Gastro Flashcards

1
Q

RFs for NAFLD

A

Obesity
diabetes
dyslipidaemia
rapid weight loss
total parentral nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the progression of NAFLD

A

hepatic fat accumulation without inflammation
–> steatohepatitis,
–> fibrosis,
–>cirrhosis
–> end-stage liver disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diagnostic factors of NAFLD

A

dont drink much ETOH
RFs
deranged LFTs
truncal obesity
hepatosplenomegaly
RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

medications associated with hepatic steatosis

A

tamoxifen, corticosteroids, diltiazem, nifedipine, methotrexate, valproate, griseofulvin, intravenous tetracycline, amiodarone, and antiretroviral therapy for HIV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AST and ALT in NAFLD

A

both elevated but usually no higher than 300IU/L

AST:ALT ratio usually <1 (which differs from alcoholic LD where ratio is >2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Investigations for liver conditions

A

Bloods:
FBC- Hb for anemia
U&Es- Uraemia
LFTs + billirubin
lipids
clotting screen
serum albumin
autoimmune Ab screen
Iron studies
Hep B and C

Imaging:
Liver USS/ fibroscan
Abdo MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

possible signs in a patient for liver disease

A

General:
jaundice
abdo distension
unwell looking
bruising/ petechiae
Bronzed appearance- haemochromatosis

Hands/nails:
Leukonychia and mherkles lines- hypoalbuminaemia
Asterixis- uraemia
dupyutrens contracture- chronic liver disease
clubbing- chronic stable liver disease
palmar erythema

Neck:
raised JVP- right sided heart failure secondary to hepatic congestion

face:
Conjunctival pallor- anaemia
Kayserfleisher rings- Wilsons
corneal arcus- hyperlipidaemia
yellowing of sclera- uraemia, billirubinaemia
Xanthelasma- hyperlipidaemia
angular stomatitis- anaemia

chest:
spider naevi
gynaecomastia

abdo:
Ascites
caput madusae
bruising
hepato/splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

differentials for NAFLD

A

alcoholic liver disease
autoimmune hepatitis
viral hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of NAFLD

A

Diet and exercise
consider pioglitazone
vitamin E
liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

complications of cirrhosis

A

Ascites
Portal hypertension- splenomegaly, hepatopulmonary syndrome
oesophageal varices
uraemic encephalopathy
Hepatocellular carcinoma
hepatorenal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

signs of chronic stable liver disease

A

Palmar erythema (high oestrogen)
dupyutrens contrcture
clubbing

gynaecomastia (male- failure of liver to break down oestradiol)
spider naevi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

signs of portal hypertension

A

SAVE

Splenomegaly
Ascites
Varices
Encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pressure in portal venous system

A

5-10mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mechanism of hepatic encephalopathy

A

toxic metabolites such as ammonia/ urea not cleared by the liver
can cross BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mechanism of oesophageal varices

A

portosystemic shunts are made to minimise portal hypertension at 3 points where the potal system meets the systemic system (oesphagus, anus and round ligament)

causes varices which are very fragile and easly rupture casuing massive upper GI bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mechanism of caput medusae

A

round ligament (originally umbilicus at birth and closed off) rechannels blood from portal vein to abdominal veins which dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mechanism of splenomegaly in chronic liver disease

A

portal hypertension causes blood to back up into the spleen leading to congestive splenomagaly

–> anaemia, thrombocytopenia and thrombocytopenia as these cells get congested in spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mechanism of ascites

A
  1. decreased oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminaemia causes water to leak out
  2. portal hypertension leads to NO release from endothelial cells which causes vasodilation. as a result RAAS is stimulated and more water and Na are retained –> fluid overload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

causes of portal hypertension

A

prehepatic
- obstruction
eg. portal vein thrombosis

intrahepatic
- cirrhosis
- sarcoidosis
- schistosomiosis

post hepatic
- right sided heart failure
- constrictive pericarditis
- Budd-chiari syndrome (hepatic vein obstruction eg. thrombus in PCV or a tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of decompensated liver disease

A

beta blockers may help portal HPTN

Rifaximin- targets GIT bacteria which will reduce ammonia production

lactulose- improvs ammonia clearance

Ascitic tap for WCC and MC&S to rule out SBP- if previously had give prophylactic ciprofloxacin

Ascites- 20% human albumin solution and diuretics (spironolactone/ frusemide) and drain

OGD to look for varices- band ligation if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

signs of decompensated liver disease

A

Ascites
Jaundice
asterixis
encephalopathy
portal hypertension

22
Q

Main investigations for pt with suspected liver disease

A

bloods:
FBC- may have anaemia, thrombocytopenia
CRP
U&Es- uraemia
LFTs
Renal function + Cr- hepatorenal syndrome
clotting profile- synthetic marker of liver function
serum albumin

serum hepatitis virology
Immunoglobulins- aSM, amitochondrial, aANCA
caeruloplasmin and Cu- wilsons
Iron studies- haemochromatosis

23
Q

extra hepatic manifestations of haemochromatosis

A

arthritis
secondary T2DM and insulin resistance
infertility

24
Q

secondary causes of diabetes mellitus

A

cystic fibrosis
pancreatitis
pancreatic cancer
haemochromatosis
phaochromocytoma
cushings

25
Q

markers of synthetic liver function

A

albumin
clotting
platelets (liver makes thrombopoetin)

26
Q

causes of acute liver failure

A

Hep A&E
paracetamol OD
TB antibiotics
some tropical infections

27
Q

criteria for hepato-renal syndrome

A
  1. Chronic liver disease or acute liver disease with LIVER FAILURE.
  2. Poor GFR
  3. Absence of volume depletion
  4. no nephrotoxic drugs.
    6 Absence of shock
  5. No evidence of kidney disease (ie proteinuria or haematuria) / Ultrasound shows no obstruction.
  6. No improvement in creatinine after withdrawing diruetics or using 1.5 litre of fluid to replete.
28
Q

types of hepato-renal syndrome

A

Type 1 is rapidly progessing over 2 weeks. Where as type 2 is more slowly progessing and sometimes a cause can be found such as SBP.

29
Q

what are the 2 types of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1: This is the most common type of autoimmune hepatitis. This type patients have ANTI-SMOOTH MUSCLE ANTIBODIES and ANTI-NUCLEAR antibodies.

Type 2: this is rarer, and seen mainly in children, with anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies.

30
Q

emphysema plus cirrhosis

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

31
Q

causes of ascites

A

3C’s and an N

Cirrhosis
Cardiac failure
Cancer
Nephrotic synrome

32
Q

what is the SAAG and what are different types/ casues

A

serum ascites albumin gradient
serum albumin- ascites albumin

exudative- SAAG <1.1g/dL
casues (MINP): malignancy, infection (eg.TB), nephrotic syndrome, and pancreatitis

transudative- SAAG >1.1g/dL
Casues: Alcoholic hepatitis, Budd-chiari syndrome, cirrhosis, Kwashiorkor malnutrition

Another way of differentiating between an exudate and a transudate is to assess the ascitic fluid’s lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level:

LDH <225 U/L = transudate
LDH > 225U/ L = exudate

33
Q

causes of chronic liver failure

A

hep B, C and D
alcoholic liver disease
Metabolic associated steatohepatitis/ NAFLD

rare:
Wilsons
Haemochromatosis
Autoimmune hepatitis
alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency

34
Q

complications of cirrhosis

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

portal hypertension- rupture of oesophageal varices

ascites and spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

clotting dysfunction and bleeding

uraemic encephalopathy- confusion, reduced GCS, seizure

35
Q

what is creon

A

tablet of exogenous pancreatic enzymes

36
Q

causes of pancreatitis

A

Idiopathic
Gall stones
ERCP
Trauma
Steroids
Malignancy, mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hhypercalcamia, hypertriglyceride
Ethanol
Drugs (sulfonamides, azathioprine, NSAIDs, diuretics)

37
Q

Management of GORD

A

supportive
- smaller meals
- dont eat 2hrs before bed
- avoid citrusy foods

medical
- gavisocn
- PPIs

surgical
- fundoplication

38
Q

what is the montreal classification of crohns

A

A- age of onset
L- disease location
B- disease behaviour

A1: ≤16 years
A2: 17-40 years
A3: > 40 years

L1: terminal ileum
L2 : colon
L3: ileocolon
L4: upper gastrointestinal

B1: Inflammatory
B2: stricturing
B3: penetrating

39
Q

what is the montreal classification of UC

A

extent

E1: ulcerative proctitis; involvement limited to rectum (rectosigmoid junction)

E2: left sided ulcerative colitis: involvement limited to portion of colorectum distal to splenic flexure

E3: extensive ulcerative colitis: involvement extends proximal to splenic flexure

severity

S0: ulcerative colitis in clinical remission; no symptoms of UC

S1: mild UC ≤ 4 bloody stools daily, lack of fever, pulse <90 bpm, haemoglobin >105g/L, ESR < 30mm/hr

S2: moderate ulcerative colitis: > 4-5 stools daily but with minimal signs of systemic toxicity

S3: severe ulcerative colitis: ≥ 6 bloody stools daily, pulse > 90 bpm, temperatures > 37.5°C, haemoglobin < 105 g/L, ESR > 30 mm/hr

40
Q

eosinophilia plus iron deficiency anaemia

A

think parasitic infection such as giardia or strongoloides

41
Q

what would you give if someone with Cdiff diarrhoea was not responding to vancomycin?

A

oral fidaxomicin

if fulament colitis suspected then refer to surgery

42
Q

drugs that cause liver cirrhosis

A

Amiodarone
methotrexate
methyldopa

43
Q

Drugs that cause cholestasis

A

clauvulanic acid
penicillins
oestrogens
erythromycin
chlorpromazine

44
Q

Infective causes of bloody diarrhoea

A

E.coli
Salmonella
shigella
campylobacter

45
Q

causes of dysphagia

A

obstructive:
- oesophageal/ gastric carcinoma
- oesophageal web
- oesophageal strictures
- external compression: goitre, thymoma, lung cancer

motility issue:
- achalasia
- stroke
- MG
- systemic sclerosis
- MND
- parkinsons

46
Q

scoring systems used in upper GI bleed

A

Glasgow-Blachford score- calculated before a procedure to determine whether a patient will need to be admitted for medical intervention

AIMS65 -
used to calculate the risk of in-hospital mortality in patients with an upper GI bleed

Rockall score-
used after GI endoscopy to determine the percentage risk of rebleeding and mortality in patients with upper GI bleeding

47
Q

differentials for dysphagia

A

Painful to swallow:
- tonsilitis
- oesphagitis

Mechanical/ obstruction
- oesophageal cancer
- oesphageal web
- oesophageal stricture
- external compression (thymoma, goitre, lung Ca)
- pharyngeal puch

Motility disorder
- achalasia
- stroke
- bulbar/pseudobulbar palsy

48
Q

Ix for non neuro casues of dysphagia

A

REFERRAL UNDER 2WW to exclue oesphageal Ca

OGD
Barium swallow
manometry

49
Q

Differentials for dyspepsia

A

GORD
Gastric/ duodenal ulcer
- NSAIDs, steroids, H.pylori
Upper GI Ca
Achalasia
oesophagitis (think HIV with candida)
Functional

50
Q

redflag features with new dyspepsia

A

ALARM

Anaemia
Loss of weight
Anorexia +/- abdo pain
Recent symptoms
Meleana/ haematemesis

51
Q

features of a pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Pseudocysts can be asymptomatic or present with signs of biliary obstruction (abdominal pain, jaundice) or gastric outlet obstruction (post-prandial vomiting) due to mass effect of an enlarging pseudocyst on adjacent structures. There is also the risk of secondary infection