From practice tests #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Jet ventilation

A
  • Max 60 psi
  • can be used above glottis
  • can cause pneumo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bronchial blockers used for:

A
  • suctioning of isolated lung (suction air or insufflate with O2)
  • nasally intubated
  • a trach
  • a single lumen ETT in place
  • < 8 years old
  • EZ, Cohen, Arndt, Uniblocker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

known difficult airway, avoid?

A

RSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Each Hgb molecule can carry how many O2 atoms?

A

Can carry 4 O2 molecules > so 8 O2 atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aortic valve dimensions: Normal and severe AS

A
  • Normal 2.5-3.5 cm²
  • Severe AS < 0.8 (some books say < 1.0 cm²)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Candidates for CEA vs CAS

A

CEA better for pts with:

  • Dont tolerate antiplatelets
  • severe renal

CAS better for pts with:

  • CHF < 30%
  • CAD w/unstable angina
  • abnormal stress test or MI < 1 month
  • Valve disease
  • Severe obesity
  • Contralateral RLN injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aortic aneurysm least likely to cause aortic insufficiency

A

Crawford 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Descending AAs only?

A

D3.SB.C

  • Debaky 3
  • Stanford B
  • All Crawford
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ascending AAs only?

A

D2.SA

  • Debakey 2
  • sometimes Standford A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nitric oxide pathway

A

O2 + arginine → Nitric oxide → cGMP → Protein kinase

Halflife 6 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Recall of anesthesia exam?

A

Modified Brice exam:

  • Remember before going to sleep?
  • 1st thing waking up?
  • anything between going to sleep/waking up?
  • did you dream?
  • what was the worst thing about your procedure?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

closes glottic opening

A

aryepiglottic folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pancreatitis S/S

A
  • Pericardial effusion
  • myocardial depression
  • Dysrhthmias
  • MI
  • DIC
  • ARF
  • THrombophlebitits
  • vasodilation
  • hypovolemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia S/S

A
  • HTN
  • Bradycardia
  • Pulm edema
  • Seizures

*most common in bold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when to redose antacids?

A

60 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antibodies

A

O has anti AB

AB has none

B has A

A has B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common arrhythmia with WPW syndrom

A

AVNRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name for wide/narrow QRS

A

Wide - Antidromic

Narrow - Orthodromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gout treatment

A
  • Hydration
  • Alkalize urine with bicarb
  • Allopurinol (inhibits purine →uric acid)
  • Colchacine (decreases inflammation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Levadopa does what

A

decreases prolactin

increases growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

30 day mortality risk of elderly, in order

A
  1. ASA 4
  2. > 90yo
  3. ARF
  4. unplanned ICU admit
  5. ASA 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

LMA + laparoscopic procedure guidelines

A

“15” rule:

  • < 15º tilt
  • < 15 cmH20
  • < 15 min

Use gastric draining LMA - proseal, supreme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FGF coupled ventilators equation

A

3 L/min = 3000 ml/min.

I:E ratio 1:3 → 3000 x 1/3 = 1000

1000ml/10 RR = 100 ml

Vt = 450ml, so 100 ml + 450 ml = 550ml total volume to pt

24
Q

TURP fluids

A
  • 10-30 ml/min retained
  • EBL 2-5 ml/min
25
Q

N20 activates SNS causing:

A

Increased

  • HR
  • BP
  • SVR

but also myocardial depressant

26
Q

Elevated level in hemophelia A?

A

PTT

27
Q

Vent modes

A

AC - spontaneuos ventilation with preset Vt

CMV - best in apneic pts

IMV - traditional weaning

28
Q

Hormone stimulation causes?

  • Gastrin
  • CHolecystokinin
  • Secretin
  • Molitin
A
  • pepsinogen secretion
  • gallbladder contraction
  • bile flow
  • upper GI motility
29
Q

Structures to align for intubation

A

Oral

Pharyngeal

Laryngeal

30
Q

TOF monitoring on a hemiparitic limb results in?

A
  • falsely elevated result
31
Q

EEG suggestions of neural damage?

A
  • 50% decrease in amplitute
  • 10% increase in latency
32
Q

Neuropathic pain with autonomic involvement?

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

  • Type 1 + 2: risks are female, prev. trauma or surgery
  • Type 2: always preceded by nerve injury

Treatment is same for both:

  • Ketamin
  • Menantine (NMDA antagonist)
  • Gabapentin
  • Sympathetic block
  • PT
33
Q
  • minimize spina bifida pt exposure to?
A
  • Latex - severe allergery later on in life
34
Q

Most potent benzo for amnesia

A

Lorazepam (ativan)

35
Q

Obesity drug dosages: Induction/Maintenence

  • LBW/TBW
  • TBW/LBW
  • LBW
  • TBW
A
  • Propofol
  • Fent/Sufent
  • Roc/Vec/Remi
  • Midaz/Succ/Atra/Cis
36
Q

Dorsolateral aspect of humerus nerve

A

Radial

37
Q

Nerve injuries:

  • Lateral stirrup injury
  • Medial stirrup injury
  • excess flexion/traction/forceps delivery
  • Lithotomy
  • Excess traction
  • Legs crossed
  • Sitting position
A
  • Common peroneal - foot drop
  • Saphenous - decreased sensation
  • Obturator - innability to adduct legs
  • Sciatic - foot drop
  • Femoral - impair knee extention/hip flexion/anterior sensation
  • Top - Sural. Bottom - superficial peroneal
  • Midcervical tetraplegia, VAE
38
Q

Anatomic sites matched with laser

A
  • Argon - vascular
  • Ruby - retina
  • Nd:YaG - tumor, trachea
  • CO2 - oropharyngeal, VC
39
Q

Lithium prolongs:

A

NMBs

40
Q

NMS causative agents:

A
  • Reglan
  • Haldol
  • Choropromazine/prochlorperazine (phenergan/compazine)
  • Risperidone
  • Droperidol

Avoid in Parkinsons as well

41
Q

Serotonin syndrome from:

Treatment?

A
  • MAOI + Meperidine (demerol) or Ephedrine
  • SSRI + Demerol or Fentanyl

Cyproheptadine

42
Q

SSRIs

A
  • Fluoxetine (Prozac)
  • Paroxetine (Paxil)
  • Sertraline (Zoloft)
  • Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
  • Citalopram (Celexa)
  • Escitalopram (Lexapro)
  • St Johns Wart
43
Q

MAOIs

A
  • Phenelzine (Nardil)
  • Trancyclypromine (Parnate)
  • Selegine (Emsam)
44
Q

Aqueous Humor Produced and reabsorbed by?

A
  • Ciliary Process
  • Canal of Schlemm
45
Q

Eye Bubbles + N2O

Silicone oil

Air

PF propane

A
  • Silicone Oil - 0
  • Air - 5 days
  • PF propane - 30 days
46
Q

Most common side effect of antibiotics

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

47
Q

Antibiotics that act by disruptinng cell wall synthesis?

Called?

A
  • Cephalosporins (Cef- or Ceph-)
  • Vanco
  • Beta-Lactams (-cilins)

Called Peptidoglycans

48
Q

Abx to avoid in OB

A
  • Erythromycin
  • Flourinoquinilones (-oxacins)
  • Tetras
49
Q

Antiemetics that hit Vestibular apparatus

A

Anticholinergics (scopolamine)

Antihistamines

50
Q

Samters Triad

A

Aspirin (also NSAIDS) exacerbated respiratory disease

  • Asthma
  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Nasal polyps

Can cause bronchospasm

51
Q

Drugs that cause Hypokalemia

A

BITE

  • Beta 2 agonists
  • Insulin
  • Theophyline
  • Epi
52
Q

Drugs that inhibit baroreceptor reflex

A
  • Volatiles
  • Propofol
  • B. Blockers
53
Q

B.Blockers that block both A+B:

A
  • Carvedilol (10:1)
  • Labetalol (7:1)
54
Q

Horners syndrome

A

Blockade of Stellate ganglion (C7)

  • Ptosis (drooping eyelid)
  • Miosis
  • Anhidrosis (inability to sweat)
  • Enopthalmos (posterior displacement of eyeball)
55
Q

Both PNS/SNS: Preganglion/postganglion fibers

A

Pre: Myelinated B

Post: Unmyelinated C