Gastro Key facts Flashcards

1
Q

Primary sclerosis cholagnitits is associated with what lower GI condition

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

primary sclerosing cholangitis is associated with what ANCA

A

P-ANCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the criteria for urgent 2WW referral for upper GI cancer query

A

all patients with dysphagia
all patients with upper abdo mass consistent with stomach cancer
patients aged 55+ with weight loss AND any of the following (upper abdo pain, reflux, dyspepsia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture

A

E Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the main diagnostic for haemachromatosis

A

serum ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is Wilsons disease

A

excessive build up of copper in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

in Wilsons disease what are the rings called in the cornea

A

kayser-fleischer rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the two main organs that are affected by alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

Liver cirrhosis after 50 years old

Bronchiectasis and emphysema in the lungs after 30 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can liver cirrhosis lead to over time

A

hepatocellualr carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is primary binary cirrhosis and what does it lead to

A

immune system attacks small bile ducts
causes obstruction to outflow of bile
back pressure leads to fibrosis, cirrhosis and liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does a build up of the following cause ]
bile acids
bilirubin
cholesterol

A

itcing
jaundice
xanthelasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which autoantibodies are specific to primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most specific to PBC and forms part of the diagnostic criteria
Anti-nuclear antibodies are present in about 35% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the following tumour markers for
alpha-fetoprotein
CA19-9

A

Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumour marker for hepatocellular carcinoma.
CA19-9 is a tumour marker for cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

barretts oesophagus is considered premalagiant condition and is a risk factor for the development of which cancer

A

adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does Wilsons disease usually present

A

10-25 year olds, present with either liver disease or neurological disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the early symptoms of haemochromatosis

A

fatigue
ED
arthralgia (often in the hands)

also can cirrhosis, joint pain, pancreatic insufficiency and HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If someone presents with bleeding gums and a poor diet what does this make you think of

A

vitamin C deficiency- Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

in gallstone ileus what does plain abdo film usually show

A

small bowel obstruction & air in the biliary tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what 3 things can E coli cause

A

diarrhoea illness
UTI
neonatal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

long term PPI use causes which electrical abnormality

A

low magnesium

21
Q

how do you treat PBC

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

22
Q

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis; what is the most common organism in ascitic fluid

A

E coli

23
Q

what scan is performed to look at cirrhosis

A

transient elastography aka Fibroscan

can also do liver biopsy

24
Q

what is used to treat vatical bleed

what is used for prophylaxis

A

treat with terlipressin

prophylaxis is propranolol

25
Q

what condition should you always think about if someone presents with pain that is out of proportion to clinical findings, and occurs. after a meal with intermittent and severe pain

A

ischaemic colitis

26
Q

how many weeks. before endoscopy do you need to stop PPI

A

2 weeks

27
Q

what is Budd- Chiari syndrome

A

hepatic vein thrombosis

triad of: sudden onset abdo pain, ascites, tender hepatomegaly

28
Q

how do you calculate alcohol units

A

% x volume / 1000

29
Q

what cancer is associated with GORD or Barretts

A

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

30
Q

in C diff infection what antibiotic should you prescribe

A

IV metronidazole or oral vancomycin

31
Q

how is Wilsons disease treated

A

pencillamine

32
Q

in coeliac patients how long do they have to be eating gluten for in order to test them

A

6 weeks

33
Q

what is achalasia and how do they usually present

A

muscles of LOS fail to relax

pt will have trouble with solids and liquids and starts intermittently and regurg food

34
Q
what are the following cancer marks for 
AFP
CA19-9
CEA
CA125
A

AFP is HCC
CA19-9 is pancreatic cancer
CEA is bowel Ca
Ca125 for ovarian cancer

35
Q

match the description with the organism

  1. bloody diarrhoea & abscess, swinging fever, RUQ pain
  2. travellers diarrhoea
  3. bloody diarhhoea that is from ingesting uncooked meat and may lead to Gillian barre syndrome
  4. rice water stools from contaminated water and shellfish
  5. water diarrhoea from soft cheese, processed meat and pate

a. listeria
b. ecoli
c. entamoeba
d. campylobacter
e. vibrio cholera

A

1C

2B

3D

4E

5A

36
Q

positive AMA is associated with what condition

A

PBC

37
Q

in eradication of H pylori, which two antibiotics should not be given together (it is either or)

A

metronidazole or clarithromycin

38
Q

what is the histological feature of chrons

what is the histological feature of UC

A

granulomas in areas of transmural inflammation

UC: mucosal inflammation, ulceration and crypt damage

39
Q

what are the 3 main inherited causes of liver failure

A

Wilsons
alpha 1 antitrypsin
haemochromatosis

40
Q

in alcohol excess what is seen in LFT

A

raised GGT

microcytic anaemia

41
Q

name the 2 reasons for a TIPS procedure

A

secondary prophylaxis of oesophageal varies

treatment of refractory ascites

42
Q

what is librium also known as

A

chlordiazapoxide

43
Q

what does PSC predispose a patient to

A

cholangiocarcinoma and HCC

44
Q

what criteria is used for liver transplant

A

kings college hospital criteria

- note that one is a PH less than 7.3 24 hours after ingestion of paracetamol

45
Q

a patient with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis should be given what treatment first line

A

aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone

46
Q

which vitamin is tetragenic at high doses

A

vitamin A

47
Q

for hepatic encephalopathy what is given for secondary prevention

A

lactulose and rifaximin

48
Q

what is the triad for mesenteric ischemia

A

CVD
raised lactate
soft but tender abdomen