geeky medics Flashcards

1
Q

thalassaemias is a group of genetic disorders that lead to

A

reduced haemoglobin in red blood cells

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2
Q

alpha genes located on chromosome

A

16

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3
Q

beta chains located on chromosome

A

11

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4
Q

alpha thalassaemias will cause an excess of

A

unpaired beta globin chains and vice versa

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5
Q

when 4 alpha globin genes are affected in thalassaemia it can lead to

A

hydrops fetalis

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6
Q

blood film of the thalassaemia show what

A

hypochromic, microcytic

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7
Q

hair on end appearance can be seen on xray in

A

thalassaemia

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8
Q

what is differentiates thalassaemias from iron deficiency anaemia

A

thalassaemia has normal ferritin

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9
Q

what is LFTs are raised in thalassaemias

A

isolated hyperbilirubinemia

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10
Q

what stippling can be seen in thalassaemias

A

basophil

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11
Q

mx for thalassaemias

A

regular red cell transfusions to maintain haemoglobin levels

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12
Q

what supplements can be given for thalassaemis

A

folic acid

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13
Q

thalassaemias inheritance pattern

A

autosomal recessive

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14
Q

are there the same amount of alpha and beta genes

A

no there is twice as many alpha genes

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15
Q

hypsplenism increases the risk from infection of what

A

pneumococcal

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16
Q

leading cause of death in thalassaemias

A

heart failure secondary to iron induced cardiomyopathy

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17
Q

Vitamin B12 is called

A

cobalamin

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18
Q

folate is vitamin …

A

B9

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19
Q

pica and restless leg syndrome can be seen in

A

iron deficiency

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20
Q

there is a direct correlation between serum ferritin and

A

overall iron stores in health however serum ferritin is also an acute phase protein

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21
Q

in suspected iron deficiency anaemia. initial screening investigations should include

A

FBC, CRP and seum ferritin

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22
Q

if iron deficiency the body will produce more what

A

transferrin

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23
Q

what can predict iron response in patients with CKD

A

Mean reticulocyte haemoglobin

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24
Q

serum iron is useless. it only measures iron in what state

A

ferric - FE3

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25
Q

what is a negative acute phase protein and so decreases in inflammatory states

A

transferrin

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26
Q

what can help distinguish anaemia of chronic disease from iron deficiency anaemia

A

soluble transferrin receptors

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27
Q

what can also present with glossitis

A

vit b12 deficiency

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28
Q

drugs that can decrease levels of vitamin B12

A

Metformin, anti-convulsants, proton pump inhibitors/H2 antagonists, hormone replacement therapy/combined oral contraceptive pill, colchicine and certain antibiotics

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29
Q

patients who have undergone what surgery can often develop vitamin B12 deficiency

A

gastric or bariatric

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30
Q

what is the primary investigation for vitamin B12 deficiency

A

serum cobalamin

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31
Q

blood film may show macrocytosis, hyperhsegmented neutrophils and oval macrocytes in

A

vit B12 defieicny

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32
Q

if vit B12 deficiency ans has FH of — or personal history of autoimmune condition investigate for

A

pernicious anaemia

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33
Q

once treatment of IM bit B12 injections what should increase in the first 7-10 days

A

reticulocyte count

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34
Q

where is folate absorbed

A

terminal ileum

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35
Q

half of the bodies folate is found where

A

liver

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36
Q

what is important in DNA synthesis

A

folate

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37
Q

class of medications that can cause folate deficiency

A

anti epileptics

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38
Q

average human has how many litres of blood

A

5

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39
Q

what is the majority of blood

A

plasma

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40
Q

the Buffy coat consist of

A

leukocytes and platlets

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41
Q

what are the most numerous of the leukocytes

A

neutrophils

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42
Q

what are the most common agranular leukocyte

A

lymphocytes

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43
Q

what cells eradicate virus infected cells

A

NK

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44
Q

kupffer cells of the liver or microglia of the CNS are what kind of cells

A

macrophages

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45
Q

triad of hyperviscocity syndrome

A

visual changes, mucosal bleeding and neurological symptoms

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46
Q

plasma mostly consists of

A

water

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47
Q

ABO gene is on chromosome

A

9

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48
Q

if not given anti d infections in negative mother and positive baby the next baby could get

A

haemolytic disease of the newborn

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49
Q

what invasive procedure might mean you need to give anti D

A

amniocentesis

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50
Q

what is the only antibody that can cross the placenta

A

IgG

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51
Q

ABO antibodies are typically

A

IgM

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52
Q

an ideal blood transition would have

A

identical ABO and Rh group

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53
Q

what is emergency blood that can be given to everyone

A

O negative blod

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54
Q

what are not being transfused in plasma exchange

A

antigens

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55
Q

what is the universal donor for plasma

A

AB

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56
Q

factor II is usually referred to as

A

thrombin

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57
Q

what mediates the extrinsic pathway

A

tissue factor

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58
Q

in the extrinsic pathway, tissue factor combines with factor 7 to form a complex that activates factor

A

10

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59
Q

factor 10a combines with factor 5 and some other stuff to convert prothrombin into

A

thrombin (common pathway )

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60
Q

common pathway activates what factor

A

10

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61
Q

things that inhibit the coagualtion cascade

A

Protein C, S, antithrombin

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62
Q

when warfarin treatment is initiated what must also be prescribed alongside until the INR is in target range

A

LMWH

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63
Q

prothrombin time for what pathway

A

extrinsic

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64
Q

causes of prolonged PT

A

DIC, vit K deficiency and chronic liver disease

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65
Q

what is the vitamin K dependent clotting factor with the shortest half life

A

7

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66
Q

prothrombin time forms the basis of what ratio

A

INR

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67
Q

INR monitors the levels of

A

anticoagulation

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68
Q

causes of a prolonged APTT

A

DIC, haemophilia, lupus anticoagulant, von willebrands disease

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69
Q

activation of what clotting factor leads to the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin

A

10

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70
Q

what is the % of blood that is made up by red cells

A

haematocrit

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71
Q

3 key causes of secondary polycythaemia to remember

A

COPD, OSA, cushings syndrome, alcohol

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72
Q

relative polycythameias can be caused by

A

low fluid intake or burns (states of excess fluid loss)

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73
Q

other cause of macrocytic anaemia

A

myeloma

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74
Q

raised what can lead to hyper viscosity syndrome

A

haematocrit

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75
Q

what is anisocytosis

A

red cells of varying sizes

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76
Q

what reticulocyte count implies a problem with the bone marrow

A

low

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77
Q

other causes of leukocytosis

A

steroids, acute leukemias

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78
Q

what white cells account for the majority of them in the blood

A

neutrophils and lymphocytes

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79
Q

a cause of lymphopenia

A

HIV

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80
Q

when basophilia is present alongside elevated neutrophil and eosinophil counts or if the elevation is significantly above the normal range, this should raise the suspicion of

A

myeloproliferative disorder

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81
Q

blasts are usually only found in the bone marrow and high numbers in circulating blood could be caused by a

A

leukaemia

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82
Q

platelets are what shaped

A

disc

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83
Q

pregnancy causes of acute thrombocytopenia

A

pre eclampsia

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84
Q

cause of chronic thrombocytopenia

A

HIV

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85
Q

what haemolysis is more common

A

extravascular

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86
Q

extravascular haemolytic occurs primarily in the

A

spleen

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87
Q

if intravascular haemolytic predominates the patient may complain of what … due to haemoglobinuria

A

back pain and dark urine

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88
Q

in haemolytic anaemia, urinalysis will show

A

increased urinary urobilinogen, but conjugated bilirubin will be negative

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89
Q

The presence of blood on a dipstick urine sample but the absence of red cells on microscopy suggests haemoglobinuria, which is seen in

A

intravascular haemolysis

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90
Q

what is a non specific marker of cell turnover and is significantly raised in haemolytic

A

serum lactate dehydrogenase

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91
Q

what lab features may show in intravascular haemolysis

A

decresed plasma haptoglobin and urine dipstick may show haemoglobinuria

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92
Q

is a protein that ‘mops up’ free circulating haemoglobin so that it can be removed by the liver. It will therefore be reduced in intravascular haemolysis as a large amount of free haemoglobin is present in the circulation.

A

haptoglobin

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93
Q

what may occur after several weeks of intravascular haemolysis

A

haemosiderinuria

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94
Q

what can be detetected in the urine at least one week after onset of haemosideruria

A

Prussian blue staining

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95
Q

what is when haptoglobin capacity is depleted and free haemoglobin accumulates in the renal tubules

A

haemosiderinuria

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96
Q

what test is an important part of the haemolysis screen

A

Direct Coombs test

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97
Q

The Direct Coombs test identifies red cells coated with… , which suggests an immune cause for the haemolysis

A

antibody or complement components

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98
Q

what can a hypo chromic microcytic indicate

A

thalassaemia

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99
Q

what are schistocytes

A

fragments of red blood cells

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100
Q

schistocytes are seen in the microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia eg

A

(TTP, HUS, HELLP, and DIC).

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101
Q

what is the other that spherocytes might be seen in

A

autoimmune haemolysis

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102
Q

heinz bodies and bite cells may be seen in

A

G6PD deficiency

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103
Q

what is an important cause of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

CLL

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104
Q

in sickle cell disease what agent reduces haemolysis and crises

A

Hydroxycarbamide

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105
Q

… is also given as standard in chronic haemolysis even if levels are normal

A

folate

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106
Q

mutation in what gene in primary polycythaemia

A

JAK2

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107
Q

2 rf for polycythaemia

A

advancing age or Budd chairi syndrome

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108
Q

itch particularly after a hot bath

A

polycythaemia

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109
Q

Erythromelalgia: burning pain, warmth and redness in the hands and feet

A

polycythaemia vera

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110
Q

in pts with polycythaemia are most thromboses venous or arterial

A

arterial

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111
Q

what on blood are commonly seen in patients with polycythaemia vera

A

neutrophilia and thrombocytosis

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112
Q

management that is given for polycythaemia vera

A

phlebotomy, aspirin, hydroxycarbamide

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113
Q

…It is usually diagnosed by the presence of a raised haematocrit OR red cell mass plus the presence of the JAK2 mutation.

A

polycythaemia vera

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114
Q

in severe — there is paradoxically simultaneous thrombosis and spontaneous bleeding

A

DIC

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115
Q

an other cause of DIC

A

acute pancreatitis

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116
Q

typical symptoms of DIC

A
  • bleeding from unusual sites
    (bleeding from 3 unrelated sites is highly suggestive of DIC)
  • widespread or unexpected bruising with no history of trauma
  • new confusion or disorientation (a sign of microvascular thrombosis affecting cerebral perfusion)
117
Q

sign of DIC

A
  • bleeding from cannula/venepuncture sites
    lived reticualris
118
Q

IN FBC of DIC there is typically

A

thrombocytopenia

119
Q

what prolongs both PT and APTT

A

DIC

120
Q

what kind of fibrinogen is decreased in DIC

A

clauss

121
Q

how to distinguish DIC from acute hepatic failure

A

acute hepatic failure may have mild increased d -dimer but would be markedly so in DIC.
platelets may be low in both but in DIC will fall over time whereas more likely to be stable in acute liver failure

122
Q

d - dimers is markedly elevated in

A

DIC

123
Q

key features of help Syndrome

A

hypertension, deranged LFTs and thrombocytopenia

124
Q

what is fibrinogen like in DIC

A

low

125
Q

an other cause that can have prolonged Pt and APTT and low fibrinogen

A

post thrombolysis (treatment with alteplase)

126
Q

transfusion of what may be given if fibrinogen is low

A

cryoprecipitate

127
Q

Any patient over — with iron deficiency anaemia requires an upper and lower gastrointestinal endoscopy.

A

40

128
Q

what is the only investigation finding that is high in iron deficiency anaemia

A

total iron binding capacity

129
Q

sideroblastic anaemia is characterised by defective – synthesis

A

protoporphyrin

130
Q

classic clinical features of chipmunk facies and a crew cut appearance on xray

A

thalassaemias

131
Q

what is normal in thalassaemias but low in iron deficient anaemia

A

ferritin

132
Q

ferritin in high in anaemia of chronic disease due to build up of stores from

A

hepcidin

133
Q

what allows for the differentiation between the causes of haemolysis or underproduction in normocytic anaemia

A

reticulocyte count

134
Q

what acute phase protein is produced in anaemia of chronic disease

A

hepcidin

135
Q

the only thing that is high in anaemia of chronic disease

A

ferritin

136
Q

what is is due to a defect of RBC cytoskeleton membrane proteins such as ankyrin or spectrin

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

137
Q

what is often performed to treat hereditary spherocytosis

A

splenectomy

138
Q

what 2 things are increased in hereditary spherocytosis and in sickle cell disease and in G6PD deficiency and immune haemolytic anaemia

A

reticulocyte count and serum uric acid

139
Q

sickle cell anaemia occurs due to an autosomal recessive mutation in the beta-globin chain of haemoglobin, causing – to replace glutamic acid.

A

valine

140
Q

target cells and Howell jolly bodies may be seen in

A

sickle cell anaemia

141
Q

investigations findings in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A

reticulocyte count is normal but serum uric acid is increased

142
Q

normally G6PD creates —- which in turn creates reduced glutathione to protect the cell from oxidative stress

A

NADPH

143
Q

IgM mediated haemolysis is usually — and igG mediated haemolysis is usually —

A

intravascular, extravascular

144
Q

microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia can occur due to

A

microthrombi, prosthetic heart valves and aortic stenosis

145
Q

which type of macrocytic anaemia is due to impaired DNA synthesis

A

megaloblastic

146
Q

what can be used to differentiate megaloblastic and non megaloblastic macrocytic anaemias

A

serum homocysteine and methylmalonic acid

147
Q

what is the most common cause of vitb12 deficiency

A

pernicious anaemia

148
Q

The main difference in clinical manifestation between folate and vitamin B12 deficiency are the neurological symptoms that occur in B12 deficiency, due to elevated levels of — acid.

A

methymalonic

149
Q

Causes of non megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia include alcoholism, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, and drugs such as

A

fluorouracil

150
Q

serum homocysteine is normal in

A

non megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia

151
Q

The – is useful for determining whether normocytic anaemia is resulting from increased destruction of RBCs or decreased production.

A

reticulocyte count

152
Q

Serum methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels are useful to distinguish between subtypes of – anaemia.

A

macrocytic

153
Q

what is the most common rf for AML

A

myelodysplastic syndrome however in the majority of cases it appears as a de novo malignancy

154
Q

Auer rods in AML are

A

pink/red rod-like granular structures in the cytoplasm

155
Q

In AML, the bone marrow is usually

A

hypercellular

156
Q

method that can identify circulating myeloblasts by characteristic patterns of surface antigen expression

A

Flow cytometry

157
Q

mainstay of treatment in AML is

A

chemotherapy

158
Q

3 most common chemotherapeutic agents used in AML

A

-cytarabine
-Daunorubicin
- all trans retinoic acid

159
Q

what is antibiotic prophylaxis against pneumocystis pneumonia

A

co- trimoxazole

160
Q

when cancer cells break down quickly in the body, levels of uric acid, potassium, and phosphorus rise faster than the kidneys can remove them

A

tumour lysis syndrome

161
Q

when proteins that control blood clotting become overactive. This can cause blood clots in small vessels and hypo-perfusion of organs. It can also cause clotting proteins to be consumed, leading to an elevated risk of serious bleeding.

A

DIC

162
Q

chemo agent used in lymphoma and leukaemia

A

Cytarabine

163
Q

2 chemo agents used in ALL

A

6 mercaptopurien and azathioprine- measure thiopurine methyltransferase before prescibing either of these

164
Q

methotrexate is a

A

folate antagonist

165
Q

hydroxyurea is used in

A

CML

166
Q

Chlorambucil is used in hodgkins lymphoma and CLL. side effect is

A

pulmonary fibrosis

167
Q

chemo agent used in multiple myeloma

A

Melphalan

168
Q

when is warfarin the anticoagulant of choice

A

mechnanical heart valves
valvualr atrial fib
end stage renal failure

169
Q

DOACs inhibit how many clotting factos

A

one

170
Q

dabigatran is a DOAC than inhibtis

A

thrombin

171
Q

Rivaroxaban, apixaban and edoxaban are DOACs that inhibit what single blood clotting factor

A

Xa

172
Q

what is a contraindication for warfarin

A

malignancy

173
Q

INR is a standardised version of the

A

prothrombin time

174
Q

The INR targets is slightl higher for

A

mechanical heart valves

175
Q

how many days should heparin also be prescribed when initiating warfarin

A

5 days

176
Q

3 drugs that can increase potency of warfarin

A

amiodarone, metronidazole and clarithromycin

177
Q

2 drugs that can decrease the efficacy of warfarin

A

phenytoin and carbamazepine

178
Q

what fruit can increase the potency of warfarin

A

cranberreis

179
Q

what system in the liver metabolsies warfarin

A

Cytochrome P450

180
Q

what condition is autosomal recessive and there is a switch from glutamic acid to valine

A

sickle

181
Q

when does sickle cell anaemia features begin

A

between 3-6 months

182
Q

what are the msot common reason for hospital admission in Sickle cell anaemia

A

vaso oclusive crises

183
Q

aplastic crisis usually precipitated by parovirus and what happens

A

temporary cessation of erythropoiesis

184
Q

sequestration crisis is defined as

A

sudden enlargement of the spleeen due to haemorrhage

185
Q

how to differentiate thalassaemias from sickle cell anaemia

A

haemoglobin electrophoresis

186
Q

in sickle cell anaemia there is no what type of haemoglobin

A

adult

186
Q

target ceclls and howell jolly bodies can often be seen in

A

sickle

187
Q

what antibiotic prophylaxis in sickle

A

oral penicillin

188
Q

what supplementation is given in sickle to prevent severe anaemia

A

folic acid

189
Q

what is a once daily medication which increases HbF production and thus reduces the proportion of HbS in sickle

A

hydroxycarbamide

190
Q

sickle cell anaemia is diagnosed by

A

haemoglobin electrophoresis

191
Q

Hodgkins lymphoma arises from what cells

A

B lymphocytes

192
Q

difference between Reed Sternberg cell and malignant hodgkins cells

A

R- multi nucleated
hodgkins - mon nucleated

193
Q

most common Hodgkins lymphoma

A

nodular sclerosis

194
Q

what is common in Nodular sclerosis HL

A

mediastinal mass

195
Q

estimated around 40% of HL are related to what infection

A

EBV

196
Q

what are B symptoms in HL

A

fever, drenching night sweats and unintentional weight loss of greater than 10% in the last 6 months

197
Q

alcohol induced pain at nodal sites is a textbook symptom of what

A

HL

198
Q

what is the gold standard for staging in HL

A

PET -CT

199
Q

what is required for diagnosis and classification of HL type

A

lymph node excision biopsy

200
Q

what antigens are expressed on Reed Sternberg cells

A

CD15 and 30

201
Q

why does irradiated blood need to be used for HL patietns

A

reduces the risk of transfusion associated graft versus host disease

202
Q

drug that reduce absoption of iron

A

tetracyclines/quinolones and PPIs

203
Q

less common symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia

A

restless leg syndrome , pica

204
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome has a triad of

A

atrophic glossitis, oesophageal strictures, iron deficiency anaemia

205
Q

other than iron deficiency anaemia what other conditions can cause microcytic, hypochromic

A

thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia

206
Q

hyperchromic microcytic anaemia is rare and caused by

A

hereditary spherocytosis

207
Q

reduced what indicates hypochromia

A

MCH - mean corpuscular haemoglobin

208
Q

other findings from blood film in iron deficiency anaemia

A

anisocytosis (cells differ in size) and shape (poikilocytosi s)

209
Q

when do you do further GI investigations for GI malignancy if iron deficient and worries about malignancy

A

60 years or over
Premenopausal women with bowel symptoms
Family history of gastrointestinal cancer
Persistent anaemia despite treatment

210
Q

what to do if over 60 with iron deficiency anaemia

A

urgent 2 week referral

211
Q

how long should you take iron supplements after the deficiency is corrected

A

for 3 months (to replenish stores)

212
Q

what can help reduce the side effects of iron supplemements

A

taking them with food

213
Q

key features that distinguishes most lymphomas from leukemia

A

lymphomas - mature lymphcytes that arise within sites outside of the bone marrow
leukemia- develop from immature blasts from within the bone marrow
exception to this rule are the lymphoblatic lymphomas which develop from immartuer percursor lymphoblasts similarly to leukemia

214
Q

what is the type of non classic NHL

A

nodular lymphocyte predominant HL

215
Q

NHL is more common in what gender

A

boys

216
Q

B cell NH usually affects lymph nodes where

A

abdomen

217
Q

T cell NHL usually affects lymph nodes where

A

chest

218
Q

examples of high grade lymphomas

A

burkitts, large B cell, anaplastic large cell

219
Q

examples of low grade lymphomas

A

follicular, marginal zone

220
Q

what is the most common cause of lymphadenopathy in children

A

infection

221
Q

what lymphoma has more rapidly growing bulky lymphadenopathy

A

non hodgkins

222
Q

hodgkins lymphoma typically affects

A

cervical, supraclavicular and axillary

223
Q

what classification is used for NHL

A

St Jude classification

224
Q

what HL is slow growing but has a high risk of transforming to high grade NHL

A

nodular lymphocyte predominant HL

225
Q

what is the mainstay of treatment for both kinds of lymphoma and leukemia

A

chemo

226
Q

lymphoblastic lymphoma howevere is treated with chemo that is used for

A

ALL

227
Q

rituximab can be used in what kind of lymphoma

A

NHL

228
Q

what is the only thing that is low in tumour lysis syndrome

A

calcium

229
Q

what can be given prior to chemo to reduce chances of tumour lysis syndrome

A

hydration, allopurinol, rasburicase

230
Q

what should be excluded before giving rasburicase

A

G6PD deficiency

231
Q

what is the most common type of cancer in children, accounting for 31% of all childhood cancer

A

leukemia

232
Q

does acute or chronic leukemia involve more immature cells

A

acute

233
Q

what leukemia can have chronic phase, accelerated phase and blast crisis phase

A

CML

234
Q

if a child presents with either of these 2 symptoms should get an urgent specialist for leukemia

A

unexplained petechiae, unexplained hepatosplenomegaly

235
Q

blast cells should not be seen where

A

peripheral blood

236
Q

what lab investigations are needed before starting chemo in leukemia pts

A

baseline kidney and liver function

237
Q

why is a CXR really important to do in lymohoma/ leukemia

A

to see if there is a mediastinal mass is present

238
Q

cytogenetics detects what

A

chromosomal abnormilites

239
Q

lumbar puncture with what aims to prevent spread of leukemia to CNS

A

methotrexate

240
Q

what antibiotic is givent to prevent infection with pneumocystis jirovecii in ALL

A

co-trimoxazole

241
Q

allopurinol can be given in leukemia to prevent

A

tumour lysis syndrome

242
Q

haemophilia gene mutation are on what chromosome

A

X and are recesive

243
Q

can haemophilia be acquried

A

yes ocassioanly in malignnacy

244
Q

what happens in haemostasis before primary haemstasis

A

blood vessel vasoconstriction

245
Q

what 2 chemicals do platelets release to activate other platelets in a postive feedback mechanism

A

ADP and thromboxane A2

246
Q

what turns prothrombin into thrombin

A

activated factor X

247
Q

factors 8 and 9 in terms of haemophilia relate to what pathway

A

intrinsic

248
Q

drugs that can precipitate bleeding in mild haemophilia

A

NSAIDs or aspirin

249
Q

deficiencies in haemophilia can affect what clotting screen

A

APTT - as it relates to the intrinsic pathway

250
Q

analgesia is given for pain in haematomas and haemarthroses in haemophilia but what should be avoided as they increase the risk of GI bleeding

A

NSAIDs

251
Q

can treat acute haemophilia bleeds with what

A

desmopressin

252
Q

what would a son and daughter of a haemophilia patient have

A

daughter would be a carrier and the son would be unaffected as they inherit their fathers normal Y chromosome

253
Q

risk of children getting haemophilia of a female carrier

A

50% chance the daughter will be a carrier and 50% chance the son will be affected

254
Q

chorionic villus sampling can be done when and what about for amniocentesis

A

CV- 11-14 weeks
amniocentesis - 15-20 weeks

255
Q

neutropenic sepsis most commonly occurs how many days after chemo

A

7-10

256
Q

emperical antibiotic treatment should be startedd within how long in cases of neutropenic sepsis

A

1 hr

257
Q

platelets look like what

A

disc shaped cell fragments

258
Q

average lifespan of a platelet

A

5 days

259
Q

ADAMTS13 relates to

A

TTP

260
Q

pts with thromboctyopenia should avoid what medications

A

NSAIDs

261
Q

what can increase clot stability and reduce the risk of bleeding

A

Tranexamic acid

262
Q

what is the first factor in the intrinsic pathway

A

12

263
Q

what is the first factor in the extrinsic pathway

A

7

264
Q

what breaks down clots

A

plasmin

265
Q

APTT can indicate issues with what clotting factors

A

8,9 and 11

266
Q

how do all anticoagualnts affect the PT/INR and APTT

A

increase them

267
Q

how do platelets affect PT or APTT

A

wont affect them

268
Q

paraproteins are what

A

abnormal light chains which can cause damage to the kidneys

269
Q

what condition produces paraprotein

A

multiple myeloma

270
Q

most myelomas produce what type of immunoglobulin

A

igG

271
Q

common areas to get bone pain are

A

spine and ribs

272
Q

lytic lesions have what appearance on a xray

A

punched out lesions ( the skullk can appear to have a pepper pot appearnace)

273
Q

what is the anaemia normally like in multiple myeloma

A

normocitic and normochromic

274
Q

increase of what in multiple myeloma

A

phosphate - can cause itch or muscle cramping

275
Q

hyperviscocity that can happen in multiple myeloma can have what symptoms

A

headaches and visual disturbances

276
Q

blood film in multiple myeloma can show rouleaux formation. What is this

A

red cells stacked on top of each other

277
Q

what levels are good in multiple myeloma for assessing response to treatment and can identify relapse of disease before the onset of clinical symptoms

A

free light chain

278
Q

smouldering myeloma does not have

A

end organ damage

279
Q

how to treat smouldering myeloma

A

nothing at first just watch and wait

280
Q

difference in multiple myeloma mx based on if you are under or over 65

A

under 65- chemo +stem cell transplant
over 65- chemo

281
Q

in CML there is uncontrolled growth of myeloid cells and these can spill into the peripheral blood showing abnornmally riased levels of mature granulocytes such as

A

neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils

282
Q

gene that is formed in CML

A

BCR- ABL

283
Q

in peripheral blood film: all stages of granulocyte maturation noted

A

CML

284
Q

in CML what is necessary to stage the disease and what enables confirmation of the diagnosis

A

stage - bone marrow aspiration and
confirm - cytogenic sampling (philidelphia chromosome)

285
Q

methods of identfying the Philidelphia chromsome

A

FISH and then PCR for the BCR-ABL gene

286
Q

order of stages in CML

A

chronic then accelerated then blast

287
Q

what % of blasts in accelerated vs blast phase in CML

A

a- 10-19
b- >20

288
Q

what targets BCR-ABL in CML

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor eg Imatinib