Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy > Gastrointestinal Anatomy > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient is presenting with abdominal pain what could there be a problem with

A

Small or large intestines
Stomach
Liver
Gall bladder
Pancreas
Kidneys
Great vessels
Muscles of abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is the abdominal cavity separated from the thoracic cavity

A

It is separated by the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do things pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity

A

Through apertures in diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the abdominal cavity continuous with

A

It is continuous with the pelvic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the abdominal cavity contain

A

The abdominal cavity contains the organs from the
Gastrointestinal tract
Hepatobiliary system
Urinary system
Endocrine system
And the spleen and great vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the anterior, lateral and posterior walls of the abdomen composed of

A

Skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Muscle
Associated aponeuroses
5 lumbar vertebrae on the posterior wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the functions of the abdominal wall

A

Protect abdominal viscera
Increase intra-abdominal pressure
Maintain posture and move the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the internal aspect of the abdominal wall lined with

A

The internal abdominal wall is lines with parietal peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the bony landmarks which define the boundaries of the abdominal cavity

A

Xiphisternum
Costal margin
Iliac crests
Anterior superior iliac spines
Pubic tubercles
Pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the abdomen spit into the four quadrants

A

There is a vertical line which runs down the midline through the lower sternum, umbilicus and pubic symphysis
There is a horizontal line that runs across the abdomen through the umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the names of the four quadrants of the abdomen

A

Right upper and right lower
Left upper and left lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is the abdomen divided further into 9 regions not just the four quadrants

A

Dividing the abdomen further than the four quadrants into 9 regions allows us to be more precise when describing the location of pain/injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is the abdomen divided into the 9 regions

A

2 mid Clavicular lines left and right which run down from the mid Clavicular points vertically down to the mid-inguinal point
The subcostal line which runs horizontally through the left and right costal margins through the 10th costal cartilage
The intertubercular line which is a horizontal line which through the tubercles of the left and right iliac crests and the body of L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 central of the 9 regions of the abdomen from superior to inferior

A

Epigastric region
Umbilical region
Hypogatric region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 right of the 9 regions of the abdomen from superior to inferior

A

Right hypochondriac region
Right lumbar region
Right iliac region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 left of the 9 regions of the abdomen from superior to inferior

A

Left hypochondriac region
Left lumbar region
Left iliac region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What can the right and left iliac region also be known as

A

The right and left iliac fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the transpyloric plane

A

This is a horizontal line that passes through the tips of the right and left 9th costal cartilages. It lies between the superior border of the manubrium and the pubic symphysis. It transects the pylorus of the stomach, the gallbladder, the pancreas and the hila of the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the intercristal plane

A

This is a horizontal line drawn between the highest point of the right and left iliac crests which is used for a guide for procedures such as lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the transumbilical plane

A

This is an unreliable landmark as it position differs depending on how much fat is present but is usually the level of L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is McBurney’s point

A

This is the surface marking of the base of the appendix which lies 2/3 of the way along a line drawn from the umbilicus to the right superior iliac spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 4 pairs of muscles which make up the anterolateral abdominal wall

A

The external obliques
The internal obliques
The transversus abdominis
The recuts abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is the recuts abdominis found

A

The recuts abdominis is located right and left either side of the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where does the recuts abdominis make attachments

A

The recuts abdominis is attached to the sternum and costal margin superiorly and the pubis inferorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What surrounds the rectus abdominis

A

It is surrounded by an aponeurotic rectus sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is found lateral to the recuts abdominis

A

3 sheets of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most superficial sheet of muscle and what orientation are its fibres

A

The most superficial sheet of muscle is the external oblique and the fibres run medially and inferiorly towards the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What sheet of muscle lies deep to the external oblique and what is the orientation of its fibres

A

The muscle which lies deep to the external oblique is the internal oblique which fibres are orientated perpendicular to the external oblique ones and so run medially to superiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What muscle lies deep to the internal oblique and what orientation are its fibres

A

The transversus abdominis lie deep to the internal obliques and its fibres are orientated horizontally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens to the 3 sheets of muscle anteriorly

A

They become aponeurotic which is a flat tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do the sheets of muscles become an aponeurosis

A

The fibres fuse with each other and then in the midline they fuse with the aponeuroses of the opposite side and form a seam called the linea alba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What forms the Rectus sheath which encloses the rectus abdominis

A

The aponeuroses of the external oblique, internal oblique and the transversus abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the rectus abdominis muscles comprised of

A

It is comprised of muscle segments which are interspersed with horizontal tendinous bands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What happens to the rectus abdominis when they hypertrophy with exercise

A

They bulge on either side which can then be seen on the anterior abdominal wall as bulges which is known as the six-pack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What forms the rectus sheath on the anterior wall

A

The external oblique aponeurosis and the anterior layer of the internal oblique aponeurosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What forms the posterior wall of the rectus sheath

A

The posterior layer of the internal oblique aponeurosis and the transversus abdominis aponerurosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is the transversalis fascia located

A

Deep to the transversus abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What lies deep to the transversalis fascia

A

The parietal peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where does the inferior part of the external oblique aponeurosis attach

A

It attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine laterally and the pubic tubercle medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does the attachments of the external oblique aponeurosis form

A

The inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is found above the inguinal ligament

A

The inguinal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the anterolateral abdominal wall supplied by

A

The musculophrinic artery
The superior epigastric artery
The inferior epigastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the musculophrenic artery a branch of

A

The internal thoracic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the superior epigastric artery a continuation of

A

The internal thoracic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the inferior epigastric artery a branch of

A

The external iliac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the anterolateral abdominal wall innervated by

A

The muscle and skin of the anterolateral abdominal wall are innervated by
Thoraco-abdominal nerves T7-T11 which are somatic nerves which are a continuation from the intercostal nerves T7-T11 and contain both sensory and motor fibres
The subcostal nerve which originates from T12 spinal nerve
The iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerve which are both branches of the L1 spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a hernia

A

A hernia is a protrusion of tissue or organ from one region to another through an opening or defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is meant by a laparotomy

A

It is a surgical opening in the anterior abdominal wall which is done when good access to the abdomen is needed. This procedure is done via an midline sagittal incision is made to avoid damage to nerves and muscles, which are spit rather than cut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why is key hole or laparoscopy better then open surgery

A

Less post-operative pain
Faster wound healing
Smaller risk of infection
Smaller risk of post-operative hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is an abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

This is an abnormal swelling of the wall of the aorta, over time it will become weak and prone to rupture. An aneurysm may be detected on abdominal examination, rupture carries high mortality rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the peritoneum

A

The peritoneum is a serous membrane that lines the abdominal wall and covers the viscera within it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the two types of peritoneum

A

Parietal and visceral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where does the parietal peritoneum line

A

The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall and can be seen with the naked eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the parietal peritoneum innervated by

A

It is innervated by the same somatic nerves which innervate the muscles and skin of the anterolateral abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the pain like from the parietal peritoneum

A

Sharp, severe and well localised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the visceral peritoneum cover

A

The abdominal viscera and Cannot be seen by the naked eye as it is adhered to the surface of the viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the visceral peritoneum innervated by

A

It is innervated by visceral sensory nerves which conveys painful sensation to the CNS along the sympathetic nerves that innervates the organ/structure it covers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is pain from the visceral peritoneum usually like

A

Can be severe, dull and will diffuse so hard to pinpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How is pain from the visceral peritoneum usually perceived

A

As nausea or distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is found between the parietal and visceral peritoneum

A

The peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is found in the peritoneal cavity

A

Filled with peritoneal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Why is peritoneal fluid important

A

It allows the viscera to slide freely alongside each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is meant by intraperitoneal viscera

A

Intraperitoneal viscera is almost completely covered by peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is an example of intraperitoneal viscera

A

The stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is meant by retroperitoneal viscera

A

Retroperitoneal viscera is posterior to the peritoneum and so is only covered by peritoneum on the anterior surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is an example of retroperitoneal viscera

A

Pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why are some organs described as secondarily retroperitoneal

A

They are described as secondary retroperitoneal as the organs were intraperitoneal in early development but came to be stuck down onto the posterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What do mesenteries, omerta, ligaments and folds all have in common in the abdominal cavity

A

They are all composed of peritoneum and connect organs to each other and the abdominal wall
They contain amounts of fat
They may all carry blood vessels, nerves and lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the mesentries

A

They are folds in the peritoneum that contain fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the role of the mesenteries

A

They suspend the small intestines and parts of the large intestines from the posterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is found within the mesenteries

A

Arteries that supply the intestines which branch from the abdominal aorta and the veins that drain the gut which are from the portal venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the greater and lesser omenta

A

They are folds in the peritoneum that are usually fatty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the function of the greater and lesser omenta

A

They connect the stomach to other organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where is the greater omentum located

A

It hangs from the greater curvature of the stomach and lies superficial to the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the lesser omenta role

A

The lesser omenta connects the stomach and the duodenum to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What can be found in the free edge of the lesser omenta

A

The hepatic artery, the hepatic portal vein and the bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What do the hepatic artery, the hepatic portal vein and the bile duct make up

A

The portal triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are ligaments within the abdominal cavity

A

The ligaments are folds of peritoneum that connect organs to each other or the abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the falciform ligament

A

This connects the anterior surface of the liver to the anterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the coronary and triangular ligaments

A

They connect they superior surface of the liver to the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are peritoneal folds and how are they created

A

They are raised from the internal aspect of the lower abdominal wall and are cremated by the structures they overlie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where can the median umbilical fold be found

A

It can be found In the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What does the median umbilical fold represent

A

It represents the remnant of the urachus which was an embryological structure that connected the bladder to the umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Where can the medial umbilical fold be located

A

They are found lateral to the median umbilical fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What does the medial umbilical fold represent

A

It represents the remnants of paired umbilical arteries which returned venous blood to the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where are the lateral umbilical folds located

A

They are located lateral to the medial umbilical folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is found deep to the lateral umbilical folds

A

Deep to these folds are the epigastric arteries which supply the anterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the lesser sac

A

The lesser sac is the space that lies posterior to the stomach and anterior to the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the lesser sac also known as

A

The omental bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the greater sac

A

The remaining part of the peritoneum cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How do the greater and lesser sacs communicate

A

They do this via the passageway that lies posterior to the free edge of the lesser omentum the epiploic foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the epiploic foramen also known as

A

The omental foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Where does the gastrointestinal system develop from

A

Then embryonic gut tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Where is the embryonic gut tube located

A

Lies in the midline of the abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What holds the embryonic gut suspended

A

The dorsal mesentary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the function of the ventral mesentary

A

This connects the stomach to the anterior abdominal wall, and is where the liver grows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does the ventral mesentary become anteriorly and posteriorly

A

It becomes the falciform ligament anteriorly and posteriorly it becomes the lesser omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How does development cause the formation of the lesser sac and some organs to become retroperitoneal

A

During development the organ grow, migrate and rotate to finally end up in their final position however when this happens they pull the peritoneal attachments with them which then causes the lesser sac and some organs to be pushed to the posterior and be retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is peritonitis

A

Infection and inflammation of the peritoneum which may be localised or generalised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What can peritonitis be caused by

A

Inflammation of the organ or rupture of a hollow viscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Why can peritonitis be life threatening

A

It can be life-threading because if the intestine is ruptured and faecal matter and bacteria contaminate the peritoneum, the bacteria can diffuse and cause sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are peritoneal adhesions

A

Peritoneal adhesions are fibrous connections between the parietal and visceral peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Why do we get peritoneal adhesions

A

We get them as when the peritoneum becomes irritated it begins to produce fibrin which cause the adhesion of the 2 layers which then become fibrous and can cause pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does peritoneal adhesions increase the risk of

A

Twisting of the intestine as it can no longer move freely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is ascites

A

It is an increased volume of peritoneal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Why does ascites occur

A

It occurs secondary to an already existing pathology such as heart or liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Where does the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm

A

The oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What level of the vertebral column does the oesophagus pass though the diaphragm

A

Level of T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does the hiatus around the oesophagus function as

A

It functions as a sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What does the hiatus sphincter around the oesophagus prevent

A

It prevents the reflux of the stomach back into the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How long is the abdominal part of the oesophagus

A

2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What supplies the distal oesophagus

A

Branches of the left gastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Where does the venous blood drain to from the distal oesophagus

A

The distal oesophagus drains its venous return into the azygos system via the oesophageal veins and the portal venous system via the left gastric veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What type of anastomoses is at the site of the distal oesophagus

A

Portosystemic anastomoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the shape and function of the stomach

A

The stomach is a j-shaped sac that expands to accommodate food and fluid, through chemical and mechanical breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What does the stomach break food down into

A

Chyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the 4 parts of the stomach

A

Cardia
Fundus
Body
Pyloric antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the cardia

A

The cardia is the part of the stomach which is continuous with the distal oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the fundus

A

The fundus is the most superior of the stomach this is usually full of gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the largest part of the stomach

A

The body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the location of the pyloric part of the stomach

A

The pyloric part of the stomach is distal to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the pyloric part of the stomach

A

This is the inferior part of the stomach which is wide but tapers off towards the pyloric canal which leads into the pyloric sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the role of the pyloric sphincter

A

Regulates the passage of chyme into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the right border of the stomach also known as

A

The lesser curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the left border of the stomach also known as

A

The greater curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Where does the stomach lie in the abdomen

A

The stomach lies in the left upper quadrant but position could vary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the stomach covered with

A

Visceral peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the anterior of the surface of the stomach close to

A

The anterior surface is close to the anterior abdominal wall, diaphragm and the left lobe of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What does the posterior surface of the stomach become

A

The anterior surface of the lesser sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Where is the lesser sac found

A

The lesser sac is found posterior to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are the contents of the lesser sac

A

Pancreas, left kidney and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What does the lesser omentum connect

A

The lesser curvature of the stomach to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What does the free edge of the lesser omentum contain

A

The hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein and the bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is posterior to the free edge of the lesser omentum

A

Entrance to the lesser sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Where can the greater omentum be located

A

The greater omentum hangs down from the greater curvature of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Where do the arteries branch from that supply the stomach

A

The coeliac trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Where does the coeliac trunk, branch from

A

The coeliac trunk branches from the anterior aspect of the abdominal aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

At what level does the coeliac trunk branch from the abdominal aorta

A

The level of T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What does the coeliac trunk supply

A

The abdominal viscera that is derived from the embryological foregut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What does the foregut comprise of

A

The foregut comprises of the stomach, the first half of the duodenum, the liver, the gallbladder and the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What other structure does the coeliac trunk supply that isn’t of foregut origin

A

The coeliac trunk also supplies the spleen which is of mesodermal origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How many arteries does the coeliac trunk branch into

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are the 3 branches of the coeliac trunk

A

The left gastric artery
The common hepatic artery
The splenic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What of the 3 branch arteries of the coeliac trunk is the smallest

A

The left gastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Where do the left and right gastric arteries run along

A

The lesser curvature of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What happens to the left and right gastric arteries

A

The left and right gastric arteries anastomoses with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Where does the right gastric artery branch from

A

The common hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Where do the left and right gastro-omental arteries run

A

They run along the greater curvature of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What happens to the left and right gastro-omental arteries

A

They anastomoses together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Where does the left gastro-omental artery branch from

A

The splenic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Where does the right gastric-omental artery branch from

A

This artery branches from the gastroduodenal artery which is a branch of the common hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Where can you find the left and right gastric veins

A

Running along side the left and right gastric artery’s in the lesser curvature of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Where can you find the left and right gastro-omental veins

A

They run along side the left and right gastro-omental arteries in the greater curvature of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Where do the left and right gastric and the left and right gastro-omental veins drain into

A

They all drain into the hepatic portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is the hepatic portal vein

A

This is a large vein which carries nutrient rich venous blood from the GI tract to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What carries parasympathetic fibres to the stomach

A

The vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What does parasympathetic stimulation to the stomach stimulate

A

Peristalsis and gastric secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What nerve carries sympathetic fibres to the stomach

A

The greater splanchnic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Where is the greater splanchnic nerve formed and from what

A

The greater splanchnic nerve is formed of preganglionic fibres that leave the spinal cord between T5 and T9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What happens to the greater splanchnic nerve after it leaves the spinal cord

A

It passes through the sympathetic trunk without synapsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Where does the greater splanchnic nerve synapse and what does this cause

A

The greater splanchnic nerve synapses in prevertebral ganglia around the trunk of the coeliac trunk become postganglionic fibres which travel to the stomach to inhibit peristalsis and gastric secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is a hiatus hernia

A

The abdominal oesophagus and upper part of the stomach herniate through the oesophagus hiatus (Appature in the diaphragm) and into the throax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What symptoms could present in a hiatus hernia

A

If the contents of the stomach reflux into the oesophagus the patient could experience heartburn and acid reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is a gastric ulcer

A

A gastric ulcer develops when the mucosal lining of the internal wall of the stomach breaks down exposing the mucosa to the acidic contents of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What normally causes a gastric ulcer

A

It is normally due to an infection caused by helicobacter pylori which erodes the mucosal lining and exposing the muscular wall to gastric acids and enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What could a gastric ulcer cause if left untreated

A

The erosion could continue through the wall and nearby blood vessels and can result in a catastrophic intra-abdominal bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is pyloric stenosis

A

This is a congenital malformation characterised by the hypertrophy of the circular smooth muscle of the pyloric sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Who is more prone to get pyloric stenosis

A

More common in baby boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

When does pyloric stenosis usually present

A

Approximately 6 weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is the typical presentation of pyloric stenosis

A

Vomiting which is sometimes projectile after feeding but the baby doesn’t seem unwell and will continue to take feeds. However they will become dehydrated with continuous vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are the symptoms of gastric cancer

A

Some symptoms are non-specific but can include abdominal discomfort, early satiety (felling full quickly), loss of appetite, nausea, weight loss, difficulty swallowing and indigestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are the 3 parts of the small intestine

A

The duodenum, the jejunum and the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is the duodenum continuous with

A

The pylorus of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is the shape of the duodenum

A

Shot and curved into a c-shape round the head of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Is the duodenum intrapertioneal or retroperitoneal

A

Most of the duodenum is retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is found on the internal wall of the duodenum half way along

A

Major duodenal papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the major duodenal papilla

A

It is the opening of the bile duct and the main pancreatic duct into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Where does the first half of the duodenum develop embryologically

A

The foregut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is the first half of the duodenum supplied by

A

The coeliac trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Where does the second half of the duodenum develop embryologically

A

The midgut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What artery supplies the second half of the duodenum

A

It is supplied by branches of the superior mesenteric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is the jejunum continuous with superiorly

A

The duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Are the jejunum and ileum intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal

A

They are both intraperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

How are the jejunum and the ileum suspended fro the posterior abdominal wall

A

By the mesentery of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is embedded in the mesentery

A

The blood vessels that supply the small intestine from the superior mesenteric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Where is the jejunum located within the abdomen

A

Left upper quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Where is the ileum located in the abdomen

A

Right Lower quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Where are the jejunum and the ileum derived from embryologically

A

The midgut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What are the jejunum and ileum the site of and how are they adapted for this

A

Nutrient absorption
They have a large surface area, the mucosa is folded known as plicae circulares, the folds hold villi and each epithelial cell on the luminal surface have microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

How can you differentiate between the jejunum and the ileum

A

They are had the differentiate just upon looking at them however on the internal surfaces the plicae circulares is more pronounced in the jejunum and the ileum has peyers patches which are large submucosal lymph nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What is a blind-ended diverticulum, where does it occur and what is it called

A

A blind-ended diverticulum is the embryological remnant of the connection which was resent between the midgut loop and the yolk sac. It occurs approximately one meter from it termination and is known as meckels diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What can meckels diverticulum be confused with if it becomes inflamed

A

Appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is the terminal ileum continuous with

A

The caecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Where does the ileum and caecum join

A

At the ileocaecal junction in the right iliac fossa region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is the function of the large intestines

A

The large intestine reabsorbs water from faecal material which forms semi-solid faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What sections make up the large intestine

A

The caecum, the appendix, the ascending colon, the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon, the rectum and anal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

The outer muscle layer is formed of 3 bands known as what

A

The Taeniae coil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What does the inner circular muscle layer form

A

It forms bulges called haustra or haustrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

The large intestine has fatty tags called what

A

Epiploic appendages or appendices epiploicae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What do the epiploic appendages mark

A

They mark the point at which blood vessels penetrate the intestinal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What is the caecum

A

First part of the large intestine, it is a distended blind ended pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What is the caecum covered by

A

Peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Does the caecum have a mesentery

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What is the appendix

A

The appendix is a Small diverticulum that protrudes from the caecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What does the appendix contain

A

Lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is the surface marking of the base of the appendix

A

McBurney’s point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

How is the appendix connected to the caecum

A

By a small mesentery called the mesoappendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is the ascending colon continuous with

A

The caecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Where is the ascending colon located in the abdomen

A

It runs vertically on the right side of the posterior of the abdominal wall in the right paracolic gutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Is the ascending colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal

A

Retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What is the ascending colon an example of

A

It is an example of secondary retroperitoneal organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

How does the ascending colon become continuous with the transverse colon

A

The ascending colon makes a 90 degree turn left into the right upper quadrant and so becomes the transverse colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What is the bend of the ascending colon called

A

The hepatic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What is the hepatic flexure also known as

A

The right colic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Where does the transverse colon run

A

The transverse colon runs horizontally in the upper abdomen, but sometimes hangs inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Is the transverse colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal

A

Intraperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Is the transverse colon suspended

A

Yes it is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by the transverse mesocolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What does the transverse colon become continuous with

A

The transverse colon does a 90 degree turn in the left upper quadrant and becomes continuous with the descending colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What is the 90 degree turn that the transverse colon makes

A

The turn is called the splenic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What is the splenic flexure also known as

A

The left colic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What is the splenic flexure tethered to

A

The splenic flexure is tethered to the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

How is the splenic flexure tethered to the diaphragm

A

By the phrenicocolic ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What does the transverse colon mark

A

The transverse colon marks the transition point between the embryological midgut and hindgut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What of the transverse colon is midgut and what is hindgut

A

The proximal two thirds of the transverse colon are mid gut and the distal third is the hindgut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What is the descending colon continuous with superiorly and inferiorly

A

The transverse colon superiorly
The sigmoid colon inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Where does the descending colon run in the abdomen

A

The descending colon runs vertically down the left side posteriorly along the abdominal wall in the left laracolic gutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Is the descending colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal

A

Retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What is the descending colon an example of

A

It is an example of a secondary retroperitoneal organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Where is the sigmoid colon found

A

The sigmoid colon is found id the lower left quadrant of the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What is the sigmoid colon continuous with superiorly and inferiorly

A

The descending colon superiorly
The rectum inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

As the sigmoid colon approaches the midline it makes a 90 degree turn to where

A

Into the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What is the 90 degree turn called that the sigmoid colon makes

A

The rectosigmoid junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Does the sigmoid colon have a mesentery

A

Yes called the sigmoid mesocolon

234
Q

Is the sigmoid colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal

A

Intraperitoneal

235
Q

Where does the rectum descend into

A

The pelvis from the rectosigmoid junction

236
Q

Is the rectum intraperitoneal or retropertioneal

A

Retroperitoneal

237
Q

What is the function of the rectum

A

The function of the rectum is to store faeces unto it is convenient to defecate

238
Q

What is the rectum continuous with inferiorly

A

The anal canal

239
Q

What artery branches off the aorta to supply the midgut

A

The superior mesenteric artery

240
Q

At what level does the superior mesenteric artery leave the aorta

A

The level of L1

241
Q

What are the structures of the midgut that the superior mesenteric artery supply

A

The midgut- second half of the duodenum, the small intestine and the large intestine as far as the proximal two thirds of the transverse colon. And it also supplies some of the pancreas

242
Q

What branch of the abdominal aorta supplies the hindgut

A

The inferior mesenteric artery

243
Q

What level does the inferior mesenteric artery leave the aorta

A

The level of L3

244
Q

What structures does the inferior mesenteric artery supply

A

The hindgut- the distal third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon, the rectum and the upper part of the anal canal

245
Q

What are the major branches of the superior mesenteric artery

A

Jejunal branch- several branches to the jejunum
Ileal branch- several branches to the ileum
Ileocolic artery- supplies the caecum, appendix and the ascending colon
Right colic artery- supplies the ascending colon
Middle colic artery- supplies the transverse colon

246
Q

Where are the jejunal and ileal branches located

A

In the mesentery of the small intestine

247
Q

All the major branches of the superior mesenteric artery anastomose with each other to form loops of arteries called

A

Arcades

248
Q

What runs from the arcades and what do they supply

A

From the arcades are vasa recta which are straight vessels which supply the intestinal wall

249
Q

What are the major branches of the inferior mesenteric artery

A

The left colic artery- supplies the transverse colon and the descending colon
Sigmoid branches- supply the sigmoid colon
Superior rectal artery- the terminal branches of the inferior mesenteric artery which supply the upper rectum

250
Q

What happens to the middle colic artery of the SMA and the left colic artery of the IMA

A

They anastomose along the distal third of the transverse colon and the splenic flexure to for the marginal artery

251
Q

What happens to the left colic and the sigmoid arteries

A

They anastomose

252
Q

What is the lower rectum supplied by

A

The Lower rectum is supplied by branches from the internal iliac arteries from the pelvis

253
Q

Where does venous blood from the gut ultimately drain to

A

The inferior vena cava to be returned to the heart

254
Q

Before reaching the inferior vena cava where does the venous blood go to

A

The liver

255
Q

Why does the venous blood go to the liver before the inferior vena cava

A

The venous blood from the gut contains loads of nutrients which has been absorbed

256
Q

How does venous blood rich with nutrients reach the liver

A

Through the portal venous system

257
Q

Where is the inferior mesenteric vein be found

A

Along side the inferior mesenteric artery

258
Q

What does the inferior mesenteric vein drain

A

The venous blood from the hind gut

259
Q

Where does the inferior mesenteric vein ascend

A

On the left side of the abdomen

260
Q

Where does the inferior mesenteric vein drain into

A

The splenic vein

261
Q

Where can you find the superior mesenteric vein

A

Along side the superior mesenteric artery

262
Q

What does the superior mesenteric vein drain

A

The midgut

263
Q

Where does the superior mesenteric vein ascend

A

It acsends in the right side of the abdomen

264
Q

What does the superior mesenteric vein unite with and what does this form

A

The superior mesenteric vein unites with the splenic vein close to the liver posterior to the neck of the pancreas and forms the hepatic portal vein

265
Q

What happens when the venous blood enters the liver via the hepatic portal vein

A

After the nutrients have been absorbed out of the blood, the venous blood enters small hepatic veins which unite within the liver to form 2/3 large hepatic veins which then enter the inferior vena cava to return the venous blood to the heart

266
Q

What fibres innervate the midgut and hindgut and what do they stimulate

A

Parasympathetic fibres innervate the midgut and hindgut and they stimulate peristalsis and secretions

267
Q

What nerve carries parasympathetic inner actions to the foregut and midgut

A

The vagus nerve

268
Q

What nerve carries parasympathetic innervations to the hindgut

A

The pelvic splanchnic nerve

269
Q

How are the pelvic splanchnic nerves formed
Where do the pelvic splanchnic nerves originate from

A

They are formed by the axons of the parasympathetic neurons in the sacral spinal cord, the cell bodies of preganglionic parasymathetic neurons lie in the sacral spinal cord in S2-S4. They leave the spinal cord and form the pelvic splanchnic nerves. Th preganglionic axons then synapse with a second neuron in a ganglion close to the viscera

270
Q

Where do the sympathetic fibre that innervate the gut originate from

A

The preganglionic sympathetic fibres pass from the spinal cord between T5 and T12 and pass through the sympathetic trunk without synapsing via the greater, lesser and least splanchnic nerves

271
Q

What nerve carries sympathetic innervation to the foregut and where do they originate from

A

They greater splanchnic nerves innervate the foregut which originate from T5-T9

272
Q

What nerve carries sympathetic innervation to the midgut and where does it originate

A

The lesser splanchnic nerve innervates the midgut whcih originates from T10-T11

273
Q

What nerve carries sympathic innervation to the hind gut and where does it originate

A

The least splanchnic nerve innervates the hind gut which originates from T12

274
Q

The sympathetic fibres in the preganglionic fibres synapse where

A

Within ganglia that lie in the abdomen around the aorta, coeliac trunk, SMA and IMA

275
Q

The postganglionic fibres carrying sympathetic fibres from the visceral nerves then innervate the gut causing what

A

Inhibition of peristalsis and secretions

276
Q

The gut can also be innervated by visceral sensory fibres what do these do

A

They convey sensory information back to the CNS which doesn’t reach our conscious perception

277
Q

If we receive sensory information from the abdomen which reaches out conscious perception what does this mean

A

It is caused due to ischaemia, distension or spasm

278
Q

Painful sensations from the foregut return to the CNS via what segments in the spinal cord

A

T5-T9

279
Q

Painful sensations from the midgut return to the CNS via what segments of the spinal cord

A

T10-T11

280
Q

Painful sensations from the hindgut return to the CNS via what segments in the spinal cord

A

T12

281
Q

Information from the dermatomes of the foregut is received by which spinal segments

A

T5-T9

282
Q

Information from the dermatomes of the midgut is received by which spinal segments

A

T10-T11

283
Q

Information from the dermatomes of the hindgut is received by which spinal segments

A

T12

284
Q

Pain from the abdominal viscera is referred to the body wall so epigastric pain is suggested as pathology of what

A

Foregut pathology

285
Q

Pain from the abdominal viscera is referred to the body wall so central/umbilical pain is suggested as pathology of what

A

Midgut pain

286
Q

Pain from the abdominal viscera is referred to the body wall so lower/suprapubic pain is suggested as pathology of what

A

Hindgut pain

287
Q

What is an appendicitis

A

Inflammation of the appendix

288
Q

Where is the pain of an appendicitis usually felt

A

In the umbilical region of the abdomen

289
Q

Why is the pain felt in the umbilical region of the abdomen

A

The pain is felt here due to the peritoneum becoming irritated and so sending sensations through visceral sensory afferents which return to the spinal segment T10 and send the sensation to the CNS

290
Q

Where does the pain become more localised after awhile

A

The pain becomes more localised as the adjacent parietal peritoneum becomes involved, which causes severe pain in the right iliac fossa region of the abdomen

291
Q

What could be presenting symptoms of a appendicitis

A

Pain diffuse from the umbilical region of the abdomen to the right iliac fossa region
Tenderness which is maximal over McBurney’s point

292
Q

What can a rupture do the appendix cause

A

Peritonitis

293
Q

How is an appendicitis resolved

A

Via an appendectomy performed usually laparoscopically unless rupture is suspected

294
Q

What is mesenteric ischaemia

A

Mesenteric ischaemia is where the mesenteric vessels become occluded by a thrombus

295
Q

What can ischemia of the intestines cause

A

Infarction

296
Q

Why can mesenteric ischaemia be a surgical emergency

A

Because the intestine need to become revascularized and an secretions of necrotic intestine must be removed but mortality is high

297
Q

What are the 2 types of inflammatory bowel disease

A

Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis

298
Q

What Is Crohn’s disease characterised by

A

Inflammation of the gut mucosa

299
Q

Where typically does Crohn’s disease affect

A

Typically the small intestine but can affect anywhere in GI tract

300
Q

What could a patient with Crohn’s disease present with

A

Abdominal pain, diarrhoea, bloody stools, weight loss and tiredness

301
Q

What does ulcerative colitis affect

A

The colon and rectum

302
Q

How is ulcerative colitis characterised

A

The mucosa of the colon and rectum become inflamed and ulcerated

303
Q

Patients with ulcerative colitis could present with what symptoms

A

Abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, weight loss and tiredness

304
Q

What are the main symptoms of colon cancer

A

Change in bowel movements
Blood in the stool
Abdominal pain
Bloating

305
Q

How would colon cancer be investigated to give a diagnosis

A

A colonoscopy to visualise the colon and take biopsies of any masses

306
Q

What is Volvulus

A

This is twisting of the gut

307
Q

Where is twisting of the gut most often seen

A

In the sigmoid colon

308
Q

Why is twisting of the gut most often seen in the sigmoid colon

A

Because the other parts of the gut are suspended with a mesentery and so aren’t mobile

309
Q

What can twisting of the gut cause

A

Obstruction and infraction

310
Q

Where is the liver located in the abdomen

A

Lies in the upper right quadrant and epigastrium

311
Q

What is the liver protected by inferiorly

A

The ribs

312
Q

Where does the liver move to during inspiration

A

It moves inferiorly

313
Q

Which part of the liver can be felt upon palpation of the abdomen

A

The lowermost part of the liver just under the right costal margin, will be palpable

314
Q

How do products of digestion get transported to the liver

A

Via the hepatic portal vein

315
Q

What is not transported to the liver via the portal vein

A

Lipids

316
Q

What does the liver produce

A

Bile

317
Q

Where is bile transported to from the liver for storage

A

The gallbladder

318
Q

What is the function of bile

A

Bile emulsifies lipids within the chyme entering the duodenum from the stomach

319
Q

What are the 2 surfaces of the liver

A

The diaphragmatic surface and the visceral surface

320
Q

What is the diaphragmatic surface of the liver

A

The surface which lies anterosuperior related to the inferior surface of the diaphragm

321
Q

What is the visceral surface of the liver

A

This is the surface that lies posteroinferior and is related to other organs

322
Q

What regions on the liver is not covered by peritoneum

A

The bare area of the liver- which is a region on the posterior surface that lies in contact with the diaphragm
The region where the gallbladder sits in contact with the liver
The region of the porta hepatis which is where the hepatic blood vessels and ducts of the biliary system enter and exit the liver

323
Q

How many lobes does the liver have

A

2 anatomical lobes the right and left

324
Q

Which lobe of the liver is the largest

A

The right

325
Q

How are the 2 anatomonical lobes of the liver separated

A

By the falciform ligament

326
Q

What is the role of the falciform ligament

A

This ligament connects the anterior surface of the liver to the internal aspect of the anterior abdominal wall

327
Q

What are the 2 accessory lobes of the liver called

A

The caudate and the quadrate

328
Q

Where are the 2 accessory lobes located

A

The posteroinferior surface of the liver

329
Q

Internally how many segments is the liver organised into

A

8

330
Q

What is each organisational segment supplied by

A

It’s own branch of the hepatic artery, portal vein and hepatic duct

331
Q

What is the liver supplied by

A

The right and left hepatic arteries

332
Q

Where do the left and right hepatic arteries arise from

A

The coeliac trunk

333
Q

What does the common hepatic artery give rise to

A

The gastroduodenal artery

334
Q

After the gastroduodenal artery what does the common hepatic artery become

A

The hepatic artery proper

335
Q

What does the hepatic artery proper become

A

The hepatic artery proper bifurcates into the left and right hepatic arteries

336
Q

Where do the hepatic arteries enter the liver

A

The porta hepatis

337
Q

What is the portal triad made up of

A

Bile duct
Portal vein
Hepatic artery

338
Q

How does venous blood exit the liver

A

Via 2/3 hepatic veins

339
Q

What do the hepatic veins unite with

A

The inferior vena cava

340
Q

Where do the hepatic portal veins and inferior vena cava unite

A

Posterior to the liver

341
Q

What is the difference between the hepatic portal veins and hepatic veins

A

Hepatic portal veins carry nutrient-rich blood from the gut to the liver from the superior and inferior mesenteric veins and splenic vein
Hepatic vein carry venous blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava

342
Q

What is the liver served by

A

The hepatic plexus

343
Q

What is the hepatic plexus composed of

A

Parasympathetic fibres from the vagus nerve
Sympathetic fibres

344
Q

Where is pain from the liver felt and why

A

Pain from the liver would be referred to the epigastric region due to it been a foregut derivative

345
Q

What is the liver connected to and how

A

The diaphragm via the coronary and triangular ligaments
The anterior abdominal wall via the falciform ligaments
The stomach and duodenum by the lesser omentum

346
Q

Where does the portal triad run

A

In the free edge of the lesser omentum

347
Q

What does the portal triad and the free edge of the lesser omentum form

A

The anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen

348
Q

What is the epiploic foramen

A

The entrance to the lesser sac

349
Q

Where is the lesser sac located

A

The posterior of the stomach

350
Q

What is the hepatorenal recess

A

This is a recess that lies between the right kidney and the posterior visceral surface of the right side of the liver to which fluid flows into the space when in the supine position

351
Q

What is the left and right subphrenic recess

A

This recess lies on the left and right side of the falciform ligament between the anterosuperior surface of the liver and diaphragm

352
Q

Where does the liver develop from embryologically

A

The embryological foregut

353
Q

Where does the liver grow from embryologically

A

The liver grows from a tissue bud that develops in the ventral mesentery which is a peritoneal fold in the upper abdomen that connects the stomach to the anterior abdominal wall. As the liver continues to grow and migrate to the right side of the abdomen, the peritoneal attachments are pulled with it. The remains of the ventral mesentery form the lesser omentum and the falciform ligament. The peritoneal attachments of the liver anchor it to the surrounding structures such as the diaphragm

354
Q

What does the free edge of the falciform ligament contain

A

The round ligament of the liver

355
Q

What is the round ligament of the liver known as

A

The ligament teres

356
Q

What is the round ligament of the liver a remnant of

A

The umbilical vein

357
Q

In a foetus what was the function of the umbilical vein

A

Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the foetus

358
Q

Where is the ligamentum venosum located

A

This is a embryological remnant on the posterior surface of the liver, in the groove between the caudate lobe and left lobe of the liver

359
Q

What is the ligament venosum

A

It is the remnant of the ductus venosus

360
Q

What is the function of the ductus venosus in a foetus

A

This diverts blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava shunting oxygen rich blood to the heart bypassing the liver

361
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder

A

Store and concentrate bile

362
Q

Where is the gallbladder located

A

On the posteroinferior surface of the liver close to the duodenum

363
Q

How many parts does the gallbladder have

A

3 parts

364
Q

What are the 3 parts of the gallbladder

A

The body, fundus and neck

365
Q

What is the main part of the gallbladder and where is it located

A

The body and is located in the gallbladder fossa on the visceral surface of the liver

366
Q

What dose the neck of the communicate with

A

The cystic duct

367
Q

What is the fundus of the gallbladder

A

The fundus is the rounded end of the gallbladder which extends to the inferior border of the liver

368
Q

What is the surface marking of the fundus of the gallbladder

A

Tip of the 9th costal cartilage at the point where the mid Clavicular line intersects the right costal margin

369
Q

What makes bile in the liver

A

Hepatocytes continuously produce liver

370
Q

Where is bile excreted frirst

A

Into the small channels known as the bile canaliculi

371
Q

Where do the canaliculi drain into

A

The bile ducts

372
Q

What do the bile ducts form

A

They converge to form the left and right hepatic ducts which exit the liver

373
Q

Where do the left and right hepatic ducts exit the liver

A

The hepatic ducts exit the liver at the porta hepatis

374
Q

What do the left and right hepatic ducts form

A

They converge to form the common hepatic duct

375
Q

What does the common hepatic duct receive

A

The cystic duct from the gallbladder

376
Q

What does the common bile duct become after the cystic duct

A

The bile duct or common bile duct

377
Q

Where does the bile duct run

A

In the free edge of the lesser omentum posterior to the superior part of the duodenum and posterior to the head of the pancreas which then enters the duodenum

378
Q

What happens if bile isn’t needed for digestion

A

It enters the gallbladder via the cystic duct and then when needed it flows from the gallbladder via the cystic duct to the bile duct and duodenum

379
Q

What is the spinal fold

A

Lies at the junction between the gallbladder neck and the cystic duct

380
Q

What is the blood supply to the gallbladder

A

Blood supply is via the cystic artery

381
Q

Where does the cystic artery arises from where

A

From the right hepatic artery

382
Q

What drains the gallbladder

A

The cystic veins

383
Q

Where do the cystic veins pass into

A

They either pass directly into the liver or join the hepatic portal vein

384
Q

What is the gallbladder innervated by

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibres

385
Q

Where does visceral pain from the gallbladder enter the spinal cord

A

The visceral pain from the gallbladder runs along the visceral afferents and enters the spinal cord at T5-T9

386
Q

Where is pain from the gallbladder felt in the abdomen

A

The epigastrium

387
Q

Why might gallbladder pain be felt in the right shoulder

A

Gallbladder pain maybe referred to the right shoulder because gallbladder pathology could irritate the diaphragm which in innervated by the phrenic nerve C3-C5 which also receives somatic sensory information from the skin of the right shoulder

388
Q

If gallbladder pathology irritates the parietal peritoneum where would the pain be felt

A

The pain would be well localised to the right hypochondrium

389
Q

What is hepatomegaly

A

Enlargement of the liver

390
Q

What can cause hepatomegaly

A

Hepatitis, malignancy and heart failure

391
Q

Why does cancer of the bowel travel to the liver

A

Cancer of the bowel travels to the liver within the venous blood from the gut via the hepatic portal vein

392
Q

What is cirrhosis of the liver

A

Known as scarring of the liver

393
Q

What can cirrhosis caused by

A

Can be caused by excess alcohol consumption, chronic infection with hepatitis B or C or a build up of fat on the liver

394
Q

What happens When a liver becomes cirrohosis

A

Hepatocytes are destroyed and replaced with fibrous tissue, the liver becomes shrunken, hard and modular which can lead to dysfunction of the liver and liver failure

395
Q

What is portal hypertension

A

High blood pressure in the portal venous system

396
Q

Why does portal hypertension occur

A

The blood flow through the liver and portal vein is obstructed

397
Q

Why could the portal vein become obstructed

A

Due to cirrhosis

398
Q

What are portosystemic anastomoses

A

They are communications between the veins draining into the systemic circulation and veins draining into the portal circulation

399
Q

What are gallstones most commonly composed of

A

Cholesterol

400
Q

When might gallstones provide symptoms

A

When the gallstones migrate into the biliary tree and get lodged there

401
Q

What is biliary colic

A

Biliary colic is a term used to describe severe pain caused by the contraction of the gallbladder against the gallstone in the cystic duct

402
Q

What happens if the gallstone remains stuck in the cystic duct

A

The flow of bile will become blocked and the gallbladder will become inflamed

403
Q

What is inflammation of the gallbladder known as

A

Cholecystitis

404
Q

What is a cholecystectomy

A

The removal of the gallbladder

405
Q

What does the left gastric artery supply

A

The distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach

406
Q

What does the common hepatic artery supply

A

Supplies the liver, stomach and duodenum

407
Q

What does the splenic artery supply

A

Supplies the stomach, pancreas and spleen

408
Q

What regulates gastric emptying into the duodenum

A

The pyloric sphincter

409
Q

Is the duodenum intraperitioneal or retroperitoneal

A

Most is retroperitoneal

410
Q

How many parts is the duodenum divided into

A

4

411
Q

What are the 4 parts of the duodenum

A

Superior
Descending
Inferior
Ascending

412
Q

Where on the duodenum would you find the bile duct, gastroduodenal artery and the hepatic portal vein

A

Posterior to the first part/superior of the duodenum

413
Q

Where on the duodenum would you find the superior mesenteric artery be found

A

Anterior to the thrird part/inferior part

414
Q

Where does the duodenum join with the jejunum

A

At the fourth part/ascending part of the duodenum unites with the jejunum at the duodenojejunal flexure

415
Q

What is found halfway along the duodenum

A

The major duodenal papilla

416
Q

What does the major duodenal papilla mark

A

The point at which bile and digestive pancreatic secretions enter the duodenum

417
Q

Where is the first part of the duodenum derived from

A

The foregut

418
Q

What is the first half of the duodenum supplied by

A

A branch of the coeliac trunk via the gastroduodenal artery

419
Q

Where is the second half of the duodenum derived from

A

The mid gut

420
Q

What supplies the second half of the duodenum

A

Branches of the superior mesenteric artery via the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery

421
Q

Where do the veins from the duodenum drain into

A

The hepatic portal vein

422
Q

Where is the pancreas located in the abdomen

A

Lies horizontally on the posterior abdominal wall across the right and left upper quadrant

423
Q

At what level does the pancreas lie at

A

Level of L1

424
Q

Is the pancreas intrperitoneal or retroperitoneal

A

Retroperitoneal

425
Q

Where does the pancreas develop from embryologically

A

The dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds which during development fuse together

426
Q

How many parts make up the pancreas

A

4

427
Q

What are the 4 parts of the pancreas

A

The head, the neck, the body and the tail

428
Q

Where does the duodenum touch the pancreas

A

Cupped around the head

429
Q

Where does the tail extend to in the abdomen

A

The hilum of the spleen

430
Q

What does the pancreas form part of

A

The posterior wall of the lesser sac

431
Q

Where is the splenic artery located

A

In the upper border of the pancreas to the posterior

432
Q

Where are the main pancreatic duct and the accessory pancreatic duct found

A

In the substance of the pancreas

433
Q

What 2 functions does the pancreas have

A

An endocrine and exocrine function

434
Q

What is the endocrine function of the pancreas

A

Synthesises and secretes insulin and glucagon

435
Q

Why is insulin released from the pancreas

A

In response to high blood levels of glucose

436
Q

What is the exocrine function of the pancreas

A

Produces pancreatic juices which contain digestive enzyme which gets transported to the duodenum via the main and accessory pancreatic duct

437
Q

What does the duodenum receive from the liver and gallbladder

A

Bile via the bile duct

438
Q

What does the duodenum receive from the pancreas

A

Pancreatic juice via the main and accessory pancreatic ducts

439
Q

What do the bile duct and main pancreatic duct become

A

They merge and become the hepatopancreatic ampulla

440
Q

Where does the hepatopancreatic ampulla open into

A

The second part of the duodenum at the major duodenal papilla

441
Q

What surrounds the hepatopancreatic ampulla

A

Surrounded by smooth muscle

442
Q

What is the smooth muscle around the hepatopancreatic ampulla known as

A

The spinchter of oddi

443
Q

What does contraction of the sphincter of oddi prevent

A

Reflux of duodneal contents into the bile and main pancreatic ducts

444
Q

Where does the accessory pancreatic duct empty the pancreatic juice into

A

The duodenum at the minor duodenal papilla proximal to the major duodenal papilla

445
Q

What branches supply the pancreas

A

The coeliac trunk and the superior mesenteric artery

446
Q

Where does the splenic artery run

A

Runs from the coeliac trunk along the upper border of the pancreas which gives rise to pancreatic arteries

447
Q

Where does the superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries arise from

A

This artery arises from the gastroduodenal artery which comes off the common hepatic artery from the coeliac trunk

448
Q

Where does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal arteries arise from

A

The superior mesenteric artery

449
Q

What vein drains the pancreas

A

The splenic vein

450
Q

What veins unite to form the hepatic portal vein

A

The splenic vein and the superior mesenteric vein

451
Q

What is the spleen

A

The spleen is a haematopoietic and lymphoid organ

452
Q

Where is the spleen located in the abdomen

A

Found in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen

453
Q

What protects the spleen

A

Ribs 9 to 11

454
Q

What is the spleen cover in

A

Parietal peritoneum

455
Q

What are the functions of the spleen

A

Breakdown of red blood cells
Storage of red blood cells and platelets
Immune responses
Production of IgG

456
Q

What are the 2 surfaces of the spleen

A

The diaphragmatic surface and the visceral surface

457
Q

What is the diaphragmatic surface of the spleen

A

The surface which lies adjacent to the diaphragm

458
Q

What is the visceral surface of the spleen

A

The surface which lies in contact with the stomach, left kidney and colon

459
Q

Where is the Hilum located

A

On the visceral surface

460
Q

How many borders does the spleen have

A

4

461
Q

What are the 4 borders of the spleen

A

Anterior, superior, posterior and inferior

462
Q

What is a characteristic of the anterior and superior borders of the spleen

A

They are typically notched

463
Q

What is a characteristic of the posterior and inferior borders of the spleen

A

They are smooth

464
Q

Is the spleen palatable

A

No, if it is it must be enlarged at least 3 times its normal size

465
Q

What is the spleen supplied by

A

The splenic artery which is a branch of the coeliac trunk

466
Q

How many branches does the splenic artery divide into before it enters the hilum of the spleen

A

5 branches

467
Q

What is the venous drainage of the spleen

A

The splenic vein

468
Q

Where does the splenic vein run

A

It runs posterior to the pancreas

469
Q

Where a duodenal ulcers most commonly found

A

In the first part of the duodenum

470
Q

Why might a duodenal ulcers cause severe intra-abdominal bleeding

A

The ulcer will erode through the duodenal wall and then through the gastroduodenal artery which is posterior to the first part of the duodenum causing it to bleed

471
Q

What is pancreatitis

A

Inflammation of the pancreas

472
Q

What causes acute pancreatitis

A

Excess alcohol intake or impact ion of gallstones in the hepatopancreatic ampulla

473
Q

What happens in gallstone pancreatitis

A

The Impactation of the gallstones prevents the pancreatic juice from leaving the pancreas and will so build up and cause a break down of the pancreas itself known as autolysis

474
Q

Where is pain felt during pancreatic cancer

A

Back

475
Q

When pancreatic cancer affects the head of the pancreas what can it cause

A

Obstruct the flow of bile in the bile duct which leads to an accumulation of bile pigments in the blood

476
Q

What does a build up of bile pigments in the blood cause

A

Jaundice

477
Q

What is the cause of diabetes mellitus

A

Cause by the insulin producing cells in the pancreas no longer produce insulin or don’t produce enough

478
Q

What is a result of the pancreas not producing enough insulin

A

Sustained high blood glucose levels

479
Q

What can diabetes be caused by

A

Pancreatitis

480
Q

What is splenomegaly

A

Enlargement of the spleen

481
Q

What can cause enlargement of the spleen

A

Infection by mononucleosis or malaria
Haematological malignancy eg-leukaemia
Portal hypertension

482
Q

When the spleen is enlarged where does it migrate towards

A

The midline of the right iliac fossa

483
Q

Why does the spleen move to the right iliac fossa and not the left

A

The phrenicocolic ligament prevents descent

484
Q

How is a splenic haemorrhage resolved

A

Splenectomy - removal of the spleen

485
Q

If a patient has a splenectomy what are they more prone to

A

Bacterial infections

486
Q

What does the mucosa in the upper nasal cavity contain

A

Olfactory receptors

487
Q

What do the axons of the olfactory receptors form

A

The olfactory nerves CN I

488
Q

How are the left and right nasal cavities seperated from what

A

Each other By a thin midline septum
The oral cavity by the hard plate
The brain by bone

489
Q

What does the nasal cavity communicate with

A

The nasopharynx posteriorly and the paranasal sinuses

490
Q

What is the midline nasal septum composed of

A

Cartilage anteriorly and two thin plates of bone posteriorly

491
Q

What does the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone form

A

The superior part of the posterior septum

492
Q

What does the vomer form

A

The inferior part of the posterior septum

493
Q

What is found on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity

A

3 projections of bone

494
Q

What are the 3 projections of bone in the nasal cavity

A

Superior conchae
Middle conchae
Inferior conchae

495
Q

What is the space inferior to the conchae in the nasal cavity

A

The space is the meatuses
The superior meatus lies inferior to the superior conchae
The middle meatus lies inferior to the middle conchae
The inferior meatus lies inferior to the inferior conchae

496
Q

As air is inspired through the meatus what happens

A

It is warmed, humidified and filtered

497
Q

How is the nasal cavity is seperated from the cranium

A

By the cribriform plate

498
Q

Why does the cribriform plate have many tiny holes

A

So the axons of the olfactory nerves can travel to the brain

499
Q

Where are olfactory receptors located

A

In the spheno-ethmoidal recess in the upper nasal cavity between the superior conchae and the cribriform plate

500
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses

A

Cavities within the skull bones

501
Q

Where are the frontal sinuses located

A

Lie in the anterior part of the frontal bone

502
Q

Where are the ethmoid air cells located

A

Lie within the ethmoid bone which is superior to the nasal cavity and medial to the orbits

503
Q

Where are the sphenoid sinuses located

A

Within the sphenoid bone

504
Q

Where are the maxillary sinuses located

A

In the maxillae of the facial skeleton

505
Q

How do the paranasal sinuses communicate with the nasal cavity

A

Via small ducts/channels

506
Q

Where does the frontal sinus drain

A

Into the middle meatus

507
Q

Where does the sphenoid sinus drain

A

Into the spheno-ethmoidal recess

508
Q

Where does the ethmoid air cells drain

A

Into the superior and middle meatus

509
Q

Where do the maxillary sinus drain

A

Into the middle meatus

510
Q

Why can’t the maxillary sinuses drain when the head is up right

A

Because the opening of the maxillary sinus lies superomedially in the middle meatus

511
Q

What does thenasolacrimal duct drain

A

Drains the fluid (tears) that lubricates the anterior surface of the eye

512
Q

Where does the nasolaracrimal duct open into

A

The inferior meatus

513
Q

Why do we get a runny nose when we cry

A

Because excess fluid runs down the nasolacrimal duct

514
Q

What is the middle ear

A

A small cavity within the temporal bone that is modified for hearing

515
Q

What is within the middle ear

A

3 tiny bones which transmit sound waves to the inner ear

516
Q

What is the auditory tube also known as

A

The Eustachian tube

517
Q

What is the role of the Eustachian tube

A

The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx

518
Q

Where is the opening of the Eustachian tube

A

Lateral wall of the nasopharynx

519
Q

What is the opening of the Eustachian tube surrounded by

A

Budge of tonsillar tissue

520
Q

What does the Eustachian tube allow

A

It allows air t pass into the middle ear so that the pressure on either side of the tympanic membrane which lies between the middle ear and the external ear is equal which is important for optimal conduction of sound waves

521
Q

What is the nasal cavity is supplied by

A

Several branches of the maxillary artery

522
Q

Where does the maxillary artery arise from

A

The external carotid artery

523
Q

What is the most common site of bleeding from the nose

A

The anastomotic network which supplies the nasal septum

524
Q

What is the sensory innervation of the nose

A

Branches of the trigeminal nerve CN V

525
Q

What is the palate

A

The palate seperates the nasal cavities from the oral cavity

526
Q

What is the palate composed of

A

Bone anteriorly which is the hard plate and muscle posteriorly which is the soft plate

527
Q

What does the palate form

A

The roof of the oral cavity

528
Q

What is the hard palate composed of

A

2 bones
The palatine bone of the maxilla
Horizontal plate of the palatine bone

529
Q

Why is the hard palate functionally important

A

Prevents food and liquids entering the nasal cavity
We push our tongue up against the hard palate during the first phase of swallowing forcing food into the oropharynx
We push our tongue up against the hard palate to articulate certain sounds

530
Q

What is formed if the palate does not form properly during embryological development

A

A cleft palate

531
Q

What does a cleft palate cause

A

Difficulty with eating, swallowing and speech

532
Q

Where is the soft palate located

A

Posterior to the hard palate

533
Q

What is the midline conical projection called

A

The uvula

534
Q

Where is the uvula located

A

Hangs from the posterior border of the soft palate

535
Q

What is the soft palate composed of

A

Several muscles

536
Q

What happens to the muscles of the soft palate during swallowing

A

They contract with elevates the soft palate which closes of the nasopharynx from the oral cavity which prevents reflux of food and liquid into the nasal cavity

537
Q

What is the muscles of the soft palate innervated by

A

The vagus nerve

538
Q

What are the boundaries of the oral cavity

A

Superiorly the hard and soft palate
Inferiorly the soft tissue and muscles of the floor of the mouth
Laterally by the cheeks

539
Q

What does the oral cavity contain

A

Tongue
Teeth
Gums
Openings of the salivary ducts

540
Q

What is the oral cavity continuously

A

Oropharynx

541
Q

What could a dental abscess cause

A

Sepsis or spread the infection to the deep tissues of the face

542
Q

How many teeth do adults have

A

32 in total
16 embedded in the maxilla
16 embedded in the mandible

543
Q

What teeth are in the upper and lower jaw

A

4 incisors
2 canines
4 premolars
6 molars

544
Q

What are teeth composed of

A

Inner pulp containing blood vessels and nerves
Dentin which surrounds the pulp
Enamel an outer hard coating

545
Q

What causes erosion of enamel and dentin

A

Bacteria and food which are high in sugars and acids

546
Q

Is the dentin and enamel are eroded what could this cause

A

Decay, inflammation and infection in the pulp

547
Q

An infection of the inner pulp could spread to where

A

May spread to the bone which will lead to abscess formation

548
Q

What is the tongue essential for

A

Chewing, swallowing and speech

549
Q

What is on the superior surface of the tongue

A

Papillae

550
Q

What do some of the papillae do

A

Detect taste via taste buds

551
Q

What is the tongue composed of

A

Intrinsic and extrinsic muscles

552
Q

Where are the intrinsic muscles of the tongue located

A

The intrinsic muscles lie entirely within the tongue and are pair bilaterally and fuse in the midline

553
Q

What is the function of the intrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

They change the shape of the tongue

554
Q

Where are the extrinsic muscles of the tongue located

A

They are attached to the tongue but originate outside from the mandible and the hyoid bone

555
Q

What is the function of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

They move the tongue

556
Q

What innervates the muscles of the tongue

A

The hypoglossal nerve CN XII

557
Q

How many nerves supply sensory innervation to the tongue

A

3

558
Q

What are the 3 never which provide sensory innervation to the tongue

A

Taste- is found in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and is served by the facial nerve CN VII
General sensation such as touch, pain and temp- is found in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue served by the trigeminal nerve CN IX
Taste and general sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is served by the glossopharyngeal nerve CN IX

559
Q

What is the oral cavity supplied byt

A

It is supplied by the lingual, maxillary and facial arteries which are branches of the external carotid artery

560
Q

What is the soft palate innervated by

A

There vagus nerve

561
Q

What is the tongue innervated by

A

The hypoglossal nerve CN XII
The facial nerve CN VII
The trigeminal nerve CN V
The glossopharayngeal nerve CN IX

562
Q

Where are the pharyngeal tonsils located

A

In the roof and posterior wall of the nasopharynx

563
Q

What are pharyngeal tonsils also known as

A

The adenoids

564
Q

Where are the tubal tonsils located

A

They surround the opening of the Eustachian tube on the lateral wall of the nasopharynx

565
Q

Where are palatine tonsils located

A

On the lateral wall of the oropharynx

566
Q

What are the palatine tonsils also known as and where can they be seen

A

They are known as the tonsils
They are visible on either side of the oropharynx when the mouth is open

567
Q

Where are the lingual tonsils found

A

They are found in the posterior tongue which are just collections of lymphoid tissues

568
Q

What is epistaxis

A

Nosebleed

569
Q

What is used to stop a nosebleed

A

Apply pressure
Bleeding could be cauterised
Nasal tampon

570
Q

What can happen if the nose is hit via blunt trauma

A

The nasal bones/septum may be broken which could also fracture the cribriform plate

571
Q

What is sinusitis

A

Inflammation or infection of the mucosa lining the paranasal sinuses

572
Q

Why might sinusitis be problematic in the maxillary sinuses

A

They do not drain freely unless laying down on one side

573
Q

Where might pain be felt from inflammation of the maxillary sinuses

A

Pain in the cheek due to the sensory nerve that supplies the check runs in the roof of the maxillary sinus

574
Q

What happens if the bone of the hard palate do not develop or fuse in the midline

A

A cleft palate with be formed allowing communication between the nasal and oral cavities

575
Q

What would be the result of injury to the right hypoglossal nerve

A

Would result in atrophy and weakness/paralysis of the ipsilateral side of the tongue

576
Q

What is the result of hypoglossal nerve palsy

A

Te tongue would deviate to the affected side then the patient protrudes their tongue

577
Q

How do mouth cancers present

A

Ulcers, lumps, patches of discolouration

578
Q

What structures could oral cancers affect

A

The oral mucosa, tonsils, tongue and salivary glands

579
Q

What is tonsillitis

A

Inflammation of the tonsils

580
Q

Which tonsils are most commonly affected in tonsillitis

A

The palatine tonsils

581
Q

What can inflammation of the tonsils cause

A

May obstruct the opening to the Eustachian tube which can result in accumulation of fluid in the middle ear

582
Q

How can recurrent tonsillitis be treated

A

Tonsillectomy

Anatomy (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions