Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Jason's Work Stuff > G-IV General and Limitations > Flashcards

G-IV General and Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Steering Limits:

1) Steering Wheel Limits
2) Rudder Pedal Limits
3) Maximum Steering Angle
4) Minimum Taxi Strip Width For A 180 Degree Turn

A

1) 80 +/- 2 Degrees
2) 7 +/- 1 Degrees
3) 82 Degrees
4) 54.2 Feet (Based on a maximum nose wheel deflection of 80 degrees +2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Steering Wheel Limits

A

80 +/- 2 Degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rudder Pedal Limits

A

7 +/- 1 Degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum Steering Angle

A

82 Degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Minimum Taxi Strip Width For A 180 Degree Turn

A

54.2 Feet

Based on a minimum nose wheel deflection of 80 degrees + 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

General Dimensions:

1) Length
2) Width (wingspan)
3) Height
4) HSTAB Width
5) Fuselage Outside Cross Section
6) Fuselage Inside Cross Section
7) Wing Dihedral
8) Wing Sweep Angle

A

1) 88 Feet 4 Inches
2) 77 Feet 10 Inches
3) 24 Feet 5 1/8 Inches (height will be higher with a SATCOM antenna installed on the top of the vertical fin)
4) 32 Feet
5) 94 Inches
6) 88 Inches
7) 3 Degrees
8) Approximately 27 Degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aircraft Length

A

88 Feet 4 Inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aircraft Width (Wingspan)

A

77 Feet 10 Inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aircraft Height

A

24 Feet 5 1/8 Inches

height will be higher with a SATCOM antenna installed on top of the vertical fin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HSTAB Width

A

32 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fuselage Outside Cross Section Width

A

94 Inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fuselage Inside Cross Section Width

A

88 Inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Wing Dihedral

A

3 Degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wing Sweep Angle

A

Approximately 27 Degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does the construction of the radome minimize lightening strike damage?
What is it constructed of?

A

It contains conductors.

It is constructed of fiberglass honeycomb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Will there be any warning to the crew if there is improper main door and baggage door seal pressures?

A

On aircraft having ASC 439 incorporated, a door seal warning system is installed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What keeps the main door closed?

A

6 sliding bayonets mechanically linked to the internal and external primary locking handles.
One bayonet activates the pressurization, and others control circuits within the hydraulic system and the “cabin doors” warning light in the cockpit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Regarding the air stair door, how is proper bayonet seating ascertained?

A

By a triangular pattern of orange dot.
If orange dots are not visible, it is possible that the dot has worn off or that it is obscured by lubricant, etc. The orange dot pattern is painted over a notch on the bayonet. If the notch is visible, the bayonet is extended properly into its receptacle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many main entrance door lock switches are on the air stair door?
What are they for?

A

3
They are utilized to deactivate the auxiliary pump after the door is closed. The circuit is broken as the door is locked by the sliding bayonets physically actuating the doorlock switches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where does power for the control system of the airstair door come from?

A

By the essential DC bus through the DOOR CONT WARN circuit breaker located in the copilot’s overhead circuit breaker panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you close the door from outside the aircraft?

A 
The external (guarded) battery switch is used to power the essential DC bus which will allow the OUTSIDE DOOR SWITCH to close the main door.
CAUTION: After door is closed and locked, the external battery switch must be placed OFF to prevent a continuous drain on the battery.

On SNs 1156 and subsequent the essential DC bus is powered at the same time the outside door switch is activated so there is no need to use the outside battery switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What indications will there be if the external battery switch is left on?

A

Internal:
Blue EXT BATT SWITCH ON CAS message.
EXT BATT SW capsule on the overhead annunciator panel illuminated.

External:
Bottom beacon light will be on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What keeps the baggage door closed?

A

4 Bayonets.

One controls the door sealing mechanism, and another controls the micro switch for the CABIN DOORS message.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is the space between the panels on the fixed windows kept defogged?

A

By a desiccator system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Regarding the wing tank design, how is corrosion prevented?

A

The tanks are over coated with polyurethane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the output of each of the engine driven alternators?

A

115 VAC, 3 Phase, 30 KVA.
It is variable frequency (varies with engine power).
Therefore, it is sent to Variable Speed Constant Frequency (VSCF) converters (2) located in the aft compartment so the power can be stabilized and regulated.
The power to the converters is then rectified to DC (270 VDC POR).
Then it is converted back to controlled AC (115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3 Phase, 23 KVA).
There is also DC output from the converters (28 VDC, 250 Amps).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What engines are installed on the G IV?

A

2 Rolls Royce Tay 611-8 engines.

They are twin spool, axial flow bypass turbofans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Regarding the aircraft engines, what does “Tay” mean, and why was it chosen for the name of the powerplant?

A

The River Tay is the longest river in Scotland and the seventh longest in the United Kingdom.
The use of river names (Trent, Nene, Avon, Tay, Conway, Spey, etc.) was introduced with the earliest Rolls jet engines to reflect their nature: a steady flow of power rather than the pulses of a piston engine.
Roll-Royce named their piston engines after birds if prey (e.g. Merlin, Peregrine, Kestrel, Vulture, and Buzzard).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the guaranteed minimum thrust rating of the main engines?

A

The Rolls-Royce Tay 611-8 engines have a guaranteed minimum thrust rating of:
13,850 lbs.
(ISA, Sea Level, Static)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What APU is installed on the G IV?

A

1) The Honeywell GTCP36-100[G]
- OR -
2) The Honeywell GTCP36-150[G] on some later air craft (ASC 465)

(The “G” simply stands for “Gulfstream”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the hydraulic systems on the G IV?

A

1) Combined - powered by the left engine hydraulic pump.
2) Flight - powered by the right engine hydraulic pump (remember “flight is right”).
3) Utility - (PTU).
4) Auxiliary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What conditions must be met for the utility pump to operate automatically when it is armed?

A

1) Combined system pressure less than 800 psi.
2) Flight system pressure more than 2000 psi.
3) Flight system fluid temp less than 220 degrees Fahrenheit.
4) Combined fluid is available.

Also, if flight system pressure falls below 1730 psi, the priority valve will close, causing utility pressure to go to zero. Placing the utility pump switch to ON will not restore the utility system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How can the brake system be controlled from the cockpit?

A

Electrically or Hydraulically

  • -The Brake by Wire (BBW) system uses an electrical signal to meter brake pressure.
  • -The Hydromechanical Analog Brake (HMAB) system uses a hydraulic signal to meter brake pressure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is hydraulic power supplied to the brake system?

A

By the combined, utility or auxiliary system for both BBW and HMAB systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What controls the hydraulic stall barrier operation?

A

Angle of Attack inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What systems use bleed air?

A 
Remember "TEA-PADS & Water"
T = TAT Probe Aspirator.
E = Engine Starter System.
A = Air Conditioning (ECS Packs).
P = Pressurization (ECS Packs).
A = Anti-Ice (Cowl & Wing).
D = Door Seal Systems.
S = Servo Control Air.
Water = Cabin Water System Pressure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What engine stages provide bleed air?

A

7th or when needed 12th stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How are the cabin windows defogged?

A

By desiccant filters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where do the engine fire detection sensors monitor the engine temperatures?

A

They monitor the engine exterior temps in engine fire zone one, which comprises:

  • Compressor,
  • Combustion, and
  • Turbine sections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is engine fire extinguishing accomplished?

A

Through a two-shot, electrically fired chlorotrifluorobromomethane (CF3Br) system, consisting of two single-shot containers installed in the tail compartment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How many pitot systems are on the aircraft?

Where are their sources or pitot tubes located?

A

3 Independent Systems

  • 2 Primary: Pilot & Copilot.
  • 1 Standby.

Pitot Locations:

  • Pilot and Copilot: On top of the nose, forward of the windshield.
  • Standby: Left side of nose below AOA probe.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many static systems are on the aircraft?

Where are the static sources located?

A

4 Independent Systems

  • 2 Primary: Pilot & Copilot.
  • 1 Standby: Standby Altimeter and Airspeed Indicators.
  • 4th System: Used by the cabin differential indicator on the overhead panel.

Static Sources:

  • Each system has 2 sources (one on each side).
  • Primary systems use upper ports, others use lower.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of capability does the autopilot provide?

A

The A/P uses 2 flight guidance computers to provide fail-operational capability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What S/N aircraft changed from a G IV to either a G300 or a G400?

A

S/N 1500 & After

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a G300 & G400?

A

G300: A production G IV-SP with ASC 436.
G400: A production G IV-SP with ASC 440.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Is the External BATT Switch required to be selected ON for door retraction?

A

On S/N 1000-1155: Yes.

On S/N 1156 and subsequent: No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What bus is required to have electrical power for the NAV lights to work?

A

L Main AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which S/N G IV aircraft have the logo lights installed?

A

S/N 1280 and Later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Landing Light Limitation

A

Steady ON limited to 5 minutes duration on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Vmo / Mmo

S/N 1000 and subs. without ASC 61

A
    • 340 KCAS to 28,000 feet.
    • Mach .85 at 28,000 feet linear change to Mach .88 at 34,000 feet.
    • Mach .88 from 34,000 feet to 43,500 feet.
    • Mach .88 at 43,500 feet linear change to Mach .874 at 45,000 feet.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Vmo / Mmo

S/N 1000-1214 with ASC 61

A
    • 320 KCAS to 30,000 feet.
    • Mach .84 at 30,000 feet linear change to Mach .86 at 34,000 feet.
    • Mach .86 from 34,000 feet to 43,500 feet.
    • Mach .86 at 43,500 feet linear change to Mach .854 at 45,000 feet.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Flaps Extended Speeds

A

10 Degrees = 250 Kts. / .60 MT

20 Degrees = 220 Kts. / .60 MT

39 Degrees = 170 Kts. / .60 MT
(180 Kts. / .60 MT for S/N 1214 & subs. Or S/N 1000-1213 with ASC 190) (G IV-SP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Gear Extended Speed

A

250 Kts. / .70 MT

Gear Doors Opened or Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gear Extension / Retraction Speed

A

225 Kts. / .70 MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Alternate Gear Extension Speed

A

175 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Maneuvering Speed (Va)

A

170 KCAS

206 KCAS
S/N 1214 and subs. Or ASC 190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed

A

270 KCAS / .75 MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Engine Airstart Envelope

Speed & Altitude

A

200-324 KCAS

25,000 Feet or Below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Manual Reversion Airspeed Limit

A

250 KCAS max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

APU Inflight Start Envelope

A

Guaranteed Starting:

    • Altitude: 15,000 Feet and Below
    • Airspeed: 250 KCAS max

Guaranteed Running:

    • Altitude: 30,000 Feet and Below
    • Airspeed: Vmo / Mmo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Windshield Wipers Speed Limitation

A

200 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tire Speed Limits

S/N 1000-1213 Without ASC 190/266

A

Nose Tires = 182
Main Tires = 182
Overall Limit = 182

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tire Speed Limits

S/N 1000-1213 With ASC 266

A

Nose Tires = 182
Main Tires = 195
Overall Limit = 182

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Tire Speed Limits

S/N 1000-1213 With ASC 190

A

Nose Tires = 195
Main Tires = 195
Overall Limit = 195

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Tire Speed Limits

S/N 1214 and Subsequent

A

Nose Tires = 195
Main Tires = 195
Overall Limit = 195

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Wing Vortex Generator Not Installed

Speed Limitation

A

0.80 MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Mach Trim / Electric Elevator Trim Inoperative

Speed Limitation

A

0.75 MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Yaw Damper Inoperative Above 18,000 Feet

Maintain At Least What Airspeed?

A

220 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Reverse Thrust Cancellation

Initiate At What Airspeed?

A

70 KCAS

    • For landing on contaminated runways:
  • Both engines in max reverse above 70 KCAS.
  • Both engines in reverse idle (reversers deployed) below 50 KCAS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Thrust Reverser Deployed In-Flight Airspeed

A

200 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Vmca (Minimum control speed air)

A

104 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Vmcg (Minimum control speed ground)

A

111 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Maximum Ceiling

A

45,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Max Altitude Yaw Damper Inop

A

41,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Max Altitude with an Engine Bleed Air Switch Off

A

41,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Max Altitude for an Inflight Engine Airstart

A

25,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Max Gear Extended Altitude

A

20,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Max Altitude for Flaps 39 Degrees

A

20,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Max Takeoff and Landing Airport Elevation

A

15,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Max Altitude for APU Start

Max Airspeed for APU Start

A

15,000 Feet

250 KCAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

APU Temp Limits During Start

36-100 APU

A

0% to 60% = 988 Degrees Celsius
60% to 100% = 821-732 Degrees Celsius (linear decrease)
Maximum Running = 732 Degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

APU Temp Limits During Start

36-150 APU

A

0% to 50% = 973 Degrees Celsius
51% to 87% = 973-732 Degrees Celsius (linear decrease)
87% to 100% = 732 Degrees Celsius
Maximum Running = 732 Degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

APU Max EGT Running

A

732 Degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

APU Max EGT with APU Air On

A

680 Degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

APU Operating RPM

A

100% +/- 3%

86
Q

APU Overspeed RPM

A

110%
When the OVSP TEST-STOP switch is pushed an overspeed signal of 114% RPM is sent to the ECU, prompting the ECU to shut down the APU.

87
Q

APU

Record Time Operating Above

A

FL300

For the 36-150 [G] APU

88
Q

Continuous operation of the APU starter when powered by the airplane batteries

A 
3 Consecutive Starts
30 Seconds Per Start
20 Minutes For Starter Cool Down
3 Additional Start Attempts May Be Made
1 Hour Cool Down Before Next Full Starter Cycle
89
Q

Continuous operation of the APU starter when powered by an external DC source

A 
2 Consecutive Starts
15 Seconds Per Start
20 Minutes For Starter Cool Down
2 Additional Start Attempts May Be Made
1 Hour Cool Down Before Next Full Starter Cycle
90
Q

Successful consecutive APU starts limited to:

A

6 at 10 minute intervals per start

91
Q

APU Fire Bottle Capacity

A

2.5 pounds of CF3Br (Halon 1301).

Charged with nitrogen to 600 +50/-25 at 70 degrees Fahrenheit.

92
Q

Engine Continuous Ignition (Airstart) Limitations

A

S/N 1000-1249 without ASC 304:

  • -5 minutes on - 30 minutes off.
  • -No limitation if used in a 30 second on-30 second off cycle.

S/N 1250 & subs. or S/N 1000-1249 with ASC 304:
–No duty cycle time limitation with ASC 304.

93
Q

Maximum Engine Fuel Temp

A

90 Degrees Celsius

120 Degrees Celsius up to 15 minutes is permissable

94
Q

Minimum Engine Fuel Temp

A

-40 Degrees Celsius for starting

95
Q

Maximum Oil Inlet Temp

A

105 Degrees Celsius

Up to 120 Degrees Celsius for a max of 15 minutes is permissable

96
Q

Minimum Oil Temp For Starting

A

-40 Degrees Celsius

97
Q

Minimum Oil Temp For Operating The Power Levers

A

-30 Degrees Celsius

98
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure At Idle

A

16 PSI

99
Q

Minimum Acceptable Oil Pressure For Takeoff

At Takeoff Power

A

30 PSI

100
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure Required To Complete Flight

A

At Max Continuous
(97.5% HP) – 25 PSI

(92% HP) – 22 PSI
(84% HP) – 19 PSI
(76% HP) – 16 PSI

101
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure Required To Complete Flight

At Max Continuous (97.5% HP)

A

25 PSI

102
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure Required To Complete Flight

92% HP

A

22 PSI

103
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure Required To Complete Flight

84% HP

A

19 PSI

104
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure Required To Complete Flight

76% HP

A

16 PSI

105
Q

Takeoff Power Limitation

A

– Full power for takeoff is shown in “RATED EPR SETTINGS FOR TAKEOFF THRUST” charts.

– Takeoff EPR must not exceed rated value by more than 0.01.

106
Q

Engine Starter Duty Limits

A 
30 Seconds ON
3 Minutes OFF
30 Seconds ON
3 Minutes OFF
30 Seconds ON
15 Minutes OFF
107
Q

Engine Fuel Flow Limitation

A

No Limitations

108
Q

Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) Limits

A

None

109
Q

EPR Pilot Selectable Command Marker Limits

A

0.85 to 2.0

110
Q

Fuel Capacity

A

G IV / G400 :
29,500 Pounds (4370 gal.)

G300 :
26,900 Pounds

(Fuel in excess of these limits is permitted if max ramp weight and/or takeoff weight are not exceeded and CG is within limits)

111
Q

Fuel Capacity

G IV / G400

A

29,500 Pounds (4370 gal.)
(Fuel in excess of this limit is permitted if max ramp weight and/or takeoff weight are not exceeded and CG is within limits)

112
Q

Fuel Capacity

G300

A

26,900 Pounds
(Fuel in excess of this limit is permitted if max ramp weight and/or takeoff weight are not exceeded and CG is within limits)

113
Q

Fuel Tank Temp Limits

Min and Max

A

Minimum = -40 Degrees Celsius

Maximum = 54 Degrees Celsius

114
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance

A

55,000 Pounds Gross Weight or Less:
2,000 Pounds

60,500 Pounds Gross Weight or More:
400 Pounds

(Sliding scale from 55,000 to 60,500)

115
Q

Maximum Load Accelerations

A

Flaps Up = -1 to 2.5 Gs

Flaps Down = 0 to 2 Gs

116
Q

Minimum Flight Crew
Maximum Passengers
Maximum Occupants

A

2
19
22

117
Q

Maximum Tailwind for Takeoff or Landing

A

10 Knots

118
Q

When is there no tailwind allowed for takeoff?

A

– On contaminated runways,

Or

– For FLEX takeoffs

119
Q

Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind Component

A

24 Knots
– Per the G IV OIS-9:
“For the G IV, the maximum demonstrated crosswind was 24 knots. The G IV has been tested in up to 30 knots of crosswind but the FAA did not observe those results.” (Page 1)

120
Q

Maximum Runway Slope

Takeoff and Landing

A

+/- 2%

For Contaminated Runways:

    • Takeoff: Not greater than +1% (-2/+1)
    • Landing: Level or uphill only (-0/+2)
121
Q

Maximum Cabin Pressure Differential

A

9.8 PSI

122
Q

Maximum Cabin Pressure Differential for Taxiing, Takeoff or Landing

A

0.3 PSI

123
Q

Altitude Limitation for Bleed Air

A

Do not operate above 41,000 feet without both engine bleeds ON, and each engine being bled by either the ACM Pack or Engine Cowl Anti-Ice.

124
Q

Boost Pump Limitation

A

All operable fuel pumps shall be selected ON for all phases of flight unless fuel balancing is in progress.

125
Q

Fuel Balancing Limitation

A

Fuel balancing may be accomplished by using the crossflow or intertank valve.

When balancing fuel through use of the crossflow valve, ensure that boosted fuel pressure is always available to the engines.

CAUTION: The engine will only run on suction fuel feed at or below 20,000 feet. Above 20,000 feet, the engine will run erratically and flame out if the crossflow is not open with at least one boost pump selected ON.

126
Q

AOA Limitation

A

Angle-of-Attack (AOA) system may be used as reference.

Must be within the white band once forward airspeed is attained.

Shall not be used as a speed reference for takeoff rotation.

127
Q

Stall Warning / Stall Barrier System Limitation

A

Dispatch with one Stall Warning / Stall Barrier system inoperative is allowed with reference to the MEL.

128
Q

Yaw Damper Inoperative Prior To Takeoff Limitation

A

Max fuel quantity for takeoff = 9,000 pounds.

Below 18,000 feet: Maintain airspeed, as a function of fuel quantity.

If yaw damper fails with Mach trim compensation, observe speed limitations for both failures and limit altitude to 41,000 feet.

129
Q

Engine Anti-Ice Pressure Limit

A

60 PSI

130
Q

Operation of cowl anti-icing is required for taxi and takeoff when:

A

Static Air Temperature (SAT) is below +10 degrees Celsius (+50 degrees Fahrenheit) and visible moisture, precipitation, or wet runway are present.

Engine operation at 85% LP for 1 minute is recommended just prior to takeoff and at intervals of not more than 60 minutes under these temperature and moisture conditions.

131
Q

Engine Ice Clearing Procedure

A

When taxiing or holding on the ground at low power in temperatures less than 1 degrees Celsius, engine operation at 85% LP for 1 minute is recommended just prior to takeoff and at intervals of not more than sixty (60) minutes under these temperature and moisture conditions.

132
Q

The Amber “L-R COWL PRESS LOW” Warning CAS Message Will Occur When?

A

S/N 1000-1059 with ASC 51A and S/N 1060 and subsequent:
– Pressure drops below 10+1 PSI.

S/N 1000-1189 with ASC 243 and S/N 1190 and subsequent:
– Pressure drops below 4+1 PSI and after a 15 second delay.

133
Q

Speed brakes are not approved with:

A

Flaps at 39 degrees or when landing gear is extended.

134
Q

Takeoff is permitted with ground spoilers inoperative provided:

A

– Anti-skid is operative,
and
– 20 degrees flaps are used for takeoff.

135
Q

Do not operate radar…

A

1) During refueling,
2) Within 300 feet (92 meters) of other refueling operations,
3) Within 49 feet (15 meters) of ground personnel with 24 inch antenna installed,
4) Within 33 feet (10 meters) of ground personnel with 18 inch antenna installed.

136
Q

Landing Lights Limits

A

Ground operating time limit = 5 minutes.

Pulse lights = no limit.

137
Q

Auto Throttle Limitations

A

Takeoff And Go-Around:
– Prohibited when wing anti-ice is used.

Landing:
– Disengage by 50 feet AGL.

138
Q

Autopilot Limitations

A

Takeoff:
– Do not engage below 200 feet AGL on takeoff.

Landing:
– Disengage by 50 feet AGL.

Minimum altitude for autopilot coupled IMC VNAV operations is 300 feet AGL or 50 feet below the MDA, whichever is higher.

139
Q

Static Ground Run Limitation

A

With crosswinds greater than 15 knots, stabilized engine operation in the band between 60% and 80% LP RPM fan speed is not permitted.

140
Q

Airspeed and altitude limitations with flight power shutoff handle pulled or dual hydraulic system failure

A

Airspeed = 250 KCAS Maximum

Altitude = 25,000 Feet Maximum

141
Q

Main Batteries

A 
Two:
-- 24 Volt
-- 40 Amp/Hour
-- 20 Cell
-- NiCad
Batteries
142
Q

Emergency Batteries

A
    • 2-8 Installed
    • 6 Amp/Hours
    • Approximately 40 Minutes
143
Q

TRU

A

Transformer Rectifier Unit

    • 1 Installed
    • 300 Amp
    • 25-28 Volt
144
Q

SEPS

A 
SEPS = Standby Electric Power System
A.K.A. - ABEX or HMG
ABEX = American Brake Exchange
HMG = Hydraulic Motor Generator
-- 115 Volts AC - 5 KVA.
-- 28 VDC - 50 Amps.
-- Not capable of charging the batteries.
-- Located in the main wheel well.
-- Powered from the combined hydraulic system (with essential DC bus power available, the shutoff valve is energized closed; loss of essential DC bus power allows combined pressure to rotate the motor/generator).
145
Q

E-Inverter

A

– 1 Installed
– 0.8 KVA (800 VA)
– 115 VAC
– 400 Hz
– Phase A Only
– Solid State Unit, Located Below The Floor
– Powers The Essential AC Bus
– Input power is from the essential DC bus (via automatic selection) or from the standby generator (via manual selection)
NOTE: The ESS AC BUS E INV switchlight, when illuminated, indicates a requested service only. The ESS voltmeter switchlight is the only verification of E Inverter operation.

146
Q

Remote Power Supply

A
    • Power for the EPMP
    • 4 Sources of Power
      • 1 From Each Aircraft Battery
      • 2 From The Essential DC Bus
147
Q

Maximum Ground Starting TGT

A

700 Degrees Celsius

For 2 Seconds

148
Q

Maximum Relighting (Airstart) TGT

A

780 Degrees Celsius

For 2 Seconds

149
Q

Maximum Takeoff And Maximum Go-Around

LP%, HP% And TGT Degrees Celsius

A 
Same for both (T/O & G/A):
-- LP% RPM = 95.5%
-- HP% RPM = 99.7%
-- TGT = 716-800 Degrees Celsius
               (5 min. or 10 min. single engine)
150
Q

Maximum Continuous:

LP%, HP% and TGT Degrees Celsius

A
    • LP% = 95.5%
    • HP% = 97.5%
    • TGT = 715 Degrees Celsius
151
Q

Minimum Idle HP% (Approach)

A

67% HP

152
Q

Minimum Ground Idle HP%

A

46.6% HP

153
Q

Maximum Reverse Engine Limits

A

– HP - 88%

– TGT - 695 Degrees Celsius

– 1 Minute Every 30 Minutes
(S/N 1250 & subs. or S/N 1000-1249 with ASC 166 no limitation)

154
Q

Maximum Overspeed Engine Operating Limitations

A
    • LP% = 98.3%
    • HP% = 102.6%
    • TGT = 801-820 Degrees Celsius
    • Time Limit = 20 Seconds
155
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

S/N 1000-1213:
46,500 Pounds

S/N 1000-1213 With ASC 61 Or ASC 190:
49,000 Pounds

S/N 1214 And Subsequent:
49,000 Pounds

156
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

S/N 1000-1213

A

46,500 Pounds

Unless ASC 61 or ASC 190 is installed, then the Max Zero Fuel Weight is 49,000 pounds

157
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

S/N 1214 And Subsequent

A

49,000 Pounds

158
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight

A

S/N 1000-1213:
- 73,600 Pounds

S/N 1000-1213 with ASC 190 and S/N 1214 & subsequent:
- 75,000 Pounds

S/N 1500 & subsequent with ASC 436 (G300):
- 72,400 Pounds

S/N 1500 & subsequent with ASC 440 (G400):
- 75,000 Pounds

159
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight

S/N 1000-1213

A

73,600 Pounds

Without ASC 190

160
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight

S/N 1000-1213 with ASC 190 and S/N 1214 & subsequent

A

75,000 Pounds

161
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight
G300
(S/N 1500 and subsequent with ASC 436)

A

72,400 Pounds

162
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight
G400
(S/N 1500 and subsequent with ASC 440)

A

75,000 Pounds

163
Q

Maximum Structural Takeoff Weight

A

S/N 1000-1213:
- 73,200 Pounds

S/N 1000-1213 with ASC 190 and S/N 1214 & subsequent:
- 74,600 Pounds

S/N 1500 and subsequent with ASC 436 (G300):
- 72,000 Pounds

164
Q

Maximum Structural Takeoff Weight

S/N 1000-1213

A

73,200 Pounds

Without ASC 190

165
Q

Maximum Structural Takeoff Weight

S/N 1000-1213 with ASC 190 and S/N 1214 & subsequent

A

74,600 Pounds

166
Q

Maximum Structural Takeoff Weight
G300
(S/N 1500 and subsequent with ASC 436)

A

72,000 Pounds

167
Q

Maximum Structural Landing Weight

A

S/N 1000-1213:
- 58,500 Pounds

S/N 1000-1213 with ASC 190 and S/N 1214 and subsequent:
- 66,000 Pounds

168
Q

Maximum Structural Landing Weight

S/N 1000-1213

A

58,500 Pounds

Without ASC 190

169
Q

Maximum Structural Landing Weight

S/N 1000-1213 with ASC 190 and S/N 1214 & subsequent

A

66,000 Pounds

170
Q

Variations of the G I V

A
  • G IV
  • G IV-SP
  • G300
  • G400
  • C-20 G/H
171
Q

Display Unit Cooling Fans

A

2 Cooling Fans

Fan #1: DU #1, #3 and #5

Fan #2: DU #2, #4 and #6

Remember #1 = Odd # DUs
                   #2 = Even # DUs
172
Q

What do the pilots use to control the IRUs (or IRSs)?

A

The Mode Select Unit

173
Q

What is the “primary job” of the IRSs?

A

Heading and Attitude

174
Q

On the Audio Control Panel there is a button labeled “FILT”.

What does that stand for?

A

Filter

Takes morse code out

175
Q

FMS Inputs

A

Priority #1 = GPS
Priority #2 = DME/DME
Priority #3 = VOR/DME
Priority #4 = IRS

176
Q

FMS Winds

A

PPOS to 200 NM = 100% Sensed

200 NM to 400 NM = 50% Sensed / 50% Entered

400 NM & Beyond = 20% Sensed / 80% Entered

177
Q

Vref Rule of Thumb

A

First, find aircraft weight.
(PROGRAM page 2 or PERF INITIAL page 5)

Example: 55,000 Pounds
Put a 1 on the left and divide by 1000:
 - 155 (Vref for flaps 0)
Subtract 10:
 - 145 (Vref for flaps 10)
Subtract 5:
 - 140 (Vref for flaps 20)
Subtract 5:
 - 135 (Vref for flaps 39)

Target Approach Speed = Vref + 10.

The closer to sea level, the more accurate this rule of thumb will be.

178
Q

What happens when you press TO/GA?

A

5 Things:

1) A/P - Disconnect
2) A/T - G/A Power
3) F/D - 12 Degrees Pitch Up
4) LAT Mode - Cancels (holds “wings level”)
5) Flight Plan - Advances to Missed Aprroach

179
Q

What will cause the A/T to be inhibited?

A

5 Things:

1) A/T ARM not “ON” on Flight Guidance Panel.
2) Both engines not running.
3) EPR below 1.17.
4) Isolation valve open.
5) Any A/T Disengage activated.

180
Q

Pop-Up Checklists

A

1) APU Fire
2) Engine Fire
3) Engine Hot
4) T/R Unlock
5) Cabin Press Low

Remember: HOT-FIRE2 - RC
HOT = Engine Hot
FIRE2 = Engine Fire; APU Fire
R = Thrust Reverser Unlocked In Flight
C = Cabin Pressure Low
181
Q

Systems With Their Own Test Light Circuits

A

1) EPMP
2) Cabin Press Manual Lamp
3) STBY Fuel Quantity
4) DBDIs (2)
5) Fire Handles (2)
6) HP Fuel Cocks (2)

Remember 3 + 3 squared:
3 = items 1-3
3 squared = items 4-6

OR:

Remember:

    • 2 on overhead panel (1 & 2)
    • 3 on instrument panel (3 & 4)
    • 4 on pedestal (5 & 6)
182
Q

Approach Idle

A 
Low Range (48%):
When any of the following occurs:
  1) Nutcracker in a ground mode,
  2) Wheel spin-up greater than 65 mph (57 Kts), or
  3) Flaps less than 22 degrees

High Range (67% HP):
When:
1) In flight, and
2) Flaps greater than 22 degrees

183
Q

Autospeeds On Takeoff

A
  • V2 until V2+10.
  • V2+10 until flap change.
  • 200 until vertical mode change.
  • Then via PERF INIT climb schedule.
184
Q

Autospeeds On Descent

A
  • Above 10,000 = PERF INIT climb schedule.

- Below 10,000 = 240 (240 will be displayed if 250/10,000 is programmed).

185
Q

During the arrival phase of flight, when will the autospeeds change from cruise speed to 200?

A

15 Nautical Miles (Track Miles) From The MAP (or runway).

186
Q

Should you program “Direct To” anything in the FMS while still on the ground (i.e. on T/O tower clears you direct to a VOR in your flight plan)?
Why, or why not?

A

No.

You will lose all of your PERF data including all of your T/O numbers.

187
Q

What is a dead-spot in the rheostats known as?

A

A Non-Engineered Dead Spot (NEDS).

188
Q

Where can you find a list of items powered by the E-Batts?

A

QRH Page EA-26
Remember:
- Unlucky number = 13.
- Remember, if you are down to E-Batts, you are really, really unlucky (unlucky X 2: 13 X 2).

189
Q

What items are powered by the E-Batts?

A

?

190
Q

What temperatures will trigger the battery cooling fan?

A

On at 90 degrees Fahrenheit.

Off at 75 degrees Fahrenheit.

191
Q

What is the AUX power priority?

A

1) APU
2) AC
3) DC

192
Q

What power sources can start the APU?

A
  • External DC (not external AC).

- Main batteries.

193
Q

How many fans do the converters have?

A

5 Each

194
Q

What type of power does the SEPS produce?

A

SEPS, HMG, or ABEX

    • AC: 115 Volt 3 Phase AC at 5 KVA.
    • DC: 28V, 50 Amps.

HMG - AC - TRU - DC
HMG - DC - E-Inv - AC
(This was done this way in order to produce predictable, stable electric power)

Powers only the ESS AC & ESS DC busses.

195
Q

What exactly is powered by the SEPS?

A

See page EA-4 in the QRH

- “All essential AC and DC bus powered equipment…”

196
Q

EDS Power Sources

A 
DU #1:  ESS DC
DU #2:  R Main DC
DU #3:  ESS DC
DU #4:  R Main DC
DU #5:  L Main DC
DU #6:  R Main DC

“Eat Ravioli, Eat Ravioli, Love Ravioli”

197
Q

Symbol Generator Control

Power Sources

A 
#1 (left knob):  ESS DC
#3 (middle knob):  L Main DC
#2 (right knob):  R Main DC

“Everybody Loves Ravioli”

198
Q

Dual Alternator / Converter Fail

“Memory Items”

A 
Remember "NAACP"
NAA = Normal-ALT-ALT
           (Symbol Generators)
C = Crossflow (OPEN)
P = Pumps (Fuel Boost Pumps)
      (One MAIN ON only, all others OFF)
199
Q

If you have both batteries fully charged, how much electrical power (time) do you have after a dual alternator/converter failure?

A

20 Minutes

If the SEPS cannot be used

200
Q

Where can you find a list of items powered (electrically) by each different circuit or bus?

A

QRH page S-13 and following

Remember, if you have to go back to the Blue Supplemental QRH section, you are having bad luck - hence, page # is 13

201
Q

What does it mean if the ESS DC Bus AUTO, LEFT MAIN and BATT switch capsules are illuminated without the BATT 1 and BATT 2 switches illuminated or the BATT ON BUS message illuminated?

A

See QRH page EA-21

- The K20/K22 relay experienced a failure of one of the two relay-poles. Report for maintenance action.

202
Q

What values on the EPMP for AC Volts, Freq, and DC Volts will not trigger the out-of-limit range markings (red bar)?

A

AC Voltmeter: 100-125 Volts = No Red Bar.
Frequency: 380-420 Hz = No Red Bar.
DC Voltmeter: 26.0-30.9 VDC = No Red Bar.
Percent Power Meter: Below 101% = No Red Bar.

203
Q

How many CAS messages can be displayed at one time?

A

23

204
Q

What battery connects to the ground service bus?

A

Whenever the Ground Service Switch is selected ON the Ground Service Bus receives it’s power from BATT #2.

205
Q

When would you expect to see a Battery On Bus indication?

A

Remember “EAA”
E = ESS DC Bus powered by main batteries (manually or automatically).
A = APU Start.
A = AUX Pump ON (operating).

206
Q

When the Emergency Power System is armed, when will the E-BATTS activate?

A 
3 Conditions Will Turn On The E-BATTS:
(Remember "GEM")
G = G load of 2.5 or more,
E = ESS DC Bus loss of power (less than 20 volts),
M = Manually turning them on.
207
Q

Where is the Remote Power Supply (RPS) located, and what does it power?

A

Location = Right Avionics Bay.

It powers the EPMP switchlight, digit, and out-of-limit indicators.

208
Q

External AC is capable of powering what busses?

A

With an external AC Power supply connected and operating, selecting the AUX Power switch and selecting at least one BATT Switch ON the AC Buses will be energized. The TRU will then be activated to power the DC Buses.
Also, battery charging is possible with External AC only (not with External DC).

209
Q

What capabilities are lost if you lose the Flight Hydraulic System pressure?

A 
Remember "PRAY":
P = PTU (Utility Pump)
R = Reverser (Right T/R)
A = Auto Pilot
Y = Yaw Damper
210
Q

When armed, what will cause the Utility Pump to turn ON automatically?

A

Combined System failure (Amber CMB HYD FAIL CAS message) or combined system pressure falling to less than 800 psi.
Also, the Flight Hydraulic system will have to have:
1) At least 2000 psi, and
2) 220 degrees F or less fluid temp.
And, the Combined reservoir will have to have at least 1 gallon of hydraulic fluid in it.

211
Q

What Flight Hydraulic system fluid temperature will activate the amber “FLT HYD HOT” CAS message?

A

More than 220 degrees Fahrenheit.

212
Q

During engine start when will the “CMB HYD FAIL” CAS message extinguish?

A

As the Combined Hydraulic system pressure exceeds 1500 psi.

Jason's Work Stuff (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions