Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

Rome IV criteria for Constipation

A

2 or more of the following occurring at least once per week for a minimum of 1 month with insufficient criteria for a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome:

1. 2 or fewer defecations in the toilet per week in a child of a developmental age of at least 2 years
2. At least 1 episode of fecal incontinence per week
3. History of retentive posturing or excessive volitional stool retention
4. History of painful or hard bowel movements
5. Presence of a large fecal mass in the rectum
6. History of large diameter stools that can obstruct the toilet
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2
Q

Rome IV criteria for Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome

A

Must include all of the following:

1. The occurrence of 2 or more periods of intense, unremitting nausea and paryoxysmal vomiting, lasting hours to days within a 6-month period
2. Episodes are stereotypical in each patient
3. Episodes are separated by weeks to months with return to baseline health between episodes
4. After appropriate medical evaluation, the symptoms cannot be attributed to another condition
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3
Q

Rome IV criteria for Functional Dyspepsia

A

Must include 1 or more of the following bothersome symptoms at least 4 days per month

1. Postprandial fullness
2. Early satiation
3. Epigastric pain or burning not associated with defecation
4. After appropriate evaluation, the symptoms cannot be fully explained by another medical condition

Criteria fulfilled for at least 2 months before diagnosis

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4
Q

Rome IV Criteria for Irritable Bowel Syndrome

A

Must include all of the following:

1. Abdominal pain at least 4 days per month associated with one or more of the following:
	a. Related to defecation
	b. A change in frequency of stool
	c. A change in form (appearance) of stool
2. In children with constipation, the pain does not resolve with resolution of the constipation (children in whom the pain resolves have functional constipation, not irritable bowel syndrome)
3. After appropriate evaluation, the symptoms cannot be fully explained by another medical condition

Criteria fulfilled for at least 2 months before diagnosis

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5
Q

Rome IV Criteria for Abdominal Migraines

A

Must include all of the following occurring at least twice:

1. Paroxysmal episodes of intense, acute periumbilical, midline or diffuse abdominal pain lasting 1 hour or more (should be the most severe and distressing symptom)
2. Episodes are separated by weeks to months
3. The pain is incapacitating and interferes with normal activities
4. Stereotypical pattern and symptoms in the individual patient
5. The pain is associated with 2 or more of the following
	a. Anorexia
	b. Nausea
	c. Vomiting
	d. Headache
	e. Photophobia
	f. Pallor
6. After appropriate evaluation, the symptoms cannot be fully explained by another medical condition

Criteria fulfilled for at least 6 months before diagnosis

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6
Q

Rome IV Criteria for Infant Colic

A

For clinical purposes, must include all of the following:
A. An infant who is <5 months of age when the symptoms start and stop
B. Recurrent and prolonged periods of infant crying, fussing, or irritability reported by caregivers that occur without obvious cause and cannot be prevented or resolved by caregivers
C. No evidence of infant failure to thrive, fever or illness

Must also include:

1. Caregiver reports infant has cried or fussed for 2 or more hours per day during 3 or more days in 7 days in a telephone or face-to-face screening interview with an researcher or clinician
2. Total 24 hour crying plus fussing in the selected group of infants is confirmed to be 3 hours or more when measured by at least one prospectively kept, 24-hour behaviour diary

Fussing: intermittent distressed vocalization and has been defined as “[behaviour] that is not quite crying but not awake and content either”

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7
Q

What is the most helpful test for confirming Eosinophilic Esophagitis?

A

Upper endoscopy with biopsy: esophageal biopsy containing >15 intraepithelial eso/HPF specimens
- Gold standard: Upper endoscopy
Endoscopic clues in esophagus: linear furrowing, “trachealization” (rings), white papules, pallor, friability, stricture
- +absence of pathologic GERD as evidenced by a normal pH monitoring study of the distal esophagus OR lack of response to high-dose PPI medication (GERD can cause high eosinophils in the esophagus) (should be on PPI x 8 weeks prior to scope ideally)
- May have high serum eosinophil and total IgE level
- Skin prick testing for aeroallergens (useful if considering dietary management)

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8
Q

How to treat EoE?

A
  • Initial Treatment: high dose PPI
    • No Canadian guidelines for treatment
    • Lack of response is almost diagnostic of EE
    • Should not be considered primary therapy
  • Corticosteroids (induces remission in 90%)
    - Systemic: severe dysphagia causing dehydration & weight loss (fairly unusual)
    - Topical (swallowed) fluticasone/budesonide ¬6-8 weeks
  • MOST effective treatment: dietary management (consult a dietician)
    • Successful in 70-98%
    • Elimination of IgE mediated allergens (guided by SPT results), 6-food elimination diet (dairy, eggs, wheat, soy, peanuts, fish/shellfish) or use of amino-acid based formula
  • Dilatations (last resort): for symptomatic strictures causing food impaction
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9
Q

Name 6 GI symptoms of Celiac Disease

A
  • Failure to thrive
  • Abdominal pain/cramping
  • Diarrhea
  • Anorexia
  • Oral sores (aphthous stomatitis)
  • Constipation
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10
Q

What are 9 non-GI manifestations of Celiac Disease?

A
  • Dermatitis herpetiformis
  • Alopecia
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Hepatitis
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Dental enamel erosions
  • Poor growth
  • Delayed puberty
  • Arthritis
  • Epilepsy with occipital calcifications
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11
Q

What screening tests should you use to diagnose Celiac Disease?

A
  • Tissue transglutimase antibodies and IgA
  • IgA Endomysial antibody (EMA)
  • Deaminated gliadin peptide (DGP IgA and IgG)
  • Esophogastroduodenoscopy and biopsies
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12
Q

What are some complications of Crohn’s Disease?

A
  • Steroid side effects: growth failure, osteoporosis, immunocompromise, hypertension
  • Strictures: obstruction
  • Fistulas/abscesses
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13
Q

What are the clinical signs of Toxic Megacolon?

A
A. Radiographic evidence of transverse colon diameter ≥56 mm (or >40 mm in those <10 years)
B. Evidence of systemic toxicity:
	1. Fever >38 C
	2. Tachycardia
	3. Dehdyration
	4. Electrolyte disturbances (Na, K, Cl)
	5. Altered level of consciousness or coma
	6. Hypotension or shock
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14
Q

What are 3 long term consequences of UC?

A
  • Toxic Megacolon
  • Colorectal adenocarcinomas
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis
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15
Q

What is the primary problem in Gilbert Syndrome?

A

Gene defect in promoter region of UGT1A1; normal enzyme activity but decreased number. This produces hyperbilirubinemia (unconjugated) induced by stress, dehydration, fasting, menstruation, exercise or illness

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16
Q

Rome IV Criteria for GERD

A

Regurgitation 2 or more times per day for 3 or more weeks without retching, hematemesis, aspiration, apnea, failure to thrive, feeding or swallowing difficulty, or abnormal posturing in an otherwise healthy infant 3-12 months of age

17
Q

What conditions place children at higher risk of developing GERD?

A
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Previous esophageal defect/surgery i.e. TEF
  • Obesity
  • Family history of GERD
18
Q

What are 5 non-pharmacologic treatments for GERD?

A

(1) parental education
(2) possible trial of 2 to 4 weeks of extensively hydrolyzed formula
(3) use of thickened formula may reduce visibility
(4) prone positioning decreases amount of reflux, but associated with SIDS
(5) avoidance of smoke exposure
(6) dietary exclusion of caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, spicy foods

19
Q

What are 3 potential pharmacologic treatments for GERD?

A

(1) H2R blocker - ranitidine (no longer recommended due to recall)
(2) PPI - lansoprazole
(3) prokinetic - domperidone (must rule out long QT)
(4) buffering agent - sucralfate

Do not offer antacids PRN (side effects of diarrhea/constipation)

20
Q

What is “dumping syndrome”?

A

Physiologic reaction to sudden/significant increase in chyme deposition in the small bowel resulting in hypoglycemia, cramping and diarrhea

21
Q

Indications for emergent removal of foreign body?

A
  • esophageal obstruction and unable to manage secretions
  • Button battery in the esophagus <24 hours
  • sharp, long, pointed objects lodged in the esophagus
22
Q

Indications for urgent endoscopy

A
  • Esophageal foreign objects that are not sharp/pointed
  • Esophageal food impaction without complete obstruction
  • Sharp/pointed objects in the stomach or duodenum
  • objects >6 cm in length at or above the proximal duodenum
  • Magnets within endoscopic reach
23
Q

Under what conditions should a Button Battery found in the stomach be observed?

A

≥ 5 years of age AND/OR the button battery is <20 mm, consider outpatient observation with repeat x-ray in 48 hours if ≥20 mm, and in 10-14 days if <20 mm and fails to pass in the stool

24
Q

What is the primary cause of growth failure in children with Inflammatory Bowel Disease?

A
Inadequate intake
(i.e. anorexia, learned association with food intake and pain, early satiety, side effect of modulating medications and biologics)
25
Q

How long is a person with Hepatitis A contagious?

A

Up to 2 weeks before the development of jaundice and for 1 week afterwards (exclude from daycare during this time)

26
Q

Name each of the serology components in Hepatitis B testing and what they mean

A
  • HBsAg: indicates either acute hepatitis B infection or more often, a carrier of hepatitis B - these individuals are infectious to others
  • Anti-HBs: indicates immunity to hepatitis B, from either exposure to the virus or from vaccination - a titre of greater than or equal to 10 IU/L indicates protection against hepatitis B
  • HBcAb or Anti-HBc: indicates that the person either has or has had hepatitis B; develops after exposure to the virus but not after immunization (cannot tell you if the person has immunity or is actively infectious)
  • Anti-HBc IgM: indicates acute or recent infection with hepatitis B; usually disappears after 6 months of infection and should be ordered if you suspect acute hepatitis
  • HBeAg: will only be positive in a person who is also HBsAg positive; appears in the acute stage of infection and may persist for decades in some, indicates a person who is highly infectious to others
  • Anti-HBe: indicates a person who was HBeAg positive but has developed immunity to this antigen → does not confer immunity from Hep B
27
Q

What is the protocol for treating a baby with a known Hepatitis B positive mother?

A
  • Immediate testing and serology
  • Hep B IgG and vaccine within 12 hours of birth
  • Vaccinate at 1 and 6 months (1, 2, 6 if <2.0 kg at birth)
  • serological testing 4 weeks after completion of vaccine series
28
Q

What conditions are associated with Hirshsprung’s Disease?

A
  • Trisomy 21
  • Central hypoventilation
  • Smith-Lemli-Opitz
  • Multiple Endocrine Neoplasm 2
  • Neurofibromatosis
  • Autism
  • Neuroblastoma
29
Q

What is the gold standard test for diagnosis of Hirshsprung’s Disease?

A

Suction or full thickness rectal biopsy
• Take biopsy no closer than 2 cm above the dentate line
• Should show an absence of ganglion cells if positive result
• Acetylcholinesterase staining will demonstrate hyperplasia of axons, with absence of ganglion cells

30
Q

What does the CPS recommend in cases of infantile colic?

A
  • In cases with severe colic, an empiric time-limited (2 week) therapeutic trial of a hypoallergenic diet could be considered
  • Under similar conditions, may consider eliminating cow’s milk from the maternal diet
  • Ensure that breastfeeding is not prematurely discontinued
  • If there is no definite benefit after two weeks, the dietary restrictions should be lifted
  • For the bottle-fed infant with colic where there is the relatively rare concern of CMPA, the use of a time-limited (2 week) empiric trial of an extensively hydrolyzed formula may be considered
  • The use of soy formulas in the treatment of infantile colic should be avoided
  • Do not give lactase or probiotics (insufficient evidence)
31
Q

What is the “Rule of 2s”?

A

Features of Meckle’s Diverticulum

2% of population
2 inches long
2 feet away from ileocecal valve
2 types of ectopic tissue (pancreatic or gastric)
Generally presents before age 2
2:1 female to male
32
Q

What kind of testing should be done in cases of Wilson’s Disease?

A
  • Ceruloplasmin (looking for low levels)
  • serum copper
  • urinary copper excretion (should be elevated)
  • Keyser Fleisher rings on ophtho exam (more common in neurologic disease, may miss with just GI disease)
33
Q

Treatment for Wilson’s Disease

A
  • Liver transplant (curative)
  • Decrease dietary copper intake (i.e. decrease liver, shellfish, nuts, chocolate intake)
  • Zinc supplementation
  • Copper chelating agents i.e. penacillamine
34
Q

Potential causes of rectal prolapse (6)

A
  • Constipation
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Ehler’s Danlos
  • Intestinal parasites
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Pertussis
35
Q

What are some clinical features of Alagille Syndrome?

A
  • Cholestasis and liver dysfunction
  • Cardiac defects (usually stenosis of pulmonary artery or it’s branches)
  • Bile duct paucity
  • Skeletal/vertebral abnormalities
  • Characteristic facial features i.e. broad forehead (less prominent in adults), deep-set eyes (sometimes with upslanting palpebral fissures), prominent ears, saddle or straight nose with bulbous tip, pointed chin (more prominent in adults), “inverted triangular” appearance
  • Posterior embryotoxon
  • Shortened distal phalanges
36
Q

What is the main pathology in alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Lack of this protease results in lower levels of elastase as well as trypsin, chymotrypsin, and thrombin which lead to poor protein absorption, adult-onset chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, or hepatocellular carcinoma, panniculitis (hot, painful, red nodules or plaques characteristically on the thigh or buttocks), vasculitis, IBD, intra-abdominal aneurysms, fibromuscular dysplasia, glomerulonephritis and emphysema in adulthood

37
Q

What autoimmune conditions are linked to Celiac Disease?

A
  • Diabetes (Type 1)
  • Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  • Addison’s disease
  • Autoimmune hepatitis
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • IgA nephropathy
  • Multiple Sclerosis
38
Q

Define Toddler’s Diarrhea

A

The passage of 4 or more large, unformed stools for four or more weeks with onset in infancy/early childhood with no FTT or specific cause