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Austin's Sheet Metal 4th Year > Gas Red Seal > Flashcards

Gas Red Seal Flashcards

1
Q

What type of heat is the energy absorbed or released when a substance undergoes a phase change?

A

Latent heat

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2
Q

When you say propane is lighter than water, you are referring to its?

A

Relative density

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3
Q

What allows a single wall vent to pass through a roof or a ceiling?

A

Ventilated metal

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4
Q

When chimney liner is used, how much must the labels be derated?

A

25 cu

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5
Q

What type of venting is used on a high efficiency oil burning appliance?

A

Natural gas

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6
Q

What do you call support hangers for vertical pipe?

A

Riser clamps

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7
Q

What is the function of pipe dope?

A

Lubricant

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8
Q

What is the maximum volume of gas released from a vent?

A

Natural gas - 25 cu

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9
Q

What is the type of gas identified for grooved joints?

A

Propane - cut

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10
Q

What is the color code for a gas identified in grooved joints?

A

Dy color

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11
Q

Fill in the blank: The maximum volume of natural gas released from a vent is _______.

A

25 cu

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12
Q

True or False: Riser clamps are used for horizontal pipe support.

A

False

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13
Q

How deep must gas lines be buried in a commercial installation?

A

The depth requirement varies by local codes and regulations.

It is essential to check local guidelines for specific depth requirements.

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14
Q

What is the least thing that must be determined prior to sizing a gas line?

A

The load requirements of the appliances to be connected.

This ensures the gas line can handle the necessary capacity.

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15
Q

Pressure taken in a gas line with only the pilot burning is what type of test?

A

A standing pressure test.

This test checks for pressure drop over a period.

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16
Q

What type of appliance can burn operating with what type of test?

A

Appliances operating with a performance test.

This test assesses the efficiency and function of the appliance.

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17
Q

What is the maximum working pressure of propane in a single-family dwelling?

A

The maximum working pressure is typically 10 inches water column.

This can vary based on local codes and installation specifications.

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18
Q

If the pressure increases, the volume will decrease if the temperature remains constant. True or False?

A

True.

This is a principle derived from Boyle’s Law.

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19
Q

What gas law states if the temperature increases, the volume increases, and the pressure remains constant?

A

Charles’s Law.

This law describes the direct relationship between temperature and volume.

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20
Q

What are two ways of removing water from natural gas?

A
  • Using a dehydrator
  • Heating the gas

These methods help ensure the gas is dry and safe for use.

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21
Q

Who is responsible for selling gas line pressures inside or outside a building?

A

The installer.

It is crucial for the installer to understand pressure requirements for safety.

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22
Q

Define ‘aller’.

A

Aller refers to the total furthest distance in a gas line installation.

This term may vary in specific contexts.

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23
Q

What is the significance of starting pressure?

A

Starting pressure is the initial pressure measurement before any changes occur.

It serves as a baseline for testing and adjustments.

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24
Q

What is operating pressure test?

A

It is a test conducted to ensure that the gas system operates within the specified pressure range.

This is critical for safety and efficiency.

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25
Q

What does ‘Doyle’s Law’ refer to?

A

Doyle’s Law relates to pressure and volume in gas systems.

More specific details may be needed for application.

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26
Q

Fill in the blank: The gas law that states pressure increases as volume decreases is known as ______.

A

Boyle’s Law.

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27
Q

Fill in the blank: The term used for anything that has an occupy space is ______.

A

Matter.

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28
Q

What is the minimum diameter of threaded pipe that can be used for natural gas unless it is schedule 40?

A

______

Schedule 40 is a standard for pipe thickness.

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29
Q

What does R0T refer to in regards to sizing vents?

A

R0T means __________

R0T is an acronym related to vent sizing.

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30
Q

What is the type of gas line fitting that cannot be used?

A

__________

Certain gas line fittings are prohibited for safety reasons.

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31
Q

How must derating be calculated for equipment?

A

Derate by multiplying by 90%

This is a standard derating procedure.

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32
Q

What is the rule of thumb for sizing vents?

A

Size the vent connector the same size as the draft hood or flue collar outlet

This rule assists in proper venting and airflow.

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33
Q

What is the significance of the floor unthreaded pipe example?

A

__________

This example likely relates to installation practices.

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34
Q

What is the purpose of venting in relation to a masonry chimney?

A

To ensure efficient venting of combustion gases

Proper venting is crucial for safety and efficiency.

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35
Q

Where must vent and mechanical air supply be located?

A

In relation to __________

Location is important for airflow and safety.

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36
Q

What is the role of a condensate in a gas system?

A

To manage the byproducts of combustion

Proper condensate management is essential for system efficiency.

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37
Q

What is the significance of type BW vent?

A

Used for venting appliances

Type BW vents are designed for specific applications.

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38
Q

What type of heat transfer takes place because of differences in density?

A

Convection

Convection occurs when warmer, less dense fluid rises while cooler, denser fluid sinks.

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39
Q

In heat transfer, what type occurs through direct contact?

A

Conduction

Conduction is the process of heat transfer through direct molecular interaction.

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40
Q

Transmission of heat energy by means of electromagnetic infrared rays is what type of heat transfer?

A

Radiation

Radiation involves the transfer of energy through electromagnetic waves and does not require a medium.

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41
Q

According to the principles of hydrostatics, what will happen to the pressure on a horizontal pipe if the length increases?

A

The pressure will stay the same

Hydrostatic pressure in a horizontal pipe remains constant regardless of length.

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42
Q

A propane cylinder may be tilted to?

A

A minimum of 2 and 2’ higher than any point on a building

This ensures safety and proper gas flow.

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43
Q

What is the minimum pressure rating for a propane cylinder?

A

240 psig

This rating is important for ensuring the cylinder can safely handle the pressure of stored propane.

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44
Q

Name types of electrical wheeling and lighting appliances.

A

Not specified in the text

Common examples include light fixtures, switches, and outlets.

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45
Q

Fill in the blank: The coefficient of _______ is related to heat transfer efficiency.

A

thermal expansion

This coefficient indicates how materials expand or contract with temperature changes.

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46
Q

What is the difference between tight and loose construction?

A

Tight construction restricts airflow, while loose construction allows for more airflow.

Tight construction is often used in energy-efficient buildings, whereas loose construction may be found in older structures.

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47
Q

Where are combustion air terminals fastened?

A

Combustion air terminals are fastened to the building structure.

Proper installation is crucial for maintaining safety and efficiency.

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48
Q

What can be installed to adhere to high torque gradecoat?

A

Automatic dampers can be installed.

These dampers help control airflow in combustion systems.

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49
Q

Where should automatic dampers be wired?

A

Automatic dampers should be wired to the combustion air system.

This ensures they function properly during operation.

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50
Q

What is safe handling, and at what rates to add?

A

Safe handling refers to the precautions taken during the handling of materials, and rates depend on specific material guidelines.

Following safety protocols is essential to prevent accidents.

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51
Q

What type of device is known as a btes vering system ataGrat Lorilral?

A

It is known as a combustion air system.

This system helps manage the air required for combustion processes.

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52
Q

What is the formula for calculating mass?

A

Density x Volume

This basic formula is fundamental in physics and engineering.

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53
Q

What happens when water changes to gas?

A

Volume increases approximately.

This is due to the transition from a liquid state to a gaseous state.

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54
Q

What is the transformation from solid to liquid called?

A

Melting.

This process occurs at a specific temperature known as the melting point.

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55
Q

What is condensation?

A

The transformation from gas to liquid.

This process is essential in various natural and industrial processes.

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56
Q

What is the characteristic of tight vapor barriers?

A

Tight vapor barriers restrict moisture movement, while loose barriers do not.

This is important for controlling humidity levels in buildings.

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57
Q

To what appliance is the largest BTU input typically associated?

A

The appliance having the largest BTU input.

BTU stands for British Thermal Unit, a measure of heat energy.

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58
Q

What is a gooseneck?

A

A gooseneck is a type of duct used for venting.

It is designed to prevent backflow of gases.

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59
Q

What is the chemical compound known as mercaptan used for?

A

Mercaptan is used as an odorant in natural gas.

It provides a distinctive smell for safety in detecting gas leaks.

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60
Q

What is dilution?

A

Dilution is the process of reducing the concentration of a substance.

This is often done by adding more solvent or other substances.

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61
Q

What are the approximate temperatures at which water changes state?

A

4 degrees Celsius to 39 degrees Fahrenheit.

These temperatures are critical for understanding phase changes in water.

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62
Q

What is the mass of water in a cubic foot?

A

1700 grams.

This value is important for calculating weights in various applications.

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63
Q

What are the states of matter?

A

Solid, Liquid, Gas.

These are the three primary states of matter, each with distinct properties.

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64
Q

At what point is primary air supplied to the combustion zone?

A

Primary air is supplied to the combustion zone before combustion occurs.

Primary air is essential for the initial combustion process.

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65
Q

What does theoretical air consist of?

A

Theoretical air consists of the exact amount of oxygen needed for complete combustion of a fuel.

This is calculated based on the fuel’s composition.

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66
Q

What is excess air?

A

Excess air is the amount of air supplied beyond what is theoretically required for complete combustion.

It helps ensure complete combustion but can reduce efficiency.

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67
Q

What is another name for material volume?

A

Another name for material volume is volumetric flow rate.

This refers to the volume of material passing through a given surface per unit time.

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68
Q

What is the significance of standard temperature and pressure?

A

Standard temperature and pressure (STP) provide a reference point for gas measurements, typically defined as 60 degrees F and 47 psia.

This standardization is crucial for consistent calculations.

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69
Q

Incomplete combustion can produce harmful products, name 2.

A
  • Aldehydes
  • Carbon monoxide

These byproducts can be dangerous to health and the environment.

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70
Q

What is produced when all fuel gas is burned?

A

Water vapor, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen are produced when all fuel gas is burned.

This reflects complete combustion and the typical products formed.

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71
Q

What does application output divided by application input give you?

A

It gives you the efficiency of the combustion process.

Efficiency is a crucial measure of performance in combustion systems.

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72
Q

What should you do if the sizing of combustion air and fuel input falls between 2 figures?

A

You should round up the figures to ensure adequate combustion air supply.

Rounding up helps prevent incomplete combustion.

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73
Q

What is the term for air supplied upstream from the point of combustion?

A

This is referred to as primary air.

Primary air is critical for initiating the combustion process.

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74
Q

What are the two types of air involved in combustion?

A
  • Primary air
  • Secondary air

Primary air is used for ignition, while secondary air helps complete combustion.

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75
Q

What does total combustion air refer to?

A

Total combustion air refers to the sum of primary and secondary air used in the combustion process.

This total is necessary for optimal combustion efficiency.

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76
Q

What is heating value?

A

Heating value is the amount of heat released during the combustion of a specific amount of fuel.

This value is essential for evaluating fuel performance.

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77
Q

What is refrigerant in when it leaves the evaporator coil?

A

It is in a gaseous state

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78
Q

What is the purpose of the T valve?

A

To control the flow of refrigerant

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79
Q

What is the purpose of the evaporator coil?

A

To absorb heat from the environment

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80
Q

What is temperature?

A

A measure of the average kinetic energy of particles

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81
Q

What is heat?

A

Energy transferred between substances due to temperature difference

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82
Q

Fill in the blank: Low pressure and _______ add to refrigerant liquid.

A

low temperature

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83
Q

What happens to the speed of molecules as temperature increases?

A

Molecules move faster

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84
Q

What does measuring length refer to?

A

Determining the extent of an object in one dimension

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85
Q

What would you find when doing a combustion analysis test on an appliance that has not enough air being provided for combustion?

A

Low CO2 reading and high O2 reading

Insufficient air leads to incomplete combustion, resulting in low CO2 and high O2 levels.

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86
Q

What would you find when doing a combustion analysis test on an appliance that has too much air being provided for combustion?

A

High CO2 reading and low O2 reading

Excess air can lead to more complete combustion, increasing CO2 and reducing O2 levels.

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87
Q

What is the typical CO2 reading in the products of combustion from burning natural gas?

A

7-10%

This range indicates proper combustion efficiency for natural gas appliances.

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88
Q

High levels of CO2 and low temperature flue gas would be an indication of what?

A

Inefficient combustion

High CO2 levels combined with low flue gas temperature suggest incomplete combustion, leading to energy loss.

89
Q

What happens to efficiency as flue temperature increases?

A

Efficiency decreases

Higher flue temperatures indicate heat loss, reducing overall system efficiency.

90
Q

What happens to efficiency as carbon dioxide concentration increases?

A

Efficiency increases

Higher CO2 concentration typically indicates more complete combustion, thus improving efficiency.

91
Q

Fill in the blank: Low CO2 reading and _______ reading indicates insufficient combustion air.

A

high O2

This condition suggests that there is more oxygen available than needed for complete combustion.

92
Q

Fill in the blank: High CO2 reading and _______ reading indicates excess combustion air.

A

low O2

This condition indicates that there is less oxygen available than needed for complete combustion.

93
Q

What 96 over input rating is considered over-fired?

A

396

This value indicates that the appliance is operating at a higher than acceptable level.

94
Q

How much carbon monoxide is acceptable in the products of combustion?

A

Less than or equal to 400ppm

This standard ensures safety and compliance in combustion systems.

95
Q

What is the pressure in the vent of a forced draft appliance?

A

+0.4 to +0.6” w.c.

This pressure range is crucial for proper venting and operation of the appliance.

96
Q

What is the ultimate amount of CO2 for the combustion of natural gas?

A

1296

This figure represents the theoretical maximum CO2 produced during complete combustion.

97
Q

What is the relationship between oxygen and carbon dioxide in combustion?

A

As Oxygen increases CO2 decreases

This relationship is fundamental to understanding combustion efficiency.

98
Q

What is the typical amount of oxygen in the products of combustion?

A

396-9%

This percentage indicates the efficiency of the combustion process.

99
Q

Where should a combustion analysis be done on a fan assist appliance?

A

Immediately down stream of the inducer fan

This location is critical for accurate measurements of combustion performance.

100
Q

What is the function of an induced draft appliance?

A

To create a negative pressure that draws combustion air into the burner and exhaust gases out of the appliance

Induced draft appliances are designed to enhance combustion efficiency and safety by ensuring proper venting.

101
Q

What type of combustion system is designed to overcome buoyancy?

A

Forced draft system

Forced draft systems use a fan to push air into the combustion chamber, overcoming the natural buoyancy that can impede proper airflow.

102
Q

What is the primary function of the burner in a combustion appliance?

A

To mix fuel with air and ignite the mixture for efficient combustion

The design of the burner can significantly affect the efficiency and emissions of the appliance.

103
Q

What effect does nitrogen have on combustion?

A

Nitrogen is considered to be a temperature reducing agent

Nitrogen does not react during combustion.

104
Q

What percentage of combustion air is provided by primary air?

A

30-40%

This is the typical range for primary air contribution.

105
Q

What percentage of excess air is provided to the quantity of primary and secondary air?

A

50%

This indicates the additional air supplied beyond the stoichiometric requirement.

106
Q

What happens to nitrogen during combustion?

A

It does not react

Nitrogen remains largely inert in the combustion process.

107
Q

What is the maximum exposure limit to nitrogen dioxide you can have in an hour period?

A

50 ppm

This is a recognized limit for safe exposure.

108
Q

What are some of the negative effects of nitrogen dioxide?

A

Reacts with moisture to produce nitric acid rain

This contributes to environmental issues like acid rain.

109
Q

How is sulfur dioxide found in the product of combustion?

A

Trace amounts of sulfur in the fuel supply

Sulfur is typically a contaminant in fossil fuels.

110
Q

What are the most important by-products of combustion?

A

Heat and light

These are the primary outputs in a combustion reaction.

111
Q

Atmospheric systems depend entirely on what slightly negative pressure?

A

0.02 k0H0.D4 w

This refers to a specific range of pressure conditions.

112
Q

Where is the air located on a gas appliance?

A

Upstream of the burner

This positioning is crucial for proper combustion.

113
Q

What is one of the most important devices used for the operation of an induced draft appliance?

A

Induced draft fan

The induced draft fan is crucial for maintaining proper airflow and combustion in appliances.

114
Q

What type of spark does a spark igniter create?

A

High voltage, low current spark

This type of spark is required to create an arc through the air space, which has high resistance.

115
Q

What happens if an excess of very cold air enters the freezer?

A

It can lead to inefficient operation

Cold air can affect the cooling efficiency and overall performance of the appliance.

116
Q

When can an appliance be vented into a masonry chimney?

A

As long as it is properly sized

Proper sizing ensures that the chimney can handle the exhaust gases safely.

117
Q

What mechanical adjustments can be made to induced draft burners?

A

Air and gas flow adjustments

These adjustments help optimize combustion efficiency and performance.

118
Q

Why is fuel pre-mixed with air in the burner before the mixture is ignited?

A

To ensure smooth and effective combustion

Pre-mixing enhances the efficiency of the combustion process.

119
Q

What does the flue provide in an appliance?

A

Smooth and effective flow of combustion products

The flue is essential for expelling exhaust gases safely from the appliance.

120
Q

What is the result of combustion starting to produce carbon monoxide (CO)?

A

It indicates incomplete combustion

Incomplete combustion can be hazardous and needs to be addressed.

121
Q

What must the chimney also serve in addition to the draft hood appliance?

A

At least one other appliance

This ensures that the chimney can handle the combined exhaust safely.

122
Q

True or False: Most induced draft burners can be adjusted.

A

False

Many induced draft burners are designed to be non-adjustable.

123
Q

What can excessive heat from cases lead to?

A

Increased production of carbon monoxide

Higher temperatures can lead to safety hazards if not managed properly.

124
Q

What type of burner would you find on most induced draft furnaces?

A

Induced draft burner

Induced draft burners are specifically designed for use in systems that require forced air to aid combustion.

125
Q

What type of burner would you find on most residential induced draft hot water heating boilers?

A

Induced draft burner

These burners help to efficiently manage the combustion process in residential settings.

126
Q

What is a larger gas emission point for an induced draft unit?

A

Gas emission point

This refers to the point in the system where gas is released into the environment.

127
Q

Describe an induced draft burner.

A

A burner that uses a fan to draw combustion gases through the heat exchanger

This design improves efficiency by ensuring complete combustion.

128
Q

What kind of oil is used in most induced draft appliances?

A

Fuel oil

Fuel oil is commonly used due to its availability and efficiency in heating applications.

129
Q

Why are induced draft burner appliances noisier than natural draft?

A

Due to the velocity of the gas mixture moving through it

The high speed of gas flow in induced draft systems contributes to increased noise levels.

130
Q

Appliances with what kind of burner require more thorough tuning?

A

Atmospheric burners

Atmospheric burners rely on natural convection and require precise adjustments for optimal performance.

131
Q

Why does air and fuel flow relatively well through induced draft burners?

A

The design allows for efficient airflow and combustion

This efficiency is crucial for maintaining the desired heating output.

132
Q

What is a major difference between the induced draft and atmospheric burner?

A

Induced draft uses a fan, while atmospheric relies on natural convection

This difference affects efficiency and installation requirements.

133
Q

What induced draft burner does not always have a venturi action?

A

Single port inshot burner

This type of burner uses a different mechanism for mixing air and fuel.

134
Q

What type of burner with different styles of porting is used because the design allows for precise tuning in the combustion chamber?

A

Ported tube burner

Ported tube burners are versatile and can be adjusted for various applications.

135
Q

What creates primary air flow through the burner during operation?

A

The design of the burner

This is essential for maintaining proper combustion conditions.

136
Q

This burner has no adjustable components on it and achieves various heat ratings by using different orifice sizes or by being applied to staged firing models.

A

Fixed orifice burner

Fixed orifice burners are designed for specific applications and do not allow for adjustments during operation.

137
Q

With induced draft burners, the only adjustment that can be made is to the _______.

A

Regulator that controls the gas pressure delivered to the appliance

This adjustment is crucial for maintaining the desired heating output.

138
Q

Induced draft burners are noisy due to the _______.

A

Velocity of the gas mixture moving through it

The design causes higher gas speeds, leading to increased noise.

139
Q

Natural gas burner appliances typically feature _______.

A

Proper porting and smooth internal surfaces

These features help in achieving efficient combustion.

140
Q

What type of burner is characterized by having a curved shape?

A

Kube burner

Kube burners are designed for specific efficiency and combustion characteristics.

141
Q

What are the theoretical combustion ratios for natural gas?

A

10/1

This ratio refers to the stoichiometric air-to-fuel ratio needed for complete combustion of natural gas.

142
Q

What does a green burner flame indicate?

A

Presence of incomplete combustion or excess carbon monoxide

A green flame can suggest a problem with fuel mixing or a lack of sufficient oxygen.

143
Q

What does a red burner flame indicate?

A

Presence of incomplete combustion or excess soot

A red flame often suggests that the burner is not operating efficiently.

144
Q

If a burner has secondary air available, what characteristics would it have?

A

Improved combustion efficiency and reduced emissions

Secondary air helps to ensure complete combustion and can enhance the burner performance.

145
Q

What is the combustion ratio for propane gas?

A

Not specified in the provided text

Typically, propane has a different combustion ratio compared to natural gas, often around 24/1.

146
Q

What physical characteristic is observed when a burner flame is yellow?

A

Indicates incomplete combustion

A yellow flame suggests that there may be insufficient air mixing with the fuel.

147
Q

Fill in the blank: A flame hanging on the surface of the heat exchanger indicates _______.

A

Poor burner adjustment

This can lead to inefficient operation and potential safety hazards.

148
Q

What can cause an air conditioning refrigeration leak?

A

Improper installation or wear and tear

Leaks can lead to reduced efficiency and potential environmental concerns.

149
Q

What is indicated by the term ‘air conditioning refrigeration leak’?

A

Loss of refrigerant affecting system performance

This can result in inadequate cooling and increased energy costs.

150
Q

How does a ported tube burner entrain its primary air?

A

The burner does not rely on venturi action but on the jet of fuel escaping from the orifice and the vacuum created by the induced draft fan to pull the primary air into the burner through a non-adjustable air inlet

151
Q

Induced burners can be found in what two configurations?

A

Open port burner and ported tube burner

152
Q

What type of burner is constructed similar to natural draft burners?

A

Open tube burner

153
Q

What is another reason for the wide use of the open tube burner?

A

Many of the forced air appliances it is applied to can be placed in multiple orientations

154
Q

What condition must be carefully addressed for other styles of burner used for induced draft appliances?

A

The venting system must be carefully calculated to prevent negative pressure and/or positive pressure

155
Q

What is over-fire draft and what can occur because of it?

A

Over-fire draft occurs when too much air flows over the burner while it operates, which can cause flame lift off from the burner

156
Q

Where would you usually find a ported tube burner?

A

Induced draft boilers

157
Q

Induced draft boilers are often made of stainless steel for what reason?

A

To resist corrosion and the high heat of the combustion chamber

158
Q

Why must an induced draft fan be properly sized?

A

To ensure it can maintain the correct negative pressure and prevent over-fire draft

159
Q

What is another term for complete combustion?

A

Perfect combustion

160
Q

What term is given to a burner that can be installed in different positions?

A

Multi-poise

Multi-poise burners can be oriented horizontally or vertically.

161
Q

What describes a well-conditioned burner flame?

A

Stable, relatively quiet, soft blue without curling, floating, or lifting and the flames must not impinge on the sides of the heat exchanger.

162
Q

What would be an indication of dirt or dust in the burner tubes?

A

Orange flame

An orange flame can indicate incomplete combustion often caused by dirt or dust in the burner tubes.

163
Q

What is the appearance of a burner flame that is yellow?

A

Yellow in appearance

A yellow flame typically indicates improper combustion conditions.

164
Q

What are the thermal wells used for?

A

Temperature sensing

Thermal wells are used to monitor and manage water temperature.

165
Q

What must happen for an open tube induced draft burner to function properly?

A

Fuel must be discharged into the center of the burner throat from the discharge orifice.

166
Q

How does an open tube induced draft burner entrain primary air for combustion?

A

Through a non-adjustable air opening.

167
Q

What are some advantages of an open tube induced draft burner?

A

Easily responds to variable rates of fuel and allows for multiple firing rates.

168
Q

What type of burner does rely on venturi action to entrain primary air?

A

Ported tube burner.

169
Q

What are some characteristics of a ported tube burner?

A
  • Made of thin-walled straight stainless steel tube
  • Relies on good control of airflow
  • Provides steady and stable burner flames during operation.
170
Q

What is the typical temperature range for burners?

A

55°F to 809°F.

171
Q

What orifice size is needed if you used a number 37 drill bit?

A

Size 41

172
Q

How is an orifice drilled?

A

By using a drill bit

173
Q

What is the equation for calculating the meter?

A

Multiply by 600 for propane and multiply by 1000 for natural gas

174
Q

For propane, what is the multiplication factor for calculating the meter?

A

Multiply by 2500

175
Q

What is the size of the orifice for a drill bit size 37?

A

35 orifice (2 sizes smaller)

176
Q

In which direction should the orifice be drilled?

A

In the direction of gas flow

177
Q

What are the 2 basic functions of an orifice?

A

Regulates gas volume and controls velocity

These functions are essential for maintaining proper gas flow in systems.

178
Q

What are the most commonly used orifices?

A

Plug orifices

Plug orifices are widely utilized in various gas applications.

179
Q

What color are natural gas pilot orifices?

A

Yellow

The yellow color helps in the identification of natural gas components.

180
Q

What is considered to be high pressure gas?

A

Over 14 inches of water column (w.c.)

High pressure gas is significant for determining the appropriate equipment and safety measures.

181
Q

Fill in the blank: Pressure solid without relief devices should be vented to _______.

A

atmosphere

Venting to atmosphere is crucial for safety in gas systems.

182
Q

For inlet pressure on a regulator of up to 5 psi, the discharge set point on the regulator should be what?

A

Equal to the inlet pressure

This ensures proper regulation without excess pressure buildup.

183
Q

For inlet pressure on a regulator of greater than 5 psi, the discharge set point on the regulator should be what?

A

Slightly less than the inlet pressure

This prevents overpressure in the system.

184
Q

What is the caloric value of propane and natural gas?

A

Propane: 2,500 to 3,000 BTU per cubic foot; Natural gas: 1,000 BTU per cubic foot

Understanding the caloric values is important for energy calculations.

185
Q

True or False: Temporary applications can only use separate orifices.

A

True

This is a safety measure for temporary setups.

186
Q

What should be no less than one and a half times the operating pressure of the regulator?

A

The inlet pressure

This ensures that the system operates safely within its designed limits.

187
Q

What is the minimum discharge pressure for a regulator with an outlet pressure of 2 times the operating pressure?

A

No less than two times the operating pressure

This guideline helps maintain effective regulation.

188
Q

What is the maximum inlet pressure for natural gas?

A

Not more than 5 psi

Exceeding this can lead to safety hazards.

189
Q

What must all outdoor vent terminals have?

A

Terminating fitting installed that will prevent water, insects, or other foreign material from entering the vent pipe

190
Q

Where must a propane appliance regulator with a leak limiter be installed?

A

In a well ventilated area such as outside

191
Q

What is a problem that can occur from an undersized regulator?

A

Too low outlet pressure

192
Q

What is one symptom that may occur when a regulator is oversized?

A

Noisy during operation

193
Q

Where does external freeze up occur on a regulator?

A

In the atmospheric chamber above the diaphragm or over the regulator vent

194
Q

What can you do to reduce external regulator freeze up?

A

Install the regulator in such a manner that moisture entering the atmospheric chamber through the vent opening is at a minimum

195
Q

As gas pressure decreases, what happens to temperature?

A

Temperature drops as well

196
Q

A regulator with a lot of frost on the exterior head and body is a good indication of what?

A

Pressure drop

197
Q

What must every state burner have?

A

A regulator

198
Q

Fill in the blank: An undersized regulator can cause _______.

A

Too low outlet pressure

199
Q

Fill in the blank: An oversized regulator can cause a _______ during operation.

A

Noisy operation

200
Q

What is the maximum allowed gas pressure in a single family dwelling?

A

2 psig

This is the maximum pressure permitted for residential applications

201
Q

What type of copper is permitted to be used underground?

A

Type L or Type K

Type L or Type K copper can be used if they are externally coated with polyethylene or a protective resin

202
Q

What are the benefits of a 2-stage regulator system on propane?

A
  • Gives appliances a more constant delivery pressure
  • Provides flexibility for future expansion
  • Less chance of freeze up at the regulator
203
Q

Where must a gas meter be located?

A

Within 3 feet of where the gas line enters the building

This ensures proper access and safety for gas installations

204
Q

What materials are acceptable for venting a regulator to the outdoors?

A

Copper piping and aluminum tubing

These materials are typically used for venting purposes

205
Q

How do you size a vent line on a regulator?

A

By calculating the length of the vent line

The length affects the venting efficiency and safety

206
Q

True or False: A gas valve or regulator can operate with inlet pressures less than 2 psig.

A

True

Regulators can function at lower inlet pressures as long as they meet specific requirements

207
Q

What is the recommended installation position for regulators?

A

Horizontally with the vents on the vertical plane

This position helps ensure proper venting and operation

208
Q

Fill in the blank: A natural gas regulator should be installed with the _______ facing outdoors.

A

vent

Proper venting is essential for safe operation of gas regulators

209
Q

What are the restricting, measuring, and loading elements of a regulator?

A

Restricting element, measuring element, loading element

The restricting element controls gas flow, the measuring element senses pressure, and the loading element applies force to maintain balance.

210
Q

What effect does turning the adjustment screw have on a regulator?

A

Increases or decreases pressure

Clockwise rotation increases pressure, while counterclockwise rotation decreases pressure.

211
Q

What is the function of a vent suppressor?

A

Prevents gas escape during operation

A vent suppressor is used to maintain safety by minimizing gas leakage.

212
Q

What is the maximum first stage regulator setting for propane?

A

10 psig (14” wc)

This setting ensures safe operation within specified limits.

213
Q

What happens to gas pressure when it enters the second stage regulator?

A

Reduced to lower pressure

The second stage regulator decreases the pressure from the first stage setting to a usable level.

214
Q

What is the most common type of appliance regulator that is incorporated in appliance regulators?

A

Combination gas valves

These regulators are designed for specific applications in gas appliances.

215
Q

Fill in the blank: The diaphragm is the _______ element.

A

measuring

The diaphragm senses the pressure changes within the regulator.

216
Q

Fill in the blank: The spring is the _______ element.

A

loading

The spring applies force to the diaphragm to maintain pressure balance.

217
Q

True or False: The restricting element controls the flow of gas.

A

True

The restricting element is essential for regulating gas flow within the system.

218
Q

What is the purpose of the regulator in a gas system?

A

To control gas pressure and flow

Regulators ensure that gas is delivered at safe and usable pressure levels.

219
Q

What is required on high mass boilers over 400,000 BTU?

A

Adjustable, Fixed, Cleaning, Pressure (not temp on either), Low water cut off

These are safety requirements for high mass boilers according to the context.

Austin's Sheet Metal 4th Year (9 decks)

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