through independent assortment during metaphase 1?

a.8
b.64
c.16
d.256

A

D. 256

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17
Q

During Prophase I of Meiosis I, which events occur?
a.
Homologous chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate.

b.
Daughter cells are formed.

c.
Centromeres split, and chromatids separate.

d.
Chromosomes condense, and the nuclear envelope dissolves.

A

d.
Chromosomes condense, and the nuclear envelope dissolves.

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18
Q

Meiosis has a significant role in the production of gametes for sexual reproduction. What is the main advantage of this for species survival?

a.
Increased genetic diversity

b.
Reduced genetic diversity

c.
Faster reproductive rates

d.
Cloning Capability

A

a.
Increased genetic diversity

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19
Q

Which of the following would be the result of nondisjunction of the autosomes?

a.
Jacob’s Syndrome (XYY)
b.
Turner Syndrome XO
c.
Trisomy 21
d.
XXX Syndrome

A

c.
Trisomy 21

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20
Q

Nondisjunction can occur during meiosis if?
Question 5Answer

a.
members of the homologous pair fail to separate.

b.
the daughter cells fail to separate

c.
none of the choices

A

a.
members of the homologous pair fail to separate.

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21
Q

In which phase of Prophase I do tetrads form?

a.
Leptotene

b.
Diplotene

c.
Pachytene

d.
Zygotene

A

d.
Zygotene

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22
Q

Which among the following describes crossing-over?
Question 7Answer

a.
homologous chromosomes cross over to opposite sides of the cell.

b.
homologous chromosomes exchange chromosomal material.

c.
kinetochore fibers attach to both sides of a centromere.

d.
homologous chromosomes become closely associated along their lengths

A

b.
homologous chromosomes exchange chromosomal material.

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23
Q

Which term refers to the random assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes during meiosis, contributing to genetic diversity?

a.
Homologous recombination

b.
Chromosomal translocation

c.
Somatic cell division

d.
Independent assortment

A

d.
Independent assortment

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24
Q

What term describes the situation when a segment of one chromosome breaks off and becomes attached to a different, non-homologous chromosome?

a.
Inversion

b.
Deletion

c.
Translocation

d.
Addition

A

c.
Translocation

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25
Q

In meiosis, homologous chromosomes are separated during which phase?

a.
Anaphase I

b.
Metaphase II

c.
Telophase II

d.
Prophase II

A

a.
Anaphase I

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26
Q

How many chromosomes are in a tetrad during prophase I of meiosis?

a.
1

b.
3

c.
2

d.
4

A

c.
2

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27
Q

During prophase I of meiosis, a diploid cell with 46 chromosomes undergoes a series of events. At the end of prophase I, how many individual chromosomes are in each cell?

a.
23

b.
46

c.
4

d.
92

A

b.
46

28
Q

In a karyotype analysis, a patient’s cells are found to have an extra copy of chromosome 21. What is the likely result of this chromosomal abnormality?

a.
Patau Syndrome

b.
Down Syndrome

c.
Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

d.
Turner syndrome (Monosomy X).

A

b.
Down Syndrome

29
Q

In a hypothetical organism, during metaphase I of meiosis, a cell has 8 tetrads lined up along the metaphase plate. How many individual chromosomes are present in this cell at this stage?

a.
64

b.
8

c.
32

d.
16

A

d.
16

30
Q

Which of the following is an example of a haploid cell?

a.
Muscle cell

b.
Skin cell

c.
Liver cell

d.
Sperm cell

A

d.
Sperm cell

31
Q

During what stage of meiosis does crossing over, or genetic recombination, occur?

a.
Prophase I

b.
Telophase I

c.
Metaphase I

d.
Anaphase I

A

a.
Prophase I

32
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE when cells undergo meiosis?

a.
Meiosis occurs in the production of egg and sperm cells in animals.

b.
Meiosis ensures that each generation has a different genetic makeup than the previous one.

c.
Meiosis ensures that each newly formed daughter cell receives the same number and kinds of chromosomes.

d.
Meiosis ensures that the chromosome number remains constant from generation to generation.

A

c.
Meiosis ensures that each newly formed daughter cell receives the same number and kinds of chromosomes.

33
Q

What is the significance of independent assortment in meiosis?

a.
Independent assortment leads to genetic diversity in offspring by randomly distributing maternal and paternal chromosomes.

b.
Independent assortment ensures that sister chromatids separate during anaphase II.

c.
Independent assortment prevents the formation of nonfunctional gametes.

d.
Independent assortment allows for the repair of damaged DNA during meiosis.

A

a.
Independent assortment leads to genetic diversity in offspring by randomly distributing maternal and paternal chromosomes.

34
Q

If 6 cells undergoing cell division have 6 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will there be in the daughter cells after cytokinesis in mitosis and cytokinesis in meiosis II, respectively?

a.
6 and 6

b.
6 and 24

c.
6 and 3

d.
12 and 24

A

c.
6 and 3

35
Q

A genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra Y chromosome in males is known as:

a.
Down syndrome

b.
Klinefelter syndrome

c.
Edwards syndrome

d.
Turner syndrome

A

b.
Klinefelter syndrome

36
Q

Which of the following classifications is mismatched?

a.
Chemiosmosis: Creates a proton gradient

b.
Chemiosmosis: Makes ATP using a proton gradient

c.
ETC: Oxidizes FADH2 to FAD

d.
ETC: Oxidizes NADH to NAD+

A

a.
Chemiosmosis: Creates a proton gradient

37
Q

Carbon dioxide is converted to G3P in what stage of photosynthesis?

a.
Calvin Cycle

b.
Krebs Cycle

c.
Glycolysis

d.
Light reactions

A

a.
Calvin Cycle

38
Q

There is an increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere. How would this change in concentration affect a plant’s photosynthesis rate?
Question 3Answer

a.
There is no change in the rate of photosynthesis

b.
The rate of photosynthesis stays the same

c.
There is a decrease in the rate of photosynthesis

d.
There is an increase in the rate of photosynthesis

A

d.
There is an increase in the rate of photosynthesis

39
Q

Photosynthesis is an example of which type of chemical reaction?

a.
Decomposition

b.
Reduction-Oxidation

c.
Combustion

d.
Hydrolysis

A

b.
Reduction-Oxidation

40
Q

Which of the following metabolic processes is common to both aerobic respiration and fermentation?

a.
Oxidative phosphorylation

b.
Citric acid cycle

c.
Electron transport chain

d.
Glycolysis

A

d.
Glycolysis

41
Q

Which of the following light colors is least effective in driving the light reactions of photosynthesis?

a.
Blue

b.
Green

c.
Red

d.
Violet

A

b.
Green

42
Q

A bacterium takes in 2 molecules of glucose. At the end of glycolysis, what will be the products?
Question 7Answer

a.
1 Pyruvate, 1 ATP and 1 NADH

b.
2 Pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 NADH

c.
4 Pyruvate, 4 ATP and 4 NADH

d.
4 Pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 CO2

A

c.
4 Pyruvate, 4 ATP and 4 NADH

43
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding chemiosmosis?
Question 8Answer

a.
ATP synthesis creates a proton gradient that causes electron flow through an electron transport chain.

b.
A temperature gradient drives ATP synthesis.

c.
The energy from a proton gradient is used to make ATP.

d.
Chemiosmosis regenerates electron carriers like NADH and FADH2.

A

c.
The energy from a proton gradient is used to make ATP.

44
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the difference between lactic acid and alcohol fermentation?
Question 9Answer

a.
Lactic acid fermentation produces lactic acid as a product, and alcohol fermentation produces ethanol.

b.
Lactic acid fermentation produces a 2-carbon compound, while alcohol fermentation produces a 3-carbon compound.

c.
Carbon dioxide is released only during alcohol fermentation.

d.
Lactic acid fermentation can occur in large muscles in the human body, while alcohol fermentation occurs in yeast.

A

b.
Lactic acid fermentation produces a 2-carbon compound, while alcohol fermentation produces a 3-carbon compound.

45
Q

What is the balanced chemical equation for cellular respiration?
Question 10Answer

a.
C6H12O6 + 6O2 yields 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP)

b.
C6H12O6 + O2 yields 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP)

c.
C6H12O6 + 6O2 yields CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP)

d.
6C6H12O6 + 6O2 yields 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP)

A

a.
C6H12O6 + 6O2 yields 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP)

46
Q

Aerobic cellular respiration requires an adequate supply of:
Question 11Answer

a.
Starch

b.
Oxygen

c.
Carbon dioxide

d.
Ethyl alcohol

A

b.
Oxygen

47
Q

Plants and animals exchange materials through the processes of photosynthesis and respiration. Which of these statements is true about how these two processes are related?
Question 12Answer

a.
The products of photosynthesis inhibit respiration

b.
The products of photosynthesis are the reactants of cellular respiration.

c.
The products of photosynthesis are also the products of cellular respiration.

d.
The reactants of photosynthesis are also the reactants of cellular respiration.

A

b.
The products of photosynthesis are the reactants of cellular respiration.

48
Q

What is the final product of the light reactions that serve as an energy carrier for the Calvin cycle?
Question 13Answer

a.
Glucose

b.
NADPH

c.
ATP

d.
Oxygen

A

c.
ATP

49
Q

During the Calvin Cycle, how much carbon dioxide produces one molecule of a 6-carbon compound?
Question 14Answer

a.
9

b.
6

c.
12

d.
3

A

b.
6

50
Q

When do organisms use anaerobic pathways to generate energy?
Question 15Answer

a.
When the cytoplasm is unavailable for cellular respiration.

b.
When the Krebs cycle is moving too slowly.

c.
When glucose is available as a reactant.

d.
When there is not enough oxygen available to undergo aerobic cellular respiration.

A

d.
When there is not enough oxygen available to undergo aerobic cellular respiration.

51
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question 16Answer

a.
At the end of the electron transport chain, oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor.

b.
At the end of the electron transport chain, carbon dioxide acts as the final electron acceptor.

c.
Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor for Glycolysis.

A

a.
At the end of the electron transport chain, oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor.

52
Q

Which of the following is a practical application of photosynthesis in daily life?
Question 17Answer

a.
Manufacturing Plastics

b.
Producing food through agriculture

c.
Generating electricity

d.
Purifying water

A

b.
Producing food through agriculture

53
Q

What is the primary purpose of photolysis in photosynthesis?
Question 18Answer

a.
To release energy for ATP synthesis.

b.
To produce oxygen and provide electrons for the electron transport chain.

c.
To transport protons across the thylakoid membrane.

d.
To convert carbon dioxide into glucose.

A

b.
To produce oxygen and provide electrons for the electron transport chain.

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT a product of the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)?
Question 19Answer

a.
FADH2

b.
Carbon dioxide

c.
NADH

d.
Citrate

A

d.
Citrate

55
Q

What is the primary pigment responsible for photosynthesis which captures light energy?
Question 20Answer

a.
Chloroplast

b.
Chlorophyll

c.
Xanthophyll

d.
Carotenoids

A

b.
Chlorophyll

56
Q

In some instances, a plant can undergo cyclic electron flow. This process is used to produce additional ATP to meet the plant cell’s energy needs. However, through this process, a molecule needed for carbon reactions is not produced. What is the molecule?
Question 21Answer

a.
Carbon dioxide

b.
NADP

c.
ADP

d.
NADPH

A

d.
NADPH

57
Q

Which process directly produces the most NADH molecules during cellular respiration?
Question 22Answer

a.
Electron transport chain

b.
Glycolysis

c.
Pyruvate decarboxylation

d.
Citric acid cycle

A

d.
Citric acid cycle

58
Q

In an experiment, a researcher increases the carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration available to a group of plants. What would be the most likely effect on their photosynthetic rate?
Question 23Answer

a.
The photosynthetic rate would increase, as CO2 is a limiting factor in photosynthesis.

b.
The photosynthetic rate would be unaffected, as light intensity is the primary factor.

c.
The photosynthetic rate would remain constant, as CO? does not impact the process.

d.
The photosynthetic rate would decrease due to an excess of CO?.

A

a.
The photosynthetic rate would increase, as CO2 is a limiting factor in photosynthesis.

59
Q

Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reactions in photosynthesis?
Question 24Answer

a.
Glucose

b.
Oxygen

c.
NADPH

d.
ATP

A

a.
Glucose

60
Q

Which 3-carbon molecule is one of the final products of glycolysis?
Question 25Answer

a.
Pyruvate

b.
2-phosphoglycerate

c.
Glucose

d.
ADP

A

a.
Pyruvate

61
Q

What is the primary function of the Calvin Cycle in photosynthesis?
Question 26Answer

a.
Releasing oxygen

b.
Converting carbon dioxide into organic molecules

c.
Absorbing light energy

d.
Producing ATP and NADPH

A

b.
Converting carbon dioxide into organic molecules

62
Q

Suppose you are growing two plants under two different light sources. Plant A is placed under a light source that emits visible light, and Plant B is placed under ultraviolet light. Which of the following plants will you expect to undergo photosynthesis?
Question 27Answer

a.
None of the plants

b.
Both Plants A and B

c.
Plant A

d.
Plant B

A

c.
Plant A

63
Q

What is the net gain of ATP molecules produced during glycolysis per glucose molecule?
Question 28Answer

a.
2 ATPs

b.
4 ATPs

c.
6 ATPs

d.
36 ATPs

A

a.
2 ATPs

64
Q

What is the function of the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) in cellular respiration?
Question 29Answer

a.
To generate ATP

b.
To reduce oxygen to water

c.
To produce NADH and FADH2 for the electron transport chain

d.
To break down pyruvate into carbon dioxide

A

c.
To produce NADH and FADH2 for the electron transport chain

65
Q

What is the initial source of electrons for the electron transport chain in light reactions?
Question 30Answer

a.
Water

b.
Carbon dioxide

c.
Glucose

d.
Oxygen

A

a.
Water

66
Q
A

G12 Q2 Exam Review (5 decks)

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