gastro SBAs Flashcards

1
Q

Levels of plasma bilirubin when jaundice is clinically visible

A

> 35umol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most appropriate screening investigation in AAA

A

Abdominal USS

Least invasive and safest screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Predisposing factors for HCC

A

Hep B
Hep C
Aflatoxin
Liver cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Treatment for C diff

A

Oral/IV metronidazole

±vancomycin if pseudomembranous colitis and severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus definition

55-65years, M>F 2:1

A

metaplastic replacement of lower oesophageal normal squamous epithelium by columnar epithelium.
GORD -> Barrett’s -> premalignant condition to oesophageal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Coeliac disease definition and histology

A

Chronic intestinal malabsorption and inflammation due to small intestine mucosal damage and intolerance to gluten.
Histology: villous atrophy, flat smooth mucosa, crypt hyperplasia of dyodenum, cuboidal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus Rx

A

Diet
PPIs, H2 receptor antagonist
Surveillance endoscopy + biopsy
(Ablation and surgical resection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis (intense itchy elbow, knees, buttocks blisters) are present in …

A

Coeliac disease

other PC: malnutrition, abdo discomfort, pain, wt loss, steatorrhoea, diarrohea, anaemia i.e. pallor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IgG anti-gliadin (AGA) is associated with…

A

Coeliac disease

Diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tissue transglutaminase autoantibody is asscoiated with…

A

Coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Diagnostic test for hiatus hernia

A

Upper GI barium meal/swallow

CXRs can be normal, but some show air fluid level above L hemi-diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Duodenal ulcers secondary to H pylori infection (90%) diagnostic test

A

CLO breath test (rapid urease test) to confirm presence of bacteria

IgG serology
Stool antigen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment for duodenal ulcers due to H.pylori

A

7 day course of triple therapy: PPI and 2 Abx e.g. 20mg omeprazole, 1g amoxicillin, 500mg clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of portal HTN

A

Pre-hepatic (portal vein thrombosis, splenic vein thrombosis)
Hepatic (cirrhosis 80%, schistosomiasis, sarcoid, congenital fibrosis)
Post-hepatic (Budd-Chiari syndrome, RHF, constrictive pericarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drugs that induce liver cirrhosis

A

Methotrexate
Amiodarone
Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Appropriate investigations for patient with IDA and red flag symptoms (wt loss)

A

upper and lower GI endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gastroenteritis is usually limiting and will not require pharmacological therapy. Mainstay of treatment involves…

A

Increase oral fluid intake
Anti-emetics
(only when very severe give IV fluids and cultured bacteria give Abx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome results from hepatic vein outflow obstruction. Triad of symptoms includes…

A

Acute abdo pain
Hepatomegaly
Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Liver cirrhosis histology

A

Loss of normal hepatic architecture
Bridging fibrosis
Nodular regneration

(biopsy confirms the diagnosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causes of liver cirrhosis

A
Alcoholism
NASH
Chronic HepB/C
Autoimmune
Budd-Chiari syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ascites Rx

A

Low salt diet
Fluid restriction
Osmotic diuretic e.g. mannitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis can cause

A

cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Crohn’s disease histology and barium-swallow

A

Transmural, non-caseating granulomatous inflammation
Fissuring ulcers
Neutrophil infiltrates
Cobblestoning and rose-thorn ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ulcerative colitis histology

A

Inflammatory infiltrates
Mucosal ulcers
Goblet cell depletion
Crypt abscesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chronic liver disease Rx

A

Treat the cause (e.g. AI hepatitis)
Symptomatic
Immunosuppressants (corticosteroids or steroid-sparing agents e.g. azathioprine)
Liver transplantation for decompensated liver cirrhosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Prophylaxis for prevention of variceal bleeding due to portal HTN

A

Primary: non-selective b-blockers, e.g. propanolol, ± endoscopic banding ligation
Secondary: i.e. post-variceal bleed, also consider TIPPS or surgical shunts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis (type of infectious colitis) definition

A

Caused by C diff (Gram +ve anaerobic bacillus) toxins (A and B). Formation of adherent inflammatory membrane overlying sites of mucosal injury within the colon. Accumulates neutrophils, fibrin, mucous and necrotic epithelial cells forming a ‘summit lesion’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Truelove and Witts criteria measures the severity of UC. Criteria includes:

A
  • Opening bowels >6x day with large amounts of blood per rectum
  • > 37.8oC
  • > 90bpm HR
  • <10.5/dl Hb
  • > 30mm/h ESR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rockall score will assess…

A

risk of rebleeding/mortality pre and post-endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which hepatitis is usually from contaminated water

A

Hep A

faecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment of Hep A

A

No treatment - conservative

Symptomatic (antiemetics, antipyretics, cholestyramine for pruritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hep A signs and symptoms

A

Prodrome of fever, malaise, anorexia and nausea. Followed by dark urine, pale stools, jaundice ~3weeks. Spleen or liver may be palpable.
Hep B and E have similar clinical features.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which hepatitis is usually from IVDU or sexually transmitted

A

Hep B and C

Hep B can also be vertically transmitted. Hep C is more likely to be involved with IVDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chronic extra-hepatic features of HepB and HepC

A

Rashes
Arthralgia
Glomerulonephritis (= renal dysfunction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hep C signs and symptoms

A

Acute flu-like infection, usually asymptomatic/mild.

Most develop chronic infection that predisposes to liver cirrhosis development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

5 days after a bowel resection for cancer, a 70 year old man gets a swinging fever + becomes confused

A

Post-surgery = risk of developing an abscess. A swinging fever is strongly indicative of an abscess and a blood culture is required to identify the pathogenic organism. Percutaneous or surgical drainage will usually be required with appropriate antimicrobial therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Salmonella gastroenteritis Rx

A

Ciprofloxacin Abx

±anti-emetics if N+v is bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome Rx

A

Anti-spasmodics to relieve abdo pain/discomfort
e.g. peppermint oil, dicycloverine

Laxatives can also be used e.g. lactulose

39
Q

IBD diagnosis with…

A

endoscopy and biopsy

and -ve stool culture to rule out infectious gastroenteritis

40
Q

Toxic megacolon

A

Complication of UC, associated with risk of perforation. Associated with bowel adenocarcinoma and PSC

41
Q

Ulcerative colitis Rx

A
  1. 5-ASA (mesalazine) - induces and maintains remission
  2. IV corticosteroids
  3. For moderate-severe disease give immunosuppressants (azathioprine) and TNF-a inhibitors (inflixmab)

ACUTELY: IV fluids + steroids first

42
Q

Crohn’s disease Rx

A
  1. Corticosteroids
  2. 5-ASA analogues (mesalazine)
  3. Steroid-sparing immunosuppressants (azathioprine)
  4. TNF-a inhibitors (infliximab)
    Surgery

ACUTELY: IV fluids + steroids first

43
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia Rx

A

IV immunoglobulin

44
Q

A 65 year old man had an elective AAA repair 5 days ago. He now has abdo distension & left sided abdominal pain. He is passing a small amount of blood & mucus per rectum.

A

Ischaemic colitis = insiduous focal/diffuse abdo pain over hrs/days. The recent operation has resulted in an incomplete blood supply to that part of the bowel

45
Q

Types of ischaemic bowel disease

A
  • acute mesenteric ischaemia (SMA)
  • chronic mesenteric ischaemia (due to atherosclerosis)
  • ischaemic colitis/chronic colonic ischaemia (IMA)
46
Q

A 58 year old male has had increasing difficulty swallowing. He has lost 10kg in 2 months. Upper GI endoscopy shows circumferential irregular & ulcerated mass in mid-oesophagus

A

Dysphagia, weight loss and the irregular shaped mass = malignancy. Tumours in the upper 2/3 of oesophagus are SCC and the lower 1/3 are adenocarcinomas. The main test to order is an OGD with biopsy.

47
Q

A 50 year old man with 1month Hx of progressive abdominal distension preceded by increased tiredness, SOB on exertion + weight loss of 10kg. There is a non-tender irregular mass in RIF

A

10kg wt loss, fatigue, non-tender irregular RIF mass = caecal carcinoma. R-sided colorectal cancer tends to present with anaemia.
Progressive abdominal distension indicates the presence of peritoneal secondaries, which causes vague symptoms.

48
Q

A 70 year old man presents with a 2 day history of constipation, anorexia and pain in the left iliac fossa. On examination he is pyrexial (37.6 C) and there is localised tenderness and rebound in the left iliac fossa. White cell count is 14.0units

A

Symptomatic diverticulitis = fever, high WCC and LLQ pain.
RFs for diverticular disease: low dietary fibre and advanced age.

Rx: analgesia, oral Abx (IV if oral do not improve after 72hours)

49
Q

Lithium overdose treatment

A

haemodialysis

50
Q

VitB12 deficiency that is not corrected by administration of IF suggests…

A

It is not pernicious anaemia

Diagnosis is likely to be coeliac disease

51
Q

Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule

A

Periumbilical nodule associated with GI/gynae cancer mets.

(gastric carcinoma presents similar to gastric ulcer but more chronic and with wt loss. RFs pernicious anaemia, H pylori)

52
Q

Krukenberg’s nodule tumour

A

Ovarian metastases associated with GI (e.g. gastric carcinoma) or breast primary cancers.

53
Q

Drugs that cause gallstones

A
Clavulanic acid/co-amoxiclav
Penicillins
Oestrogens
Erythromycin
Chlorpromazine
54
Q

Rigler’s triad

A

Gallstone ileus
Pneumobilia
Small bowel obstruction

55
Q

Glasgow criteria for acute pancreatitis
PANCREAS

3 or more of the criteria in the first 48hours indicates severe attack.
Rx: fluid ±electrolytes, urinary catheter, NG tube, analgesia ±anti-emetics, NBM

A
PaO2 <8kPa
Age >55yrs
Neutrophils >15x10^9/L
Ca2+ <2mmol/L
Renal function, urea >16mmol/L
Enzymes, high LDH/high AST
Albumin <32g/L
Sugar, glucose >10mmol/L
56
Q

Gastro causes of clubbing

A
Malabsorption (Coeliac)
Amyloidosis (hepatic)
GI lymphoma
IBD
Cirrhosis/PBC
57
Q

IBD extra-intestinal manifestations

A
Aphthous ulcers (Crohn's
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Iritis (uveitis), scleritis, episcleritis
Erythema nodosum
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Sclerosing cholangitis (pANCA in UC + PSC)
Arthritis
Clubbing

Abdo masses, anal ulcers or fistulae (Crohns)

58
Q

Hep A and Hep E histology

A

Inflammatory cell infiltration of portal tracts, zone 3 necrosis and bile duct proliferation

59
Q

Hep B and D (acute or chronic courses) signs and symptoms

A

Prodrome: 1-2weeks malaise, headache, anorexia, pyrexia, N+V, RUQ pain (±hepatosplenomegaly and cervical lymphadenopathy).
May experience serum sickness: fever, arthralgia, polyarthritis, urticaria, maculopapular rash
Jaundiice with dark urine and pale stools

Chronically: signs of chronic liver disease

60
Q

Intestinal obstruction causes

lumen, wall, extrinsic

A

Lumen - meconium/gallstone ileus
Wall - adenocarcinoma, diverticuli
Extrinsic - volvulus, IBD (Crohn’s), adhesions, hernias

61
Q

Diverticulitis presentations and complications

A

LIF pain
Fever
Increased inflammatory markers

Complications: abscess, perforation, fistula

62
Q

What do the following sites absorb?
duodenum
jejunum
ileum (terminal)

A

duodenum - iron
jejunum - folate
ileum (terminal) - b12

‘Dude Is Just Feeling Ill Bro’

63
Q

Beak-shaped barium swallow test results indicate…

A

achalasia

64
Q

Colonic polyps definition

A

Protuberance into the lumen from normally flat colonic mucosa. Can be neoplastic (adenomas & ACs) and non-neoplastic (hyperplastic, inflammatory, hamartomatous)

65
Q

Colonic polyps gold standard investigation

A

Colonoscopy

  • when removed and biopsied they can be then histologically examined to determine their malignant potential
66
Q

Colorectal carcinoma

Dukes staging and 5yr survival rates

A

A - confined to bowel wall (80-90%)
B - Through bowel wall, -ve LN (60%)
C - Through bowel wall, +ve LN (30%)
D - distant mets (<5%)

67
Q

Diverticulae are commonest in which part of the colon

A

Sigmoid colon and descending colon. They are absent from the rectum.

(they can be R sided too however)

68
Q

Botulinum toxin causes

A

paralysis.

Given botulinum antitoxin IM and manage in ITU

69
Q

Giant mitochondria indicate…

A

alcoholic hepatitis

70
Q

Synthetic function of the liver

A

Albumin
Clotting factors
Binding proteins for Fe and Cu

71
Q

Metabolic function of the liver

A

Glucose homeostasis

Excretion of bile

72
Q

Child-Pugh grading for liver cirrhosis criteria looks at

A
Albumin (low)
Bilirubin (high)
PT (prolonged)
Ascites
Encephalopathy
73
Q

Wilson’s disease (autosomal recessive) = characterised by decreased biliary excretion of copper and accumulation in liver and brain (esp in BG). Signs and symptoms include

A

Liver - hepatitis, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, ascites/oedema, gynaecomastasia, bruising
Neuro - cerebellar problems
Eyes - Kayser-Fleischer rings

Bloods - abnormal LFTs, low serum caeruloplasmin and copper
24 urinary Copper - high
Liver biopsy - high copper

74
Q

Poor prognostic factors for ulcerative colitis

ABCDEF criteria

A
Albumin (low)
Blood PR
CRP (high)
Dilated loops of bowel
Eight or more bowel movements per day
Fever (>38oC in first 24hrs)
75
Q

Diverticulosis Hinchley classification

A

IA - phelgmon (inflamed tissue)
IB, II - localised abscesses
III - perforation with purulent peritonitis
IV - faecal peritonitis

76
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome in alcoholic hepatitis Rx

A

Glypressin

N-acetylcysteine

77
Q

Inherited causes of liver cirrhosis

A
a1-antitrypsin deficiency
Haemochromatosis
Wilson's disease
Galactosaemia
CF
NASH

[biliary - PBC, PSC
vascular - Budd-Chiari syndrome or hepatic venous congestion]

78
Q

Type I autoimmune hepatitis autoantibodies

Occurs in all age groups (although mainly in young women)

A

ANA
ASMA
AAA
Anti-SLA

79
Q

Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis autoantibodies

Occurs normally in girls and young women

A

Antibodies to liver/kidney microsomes
ALKM-1
ALC-1

80
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca may be associated with

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

81
Q

Urinalysis results in Hep A and Hep E (acute infections)

A

Bilirubin +
High urobilinogen [hepatic jaundice picture. n.b. this is low in post-hepatic jaundice urine]

(n.b. dark urine, pale stools + jaundiced)

82
Q

Chronic HepB Rx

A

Anti-virals
IFN-a
Nucleos/tide analogues

83
Q

Chronic HepC Rx

A
IFN-a
Nucleotide analogue (ribavirin)

Monitor HCV viral load after 12weeks of treatment, and USS

84
Q

Iron accumulation in the liver in hereditary haemochromatosis is visualised using what stain

A

Perls’ stain

liver biopsy can assess tissue damage, MRI can estimate degree of iron loading

85
Q

Organ damage in hereditary haemochromatosis

A
Liver - hepatomegaly, disease
Joints - chondrocalcinosis, arthralgia
Pituitary - hypogonadism
Heart - arrythmias, HF
Pancreas - DM
86
Q

High eosinophils in which type of liver abscess?

A

Hydatid abscess
Caused by tapeworm (common in sheep rearing countries)
Stool MC&S - tapeworm eggs. USS localises mass. CXR for any R pleural effusion and raised hemidiaphragm.

87
Q

Pyogenic liver abscess (i.e. E coli, Klebsiella, enterococcus) aspiration and culture results are…

A

polymicrobial

88
Q

Entamoebic liver abscess (i.e. Entamoeba histolytica) aspiration and culture results are…

A

Like ‘‘anchovy sauce’’ - fluid of necrotic hepatocytes and trophozoites

Bloods. Stool MC&S shows E histolytica. USS and CXR.

89
Q
Time frames of liver failure (jaundice + encephalopathy) in the following:
Hyperacute
Acute
Subacute
Acute-on-chronic
A

Hyperacute - <7days
Acute - from 1-4weeks after onset
Subacute - 4-12weeks
Acute-on-chronic - acute deterioration (decompensation) in patients with chronic liver disease i.e. cirrhosis

90
Q

A 28yr old man with Crohn’s disease complains of watery discharged from a puckered area 2cm from the anal canal. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Anal fistula

Common complication of Crohn’s disease. A full PR examination is important to detect other causes of anal fistulae e.g. rectal carcinoma

91
Q

Anti-endomysial antibodies are detected in…

A

Coeliac disease

also IgG anti-gliadin AGA and TTG antibodies

92
Q

A 45yr old man presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. AXR shows absent psoas shadow and ‘sentinel loop’ of proximal jejunum. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Acute pancreatitis

Absent psoas shadow = build up of retroperitoneal fluid.
Sentinel loop = segment of gas-filled proximal jejunum.
n.b. AXR can be normal in acute pancreatitis.

93
Q

A 65 year old man presents with a 18 month Hx of recurrent attacks of epigastric pain lasting several weeks. The pain occurs straight after eating and is relieved by lying flat or vomiting. He avoids spicy foods and has lost 3kg in weight. O/E: midline epigastric tenderness. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Gastric carcinoma

similar sign to gastric ulcer however more gradual onset and note that he has lost weight