From Powerpoints Flashcards

1
Q

Catabolism: ____________; Anabolism: ____________

A

Exergonic; endergonic

Converging; diverging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Competitive inhibitor of Suc-DH

A

Malonate (complex 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rotenone and barbiturates such as amobarbital and amytal inhibit _______

A

NDAH-DH (complex 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antimycin A and Dimercaprol inhibit _________

A

Cyt C reductase (complex 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Are lipid soluble weak acids; dissolve in the membrane and function as carriers for H+

A

Uncouplers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
Oil drop or mixed micelle model of lipoprotein structure differ in
A. Size of the neutral lipid core
B. Lipid composition in the core
C. Apolipoprotein
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cofactors for enzymes C-II is for

A

Lipoprotein lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cofactors for enzymes A-I is for

A

Lecithin and cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Enzyme inhibitors for lipoprotein lipase

A

A-III and C-III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Enzyme inhibitors for cholesteryl ester transferprotein (CETP)

A

C-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ligands for interaction with lipoprotein receptors in tissues for LDL receptor

A

B-100 and E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ligands for interaction with lipoprotein receptorsintissues for HDL receptor

A

A-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

VLDLs are converted to LDL through the action of

A

Lipoprotein lipase and hepatic lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cholesterol is incorporated into the plasma membranes and excess is re-esterified by

A

Acyl-CoA-cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A co-factor for the lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT)

A

Apoprotein A-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Apo C and Apo E are synthesized in the

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Major function of HDL

A

Repository for the ApoC and ApoE required in the metabolism of chylomicron and VLDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HDL is a scavenger for cholesterol from

A

Peripheral tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cholesterol esters can be transferred to VLDL and LDL via the action of

A

Cholesterol ester transfer lipoprotein (CETP) aka apo-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fatty acid synthesis requires

A

Malonyl CoA and acetyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A three carbon intermediate that initiates fatty acid synthesis

A

Malonyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sources of acetyl CoA
A. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate (carbs)
B. Oxidative degradation of some amino acids (proteins)
C. Beta oxidation of long chain fatty acids (fats)
D. All of the above

A

D. All of he above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Arrange the steps in fatty acid biosynthesis

  1. Condensation
  2. Reduction
  3. Dehydration
  4. Reduction
A

1-2-3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What group is reduced to an alcohol by NADPH

A

Beta-ketogroup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In FA biosynthesis, the elimination of water creates a

A

Double bond (dehydration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

All the reactions in the fatty acid synthetic process are catalyzed by a multi-enzyme complex called

A

Fatty acid synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many cycles of condensation and reduction produce the saturated palmitoyl group

A

Seven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In FA synthesis, this enzyme catalyzes a hydrolisis reaction to release palmitate (16:0)

A

Palmitoyl thioesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

FA synthase complex is found exclusively in the

A

Cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acetyl CoA production occurs in the

A

Mitochondria (mitochondrial inner membrane is impermeable to acetyl CoA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Oxaloacetate cannot return to the mitochondrial matrix directly, so oxaloacetate is reduced to

A

Malate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Intra mitrochondrial acetyl CoA first reacts with oxaloacetate o form

A

Citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Citrate then passes into the cytosol through the mitochondrial inner membrane on the

A

Citrate tranposter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In the cytosol, citrate is cleaved by __________ regenerating acetyl CoA

A

Citrate lyase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Malate returns to the mitochondrial matrix on the _____________ transporter in exchange for citrate

A

Malate-alpha-ketoglutarate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In hepatocytes and adipocytes, cystosolic NADPH is largely generated by the _________ and by the ____________

A

Malic enzyme and pentose phosphate pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
What is the major proton collector?
A. NADH
B. NAD+
C. NADPH
D. A & B
A

D. A & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most important storage form of glucose derive from diet

A

Triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Major source of oxaloacetic acid

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Very important pathway in intermediary metabolism

A

Tricarboxylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Allows for the complete oxidation of the major biomolecules including glucose

A

TCA cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Alternative pathway used for glucose metabolism for the cells that produce NADPH and other simple sugars

A

Pentose phosphate pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Used as an electron carrier in fatty acid synthesis or lipogenesis

A

NADPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Important component of nucleic acids (RNA and DNA)

A

Ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most important function of carbohydrates and glucose

A

Role as the only major biomolecule that could be used as a source of energy in the absence of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or False: Oxidation of glucose can still continue even without oxygen

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In the end stage of glycolysis, pyruvate may be converted to lactate with the help of what enzyme

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Major storage form of glucose

A

Fatty acids

Because glycogen remains a polar molecule owing its partially oxidized state. As a result, glycogen is stored in the cell in a highly hydrated form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A gram of glucose yields

A

4 kcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A gram of fat yields

A

9 kcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

True of fatty acids

A

Most fatty acids in the body are saturated and highly reduced. They are hydrophobic and could be stored in a highly “dehydrated” state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

True or false: glucose may be converted to fatty acids and vice versa

A

False

Glucose may be converted to fatty acids, but the reverse is not true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The only major contributor to synthesis of new glucose

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The only major biomolecule that could be used by cells for energy in the absence of oxygen

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Regulates glucose, fatty acid and amino acid metabolism, but responds primarily to serum glucose levels

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Other hormones that respond primarily to glucose levels but affect not only carbohydrate but also fatty acid and amino acid metabolism

A

Thyroid hormone, epinephrine, glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Insulin is released by what when serum glucose starts to increase

A

Beta cells of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Insulin stimulates entry of glucose in certain cells as well as ________, ________ and ________

A

Glycogen synthesis, fatty acid synthesis and protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Insulin inhibits what

A

Lipolysis, beta-oxidation and gluconeogensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Saliva contains what

A

Amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Absorption of glucose through the intestines occurs primarily through

A

Facilitated transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What glucose transporter is found in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle that is stimulated by insulin

A

Glucose transporter 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Glucose transporter that is ubiquitous, expressed to largest degree in the brain, placenta and most cultured cells

A

GLUT1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Glucose transporter in liver, beta cells of pancreas and kidneys

A

GLUT2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Glucose transporter that is ubiquitous

A

GLUT3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Glucose transporter found in adipose tissue, heart and skeletal muscle

A

GLUT4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Glucose transporter found in small intestine

A

GLUT5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Glucose is immediately phosphorylated to glucose 6 phosphateby what enzyme

A

Hexokinase (glucokinase in the liver)

Which traps glucose inside the cell as G6P is more highly polarized that glucose and is of significantly larger size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Conversion to G6P

A

Decreases the concentration of glucose inside the cell, thus allowing for more glucose to enter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

3 fates of G6P

A

Could be used in the pentose phosphate pathway to produce ribose and other sugars, used in glycogen synthesis, undergo glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Major energy producing reaction in carbohydrate metabolism and the initial stage in the conversion of glucose into fatty acids

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Enzymes that catalyze the conversion from glucose to glucose 6 phosphate

A

Hexokinase (in non-hepatic tissues) and glucokinase (in the liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Difference between glucokinase and hexokinase

A

Glucokinase has a higher Km that hexokinase and is not inhibited by G6P.

Hexokinase is neither regulated by insulin nor glucagon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When serum glucose and insulin levels are high, the G6P ends up being stored as

A

Fatty acids and glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When insulin levels are low, the glucose that is extracted is used for energy through

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The signal for glycogenolysis in the skeletalmuscle is

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The forward reaction is catalyzed by

A

Phosphofructokinase (PFK1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The reverse reaction is catalyzed by

A

Fructose 1,6 biphosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The phosphate donor is

A

ATP

So that the forward reaction is highly endergonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Fructose 2,6 biphosphate stimulates

A

Phosphofructokinase 1 (glycolysis part)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Fructose 2,6 biphosphate inhibits

A

Fructose 1,6 biphosphatase (gluconeogenesis part)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Phosphoenol pyruvate —> pyruvate

A

Is strictly an irreversible reaction with the corresponding reactions in gluconeogenesis proceeding very differently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Phosphoenol pyruvate —> pyruvate is catalyzed by what enzyme and produces how many ATP

A

Pyruvate kinase and one ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Once pyruvate is formed, it is transported into the mitochondrion where it is converted to acetyl CoA by what enzyme

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Strictly irreversible reaction and also explains why fatty acids could never be converted back to new glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by ATP and the amino acids _______ and ________

A

Alanine and phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Acetyl CoA causes inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase by stimulating the

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Inhibits the kinase and activates PDH

A

Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Oxaloacetate is easily converted to malate inside the mitochondrion by the enzyme

A

Malate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Oxaloacetate is converted to phosphoenol pyruvate by the enzyme

A

PEP carboxykinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Whole pyruvate -> PEP cycle consumes _______ while the reverseprodices only

A

2 ATP equivalents; 1ATP resulting in a net requirement of 1ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Insulin is responsible for

A

Protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Glucagon is responsible for

A

Amino acid breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Whereas glucose is the substrate for glycolysis, kt is the product of

A

Gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The substrates for gluconeogenesis are the amino acids while the products of glycolysis are

A

ATP and NADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Step which determines the flux between glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

A

Fructose-6-phosphate: fructose 1,6 biphosphate substrate cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Removal of the phosphate group is done by this enzyme

A

Glycose 6 phosphate

Found only in the liver and to a lesser extent in the renal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Glycogen metabolism is controlled by regulation of the enzymes

A

Glycogen phosphorylase (involved in glycogenolysis) and glycogen (involved in glycogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The activation of protein kinase b is done in the presence of high levels of cyclic AMP, formed from ATP by the enzyme

A

Adenyl cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Roundabout way of activating glycogen phosphorylase with a signal from glucagon or epinephrine is called

A

Amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The enzyme catalyzing the first reaction in fatty acid synthesis (the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA

A

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When fatty acid synthesis from glucose is taking place, degradation of fatty acids through beta-oxidation in the mitochondrion is prevented by inhibition of carnitine palmitoyl transferase I (CPT I) by ________

A

Malonyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Processes which allow for utilization and storage of glucose

A

Glycolysis and glycogen synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Allows for regeneration of glucose

A

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Inside the enterocytes, the lipids are aggregated into what

A

Chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Enzyme that converts the surface phospholipid and cholesterol into cholesterol esters and lysolecithin

A

Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Cholesterol is eliminated from the liver by being exerted as what

A

Bile acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Involves the hydrolytic removal of the fatty acid moiety from the glycerol backbone of triglycerides

A

Lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The opposite process of lipolysis where fatty acid molecules are added to the glycerol backbone

A

Esterification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Cholesterol has role in

A

Atheroscelrosis and cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Regulation of cholesterol synthesis is exerted at the step catalyzed by what enzyme

A

HMG CoA reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Multiple generations affected

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Males and females equally likely to be affected

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The incidence of the condition is much higher in males than in females

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

A male or female child of an affected mother has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and thus being affected with the disorder

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

D. X-linked dominant inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Males and females affected in equal proportion

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Both parents must be carriers of a single copy of the responsible gene in order for a child to be affected

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

All daughters of affected males will be carriers

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

All female children of an affected father will be affected (daughters possesses their fathers’ chromosome)

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

D. X-linked dominant inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Male to male transmission does occur

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The risk is 25% for each child of carrier parents

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Sons of carrier females have 50% chance of being affected, 50% chance unaffected, in each pregnancy

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Each offspring of an affected parent has 50% chance of being affected

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Ask about consanguinity

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The condition is never transmitted directly from father to son

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X-linked recessive inheritance
D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Myotonic dystrophy, fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease are examples of

A

Triplet Repeat Expansion Disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

An expansion of a segment of DNA that contains a repeat of 3 nucleotides such as CGGCGGCGGCGG…..CGG is called

A

Triplet Repeat Expansion Disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Only one copy of the gene is expressed, expression of the gene is variable depending on which parent the gene came from, the active gene is preferentially always from one parent over the other

A

Genomic Imprinting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Stop codons

A

UAG, UAA, UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Base + sugar =

A

Nucleoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Base + sugar + phosphate =

A

Nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Source of nucleotides that use simple precursors e.g. Amino acids, CO2, one carbon groups

A

De novo pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Source of nucleotides that use preformed nucleosides and bases

A

Salvage reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Is the source of ribose group for de novo purine and pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis and salvage reaction

A

PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Conversion of IMP to GMP and AMP

A

Branched pathway of biosynthesis of purine nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is built up from a molecule of PRPP synthesized from ribose-5-PO4 and ATP

A

Purine ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the donors of atoms of purine ring

A

Amino acid and one carbon compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Formation of carbomyl phosphate from bicarbonate via

A

Carbomyl synthetase II (cytosol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Major site of biosynthesis of purine nucleotides

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Condensation of aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate via

A

Aspartate transcarbamoylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Enzyme in pyrimidine biosynthesis

A

CTP synthetase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

4 ribonucleoside diphosphates in the formation of deoxyribonucleotides

A

ADP, GDP, CDP, UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Enzyme in the formation of deoxyribonucleotides

A

Nucleoside diphosphate reductase or ribonucleotide reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

A suicide inhibitor used to treat gout

A

Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

An estimate of the difference between the amount of nitrogen intake (in the form of dietary proteins) and all sources of nitrogen excretion (primarily as urea and NH4)

A

Nitrogen balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the average DNA length of chromosomes

A

1.3 x 10^8 bp (~5 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Diameter of the cell nucleus

A

10 micrometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How many chromosomes does humans have?

A

46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Order of organization of a human genome

A

10 nm fibril -> 30 nm chromatin fiber -> looped domains -> condensed loops -> metaphase chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Histone octamer for nucleosome formation

A

H2A and H2B dimers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Histone octamer for nucleosome stabilization

A

H3 and H4 tetramer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The process of accurate duplication of an organism’s genetic information

A

DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Two parental strands separate and serve as template for a new progeny strand because of complementary base pairing

A

DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

A feature of DNA replication where each daughter DNA has one parental strand and one new strand

A

Semi-conservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

A feature of DNA replication where it has an anti-parallel DNA and 5’ to 3’ direction of DNA polymerase

A

Semi-discontinuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

A feature of DNA replication where DNA polymerase cannot initiate de novo synthesis

A

Priming of DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

A feature of DNA replication where two replicating forks move in opposite directions away from the origin

A

Bidirectional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Deoxynucleotide polymerization

A

DNA polymerases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Processive unwinding of DNA

A

Helicases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Relieve torsional strain that results from helicase induced unwinding

A

Topoisomerases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Initiates synthesis of RNA primers

A

DNA primase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Prevent premature reannealing of dsDNA

A

Single-strand binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Seals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand

A

DNA ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q
Equal and reciprocal exchange between homologous chromosomes during meiosis
A. Recombination
B. Transposition
C. Gene conversion
D. Mutation
A

A. Recombination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q
Jumping DNA; small DNA elements capable of transposing themselves in and out
A. Recombination
B. Transposition
C. Gene conversion
D. Mutation
A

B. Transposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q
Pairing of similar sequences on homologous or non homologous chromosomes
A. Recombination
B. Transposition
C. Gene conversion
D. Mutation
A

C. Gene conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q
Eliminate mismatched sequences between them
A. Recombination
B. Transposition
C. Gene conversion
D. Mutation
A

C. Gene conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q
Alteration in the DNA structure that produce permanent changes in the genetic information
A. Recombination
B. Transposition
C. Gene conversion
D. Mutation
A

D. Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q
The survival of an individual requires genetic stability
A. Recombination
B. Transposition
C. Gene conversion
D. Mutation
A

D. Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q
Occasional genetic changes contribute to variation and enhances the long-term survival of a species
A. Recombination
B. Transposition
C. Gene conversion
D. Mutation
A

D. Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q
Proofreading of DNA polymerase
A. 5' to 3' exonucleic activity
B. 5' to 3' endonucleic activity
C. 3' to 5' exonucleic activity
D. 3' to 5' endonucleic activity
A

C. 3’ to 5’ exonucleic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Methylation differentiates parental and daughter strands
A. Mismatch repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Nucleotide excision repair

A

A. Mismatch repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Usually works on common, relatively subtle changes to DNA bases e.g. Deaminated Cs, alkylated bases, oxidized bases
A. Mismatch repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Nucleotide excision repair

A

B. Base excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Deals with more drastic changes to bases (pyrimidine dimers)
A. Mismatch repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Nucleotide excision repair

A

C. Nucleotide excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

1% of total cellular DNA and encodes several peptides in the mitochondria, rRN, tRNA e.g. Cytochrome oxidase and ATP synthase

A

Mitochondrial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Mitochondrial DNA is transmitted by

A

Maternal non-mendelian inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Development of an entire organism from a cell as long as the genetic material is intact

A

Cloning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

From a primordial cell to a terminally differentiated cell e.g. Skin cell

A

Cellular differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Change in gene expression without actual change in DNA

A

Epigenic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Dense, dark, highly packed (inaccessible), transcriptionally silent
A. Heterochromatin
B. Euchromatin

A

A. Heterochromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Loosely packed (accessible), light, active gene transcription
A. Heterochromatin
B. Euchromatin

A

B. Euchromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Silencing genes, reduces unnecessary gene expression

A

DNA methylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

High methylation =
A. Transcriptionally silent
B. Transcriptionally active or can be activated

A

A. Transcriptionally silent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

DNA methylation is mediated by

A

MeCP1 and MeCP2 (methylated CpG binding proteins 1 & 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Anytime that a cell differentiates, there is an increase/decrease in methylation (de novo synthesis)

A

Increase

Because differential gene expression is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Replication from fertilized egg to blastocyst increase/decrease in methylation

A

Decrease (demethylation in early embryo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Inherited form of mental retardation
A. Fragile X syndrome
B. Fragile Y syndrome

A

A. Fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Where DNA are wrapped around making it more accessible and subjecting it to control

A

Histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Must be able to recognize the startpoint or transcription start site

A

RNA Polymerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q
Most important and fundamental element of cis-acting elements
A. Promoters
B. Terminator
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
E. Insulators
F. Response elements
A

A. Promoters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q
A DNA sequence just downstream of the coding segment of a gene, which is recognized by RNA polymerase as a signal to stop transcription
A. Promoters
B. Terminator
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
E. Insulators
F. Response elements
A

B. Terminator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q
A regulatory DNA sequence that greatly enhances the transcription of a gene
A. Promoters
B. Terminator
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
E. Insulators
F. Response elements
A

C. Enhancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q
A DNA sequence that helps to reduce or shut off the expression of a nearby gene
A. Promoters
B. Terminator
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
E. Insulators
F. Response elements
A

D. Silencers

193
Q
"Buffer zone"; prevent a gene from being influenced by activation or repression of its neighbors
A. Promoters
B. Terminator
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
E. Insulators
F. Response elements
A

E. Insulators

194
Q
Way by which stimuli bypasses other elements and goes straight to the gene
A. Promoters
B. Terminator
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
E. Insulators
F. Response elements
A

F. Response elements

195
Q
Way by which stimuli bypasses other elements and goes straight to the gene
A. Promoters
B. Terminator
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
E. Insulators
F. Response elements
A

F. Response elements

196
Q

Protects RNA from nucleases

A

PolyA

197
Q

Role of ubiquitin

A

Some protein appear to be marked for degradation by attachment to the protein ubiquitin

198
Q

Is a normal gene that can become an oncogene due to mutations or increased expression

A

Proto-oncogene

199
Q

Is a protein encoding gene, which - when deregulated - participates in the onset and development of cancer

A

Oncogene

200
Q

Aka anti-oncogene

A gene that protects a cell from being cancer

A

Tumour suppressor gene

201
Q

Is characterized by involvement of biomolecules related to immune system activity and pregnancy

A

Preeclampsia

202
Q

1st cardiovascular single gene disorder for which the responsible mutation was discovered

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

203
Q

A diagnostic to identify active TB infection

A

Interferon-gamma release assay

204
Q

Physiological cell death; cell suicide; cell deletion; programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

205
Q

An intracellular proteolytic pathway

A

Apoptosis

206
Q

Killing, decay and destruction of cell

A

Necrosis

207
Q

Protein which degrade other proteins are employed by apoptosis

A

Caspases

208
Q

Made as inactive precursors

A

Procaspases

209
Q

Allows the cell to enter the cell cycle

A

Mitogens

210
Q

Increase in cell mass

A

Growth factors

211
Q

Suppress apoptosis

A

Survival factors

212
Q

Additions of whole chromosomes sets

A

Euploidy

213
Q

Additions or subtractions of one or more single chromosomes

A

Aneuploidy

214
Q
Stage where there is organelle duplication but no DNA replication
A. G1
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
A

A. G1 phase

215
Q

Cells that remain in G1 for a long time

A

G0

216
Q

Committed to cell division once it starts;
DNA and centrosome replication;
Semi-conservative replication of DNA: two identical daughter genomes
A. G1
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase

A

B. S phase

217
Q
Growth continues;
Determining cell stage;
Cells at different stages of the cell cycle can also be distinguished by their DNA content
A. G1
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
A

C. G2 phase

218
Q
Mitosis+ cytokinesis
A. G1
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
A

D. Mitotic phase

219
Q

Nuclear division resulting to 2 nuclei identical to each other and to the parental nuclei

A

Mitotic phase

220
Q

Cytoplasm pinches in

A

Cleavage furrow

221
Q

In plant cells, a new cell wall is formed between the 2 new cells

A

Cell plate

222
Q

Cytokinesis usually begins in

A

Early anaphase

223
Q

In prokaryotes cytoplasmic division is by

A

Binary fission

224
Q

Period during which cells are responsive to mitogenic GFs and to TGF-beta

A

G1

225
Q

Phosphorylates proteins by transferring a phosphate group from a high energy molecule (like ATP) to an amino acid residue of the protein

A

Kinase

226
Q

Cyclin destruction is controlled by

A

Ubiquitination

227
Q

CDKs are regulated by

A

Phosphorylation

228
Q

Cdc2 mutants arrest in

A

G2

229
Q

Cdc28 arrest in

A

G1

230
Q

What is destroyed by ubiquitination

A

Sic1

231
Q

Properties required for transmission of chromosomes during cell division

A
  1. One and only one centromere
  2. Functional telomere at both ends
  3. Chromosomes must be fully replicated
  4. Chromosomes cannot be too large or too small
232
Q

Cyclin destruction is controlled by

A

Ubiquitination

Ubiquitination: The “kiss of death” process for a protein. In ubiquitination, a protein is inactivated by attaching ubiquitin to it. Ubiquitin is a small molecule. It acts as a tag that signals the protein-transport machinery to ferry the protein to the proteasome for degradation. For more information, see: Ubiquitin.

233
Q

Wee1 is a kinase

A

Cdc25 is a phosphatase

234
Q

Cells actively control the composition of their immediate environment and intracellular milieu within a narrow range of physiologic parameters

A

Homeostasis

235
Q

On the cellular level, certain stresses would challenge the stability of the homeostatic state and the cell can adapt

A

Cellular adaptation

236
Q

When limits of adaptive response are exceeded or when adaptation is not possible, there could be cellular damage

A

Cellular inquiry

237
Q

Damage to what increases cell’s permeability to sodium and water-> lysis

A

Plasma membrane

238
Q

Affect ability to maintain resting membrane potential

A

Potassium leakage

239
Q

Impairs energy metabolism

A

Mitochondrial membrane injury

240
Q

Releases hydrolytic enzymes -> auto digestion of cellular proteins

A

Lysosomal injury

241
Q

Interferes with protein synthesis and intracellular transport of biologically important compounds

A

Endoplasmic reticulum damage

242
Q

Injury to cell membranes cause

A

Increased cytosolic calcium

243
Q

Mitochondrial injury or dysfunction causes

A

Decreased ATP production

244
Q

Are highly reactive atoms with a single unpaired electron in an outer orbital

A

Free radicals

245
Q

Molecules that react with free radicals are in turn converted to free radicals

A

Autocatalytic reactions

246
Q

Attack double bonds in unsaturated membrane phospholipids and degrade structural integrity

A

Lipid peroxidation of membranes

247
Q

Damage to the cell’s DNA

A

Interferes with cell replication

Impairs synthesis of important structural and functional proteins

248
Q

Causes of cell injury

A

Hypoxia, physical agents, chemical agents and drugs, biological agents, immunologic reactions, genetic derangements, nutritional imbalances

249
Q

A deficiency of oxygen causes cell injury by reducing aerobic oxidative respiration; cells receive decreased amounts of oxygen or no oxygen at all

A

Hypoxia/anoxia (oxygen deprivation)

250
Q

Loss of blood supply from impeded arterial flow or reduced venous drainage in a tissue

A

Ischemia

251
Q

Ischemia

A

Decrease in O2 and ATP

Increase cytosolic Ca2+ and phospholipid degradation

252
Q

A clinically important process that significantly contributes to myocardial and cerebral infarctions

A

Reperfusion damage

253
Q

Crush injury, fractures, lacerations, hemorrhage

A

Mechanical trauma

If sudden(acute), violent -> direct injury to cells
If prolonged, less intense (chronic) -> provoke cellular adaptation
254
Q

Causes direct damage by increasing rate of cellular activity leading to inadequate oxygen

A

Heat

255
Q

May form crystals that puncture cells or cause slowing of metabolic activities

A

Cold

256
Q

High energy-carrying molecular particles that, when in contact with living cells, change their molecular composition

A

Radiant energy or radiation

257
Q

Radiation energy above the ultraviolet range; damage due to direct contact with a cellular molecular causes electron imbalances; undifferentiated or mitotic cells esp. susceptible

A

Ionizing radiation

258
Q

Low energy below that of visible light; energy is not powerful enough to break molecular bonds but will cause atoms to rotate or become misaligned; typically takes prolonged exposure for damage to occur

A

Non-ionizing radiation

259
Q

Energy above that of visible light with the capacity to break chemical bonds; most damage caused within DNA where thymine dimers are formed resulting in dysfunctional DNA regulation

A

Ultraviolet radiation

260
Q

Inactivates enzyme cytochrome oxidase in mitochondria required for aerobic respiration

A

Cyanide

261
Q

Binds to sulfhydryl groups of cell membrane and other proteins causing increased membrane permeability and inhibition of ATP-ase dependent transport

A

Mercury

262
Q

Greatest damage to cells in tissues that use, absorb, concentrate, or excrete the chemicals

A

Direct-acting

263
Q

Most important effect if membrane injury due to formation of free radicals and subsequent lipid peroxidation

A

Indirect-acting

264
Q

A state that lies intermediate between the normal, unstressed cell and the injured overstressed cell

A

Cellular adaptation

265
Q

Without nourishment; acquired decrease in cell size leading to decreased tissue and organ size; shrinkage in size of the cell or in number of cells resulting in reduction of functional capacity

A

Atrophy

266
Q

Programmed “normal” atrophy

A

Physiological atrophy

267
Q

Atrophy associated with disease

A

Pathological atrophy

268
Q
Decreased workload
A. Disuse atrophy
B. Denervation atrophy
C. Ischemic atrophy
D. Hormonal atrophy
E. Pressure atrophy
A

A. Disuse atrophy

269
Q
Loss of innervation
A. Disuse atrophy
B. Denervation atrophy
C. Ischemic atrophy
D. Hormonal atrophy
E. Pressure atrophy
A

B. Denervation atrophy

270
Q
Diminished blood supply
A. Disuse atrophy
B. Denervation atrophy
C. Ischemic atrophy
D. Hormonal atrophy
E. Pressure atrophy
A

C. Ischemic atrophy

271
Q
Loss of endocrine stimulation
A. Disuse atrophy
B. Denervation atrophy
C. Ischemic atrophy
D. Hormonal atrophy
E. Pressure atrophy
A

D. Hormonal atrophy

272
Q
Pressure on blood vessels
A. Disuse atrophy
B. Denervation atrophy
C. Ischemic atrophy
D. Hormonal atrophy
E. Pressure atrophy
A

E. Pressure atrophy

273
Q

An increase in cell size (cellular mass) resulting in an increase in the amount of functioning tissue mass

A

Hypertrophy

274
Q

Hypertrophy is commonly seen in what muscle tissues

A

Cardiac and skeletal

275
Q

Failure to grow; caused by defective genetic instructions guiding development of cell populations

A

Aplasia

276
Q

Incomplete growth; cells do not reach full-size or full development

A

Hypoplasia

277
Q

Increase in tissue mass due to an increased rate of cell division and cellular proliferation

A

Hyperplasia

278
Q

Adaptive conversion between cell types in an adult; usually occurs in response to chronic irritation and inflammation

A

Metaplasia

279
Q

Reversible cell damage

A

Degeneration

280
Q

Irreversible cell damage

A

Necrosis

281
Q

Which is more vulnerable in cellular degeneration, parenchymal cells or stromal cells

A

Parenchymal cells

282
Q

Aging pigment in liver, heart, neurons
A. Lipofuschin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Bilirubin

A

A. Lipofuschin

283
Q

In lungs following congestive heart failure and called hemosiderosis when found in a number of tissues and organs
A. Lipofuschin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Bilirubin

A

B. Hemosiderin

284
Q

Jaundice
A. Lipofuschin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Bilirubin

A

C. Bilirubin

285
Q

Deposition of calcium and other minerals in injured disease
A. Dystrophic
B. Metastatic

A

A. Dystrophic

286
Q

Calcium deposition in normal tissues in hypercalcemic states
A. Dystrophic
B. Metastatic

A

B. Metastatic

287
Q

Antemortem pathologic cell death
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Autolysis

A

A. Necrosis

288
Q

Antemortem programmed cell death
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Autolysis

A

B. Apoptosis

289
Q

Postmortem cell death
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Autolysis

A

C. Autolysis

290
Q

Cell shrinkage
Chromatin condensation
Formation of cytoplasmic blebs and apoptotic bodies
Phagocytosis

A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis

A

A. Apoptosis

291
Q

Process which spontaneously arrests flow of blood from vessels carrying blood under pressure

A

Hemostasis

292
Q

Involves vasoconstriction, adhesion & aggregation of formed elements (e.g. Platelets), & blood coagulation

A

Hemostasis

293
Q

Process resulting in formation of insoluble fibrin clot from fibrinogen in plasma

A

Blood coagulation

294
Q

Involves blood coagulation factors (endogenous substances, usually proteins)

Occurrence determined by balance of procoagulant & anticoagulant factors

A

Blood coagulation

295
Q

Converts prothrombin(factor II) into thrombin (factor IIa)

A

Factor Xa

296
Q

Converts fibrinogen into fibrin and factor XIII into factor IIIa

A

Thrombin

297
Q

A transglutaminase; stabilizes fibrin by catalyzing formation of covalent cross-links

A

Factor XIIIa

298
Q

Activated by contact with certain surfaces e.g. Collagen, with which plasma can come into contact following endothelial damage
A. Intrinsic pathways
B. Extrinsic pathways

A

A. Intrinsic pathways

299
Q

Activated by tissue factor (tissue thromboplastin), a lipoprotein released by injured tissues in response to trauma
A. Intrinsic pathways
B. Extrinsic pathways

A

B. Extrinsic pathways

300
Q

Converts plasminogen into plasmin (selectively acting on plasminogen physically associated with fibrin)

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

301
Q

Blood clot formed within intravascular space during life

A

Thrombus

302
Q

Portion of material distinct from blood, carried by bloodstream from one site of body to another

A

Embolus

303
Q

Stasis (sluggish blood flow; may be due to hyperviscosity, e.g. Resulting from polycythemia)

A

Virchow’s triad

304
Q

Hypercoagulability of blood (due to imbalance between procoagulant & anticoagulant plasma factors)

A

Virchow’s triad

305
Q
Thrombolytic, most useful if given before fibrin cross-links are formed
A. TPA
B. Heparin
C. Heparan
D. Warfarin
A

A. tPA

306
Q
Given intravenously for rapid anticoagulation to prevent thrombosis
A. TPA
B. Heparin
C. Heparan
D. Warfarin
A

B. Heparin

307
Q
Given orally for long-term anticoagulation to prevent thrombosis
A. TPA
B. Heparin
C. Heparan
D. Warfarin
A

D. Warfarin

308
Q
Anticoagulant glycosaminoglycan
A. TPA
B. Heparin
C. Heparan
D. Warfarin
A

B. Heparin

309
Q
Binds plasma protein antithrombin, inducing conformational change that enhances inhibitory effect against thrombin & factor Xa
A. TPA
B. Heparin
C. Heparan
D. Warfarin
A

B. Heparin

310
Q

Vitamin K antagonists blocks synthesis of functional vitamin K-dependent factors ___, ___, ___ & ___

A

II, VII, IX & X

311
Q
Inhibits posttranslational conversion of glutamate to gamma-carboxyglutamate (for calcium-mediated binding to membrane surfaces)
A. TPA
B. Heparin
C. Heparan
D. Warfarin
A

D. Warfarin

312
Q

Restores capacity for synthesis of functional factors

A

Vitamin K

313
Q

Potentially harmful agent that may cause/induce damage
A. Danger
B. Damage
C. Disease

A

A. Danger

314
Q

Disruption of normal structure/function
A. Danger
B. Damage
C. Disease

A

B. Damage

315
Q

Clinical manifestation of damage beyond some threshold
A. Danger
B. Damage
C. Disease

A

C. Disease

316
Q

Unresponsiveness to certain agents
A. Tolerance
B. Immunity

A

A. Tolerance

317
Q

Resistance to harmful effects of disease causing agents
A. Tolerance
B. Immunity

A

B. Immunity

318
Q

Mediated by soluble substances in body fluids (e.g. Proteins in plasma or serum)
A. Humoral immunity
B. Cellular immunity

A

A. Humoral immunity

319
Q

Mediated by living cells e.g. Phagocytes
A. Humoral immunity
B. Cellular immunity

A

B. Cellular immunity

320
Q

Handwired into genome, develops automatically e.g. via interaction with microbiome; analogous to reflex
A. Innate immunity
B. Adaptive immunity

A

A. Innate immunity

321
Q

Customized via changes in genome of lymphocytes, response to exposure to specific molecules; analogous to memory
A. Innate immunity
B. Adaptive immunity

A

B. Adaptive immunity

322
Q

Agent with potential to be recognized by component/s of immune system
A. Antigen
B. Antibody

A

A. Antigen

323
Q

Secreted/soluble form of immunoglobulin (Ig: antigen-binding protein, directly recognizes antigen; Ig superfamily [IgSF] member, with Ig domain as basic structural unit)
A. Antigen
B. Antibody

A

B. Antibody

324
Q

Antigen body structure

A

Y-shaped molecule: 2 arms (antigen binding) + 1 trunk

325
Q

Antigen body structure

A

Composed of 4 polypeptide chains (2 heavy + 2 light chains), all containing immunoglobulin domains

326
Q

Antigen binding arm is composed of

A

1 light chain + part of 1 heavy chain

327
Q

What determines antibody class (characterized by structure and functional roles)?

A

Constant region of heavy chain

328
Q
First to appear in response to first exposure to an antigen
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
A

A. IgM

329
Q
Majority of circulating antibody, can cross placental barrier
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
A

B. IgG

330
Q
Majority of secreted antibody (in mucosal secretions, colostrum)
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
A

C. IgA

331
Q
Involved in immunity to parasitic helminthsband in some forms of allergy
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
A

D. IgE

332
Q

Part of antigen molecule actually recognized by component of immune system
A. Epitope
B. Paratope

A

A. Epitope

333
Q

Part of antibody molecule directly involved in binding to epitope
A. Epitope
B. Paratope

A

B. Paratope

334
Q

Activated by some immunevcomplexes of IgM ang IgG
A. Classical
B. Mannan-binding lectin
C. Alternative

A

A. Classical

335
Q

Activated by mannose-bearingbforeign surfaces

A

B. Mannan-binding lectin

336
Q

Activated by various foreign surfaces and also by other already-activated complement pathways
A. Classical
B. Mannan-binding lectin
C. Alternative

A

C. Alternative

337
Q

Limits growth of other microbres in the mucous membrane
A. Normal flora
B. Mucus
C. Cilia

A

A. Normal flora

338
Q

Entraps microbes
A. Normal flora
B. Mucus
C. Cilia

A

B. Mucus

339
Q

Propel microbes out of body
A. Normal flora
B. Mucus
C. Cilia

A

C. Cilia

340
Q

Digests bacterial cellwall

A

Lysozyme

341
Q

Non-antibody proteins, regulate immune function e.g. as paracrine orvautocrine signals; interferon from infected cell induces antiviral state in neighboring cells
A. Cytokines
B. Chemokines

A

A. Cytokines

342
Q

Attract WBCs and also promote adhesion of WBCs to endothelium
A. Cytokines
B. Chemokines

A

B. Chemokines

343
Q

Membrane bound receptors that recognize commonly encountered pathogen associated molecular patterns

A

Toll-like receptors

344
Q

Recognizes viral dsRNA
A. TLR-3
B. TLR-4

A

A. TLR-3

345
Q

Recognizes LPS i.e. lipopolysaccharide/endotoxin from gram-negative bacteria
A. TLR-3
B. TLR-4

A

B. TLR-4

346
Q

Internalization of molecules by various cell types via invagination of plasma membrane
A. Endocytosis
B. Phagocytosis

A

A. Endocytosis

347
Q

Endocytosis of particulate matter by specialized cells known as phagocytes e.g. Neutrophil, monocyte, macrophage

A

Phagocytosis

348
Q

Coating with substances that increase susceptibility to phagocytosis

A

Opsonization

349
Q

Inactivate/delete before cell matures e.g. to avoid autoimmunity due to potentially autoreactives/self-reactive cell
A. Negative clonal selection
B. Positive clonal selection

A

A. Negative clonal selection

350
Q

Activate/expand, typically after cell matures e.g. to provide enough cells for effective response against specific target
A. Negative clonal selection
B. Positive clonal selection

A

B. Positive clonal selection

351
Q

Means to obtain lymphocyte populations as needed

A

Clonal selection

352
Q

How B cells differentiate into plasma cells

A

By secreting antibody and memory cells for future responses

353
Q

Mostly develop in bone marrow
A. B cells
B. T cells

A

A. B cells

354
Q

Recognize antigen by means of B-cell receptor (BCR) containing membrane-bound immuniglobulin
A. B cells
B. T cells

A

A. B cells

355
Q

Can differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibody
A. B cells
B. T cells

A

A. B cells

356
Q

Mostly develop in thymus
A. B cells
B. T cells

A

B. T cells

357
Q

Recognize antigen using Fab-like TCR
A. B cells
B. T cells

A

B. T cells

358
Q

Effector T cells have effector function: cytotoxic (killing abnormal cells) or helper (coordinating responses, eg helping B cells to produce antibody)
A. B cells
B. T cells

A

B. T cells

359
Q

Regulate effector T cells

A

Treg cells

360
Q

May recognize and kill cells expressing specific antigens via apoptosis

A

T cytotoxic cells

361
Q

Typically CD8+ T cells (using CD8 as coreceptor for antigen recognition)

A

T cytotoxic cells

362
Q

Typically CD4+ T cells (expressing CD4 protein as a coreceptor for antigen recognition)

A

T helper cells

363
Q

May recognize antigen presented by specialized antigen-presenting cells

A

T helper cells

364
Q

Coordinate immune responses to recognize antigens e.g. helping by cytokine secretion

A

T helper cells

365
Q

Process antigen intracellularly
A. APC (antigen presenting cells)
B. MHC molecules

A

A. APC (antigen presenting cells)

366
Q

Present processed antigen using antigen presenting molecules on extracellular surface of plasma membrane, provide costimulatory (danger) signals
A. APC (antigen presenting cells)
B. MHC molecules

A

A. APC (antigen presenting cells)

367
Q

Protein products of genes within major histocompatibility complex
A. APC (antigen presenting cells)
B. MHC molecules

A

B. MHC molecules

368
Q

Present peptidefragments of endogenous protein antigens synthesized within APC
A. Class I MHC molecules
B. Class II MHC molecules

A

A. Class I MHC molecules

369
Q

Found on most nucleated cells
A. Class I MHC molecules
B. Class II MHC molecules

A

A. Class I MHC molecules

370
Q

Enable recognition of antigens by T cytotoxic cells e.g. For killing of virus infected cells
A. Class I MHC molecules
B. Class II MHC molecules

A

A. Class I MHC molecules

371
Q

Present peptide fragmentsbof exogenous protein antigens internalized by APC
A. Class I MHC molecules
B. Class II MHC molecules

A

B. Class II MHC molecules

372
Q

Found mainly on professional APCs (dendritic cell, macrophage, B cell)
A. Class I MHC molecules
B. Class II MHC molecules

A

B. Class II MHC molecules

373
Q

Enable recognition of antigens by T helper cells
A. Class I MHC molecules
B. Class II MHC molecules

A

B. Class II MHC molecules

374
Q

Presentation of epitope/s from extracellular antigens together with class I MHC instead of class II MHC

A

Cross-presentation

375
Q

Observed only in some APCs, especially dendritic cell

A

Cross-presentation

376
Q

Enables cytotoxic T cell activation vs virus when APC is uninfected and vs tumor/cancer

A

Cross-presentation

377
Q

Recognize antigen via BCR

A

B cell function

378
Q

Activated by antigen, typically with stimulation from CD4+ T helper cell

A

B cell function

379
Q

Activate B cells without T cell help

A

Thymus-independent antigens

380
Q

Typically induce limited response (with onlynIgM produced, without further changes in antibody genes, without immunologic memory)

A

Thymus-independent antigens

381
Q

Classified as TI-1 or TI-2 antigens

A

Thymus-independent antigens

382
Q

Typically polyclonal B-cell activators (mitogens that nonselectively induce proliferation of B cells in general))

A

TI-1 antigens

383
Q

Highly repetitious molecules, selectively active mature B cells bearing antigen-specific BCR

A

TI-2 antigens

384
Q

TI-2 antigens activate B cells thru extensive __________ by antigen

A

Cross-linking of BCRs

385
Q

Activate B cells with T cell help

A

Thymus-dependent antigens

386
Q

Typically induce response with class switching, affinity maturation and genertion of memory B-cells

A

Thymus-dependent antigens

387
Q

May be direct consequence of antigen binding by antibody

A

Antibody-mediated immunity

388
Q

May involve effector mechanisms activated as a consequence of antigen binding by antibody

A

Antibody-mediated immunity

389
Q

Directs degradation of virus by ubiquitin-proteosome system

A

TRIM21

390
Q

Disorders that may results from Th17 dysregulation

A

Autoimmune inflammatory

391
Q

For prevention or treatment of (non)infectious disease: ideally for protective immunity without adverse reactions (e.g. Autoimmunity)

A

Vaccines

392
Q

Stimulation of immune response e.g. For prophylaxis against disease-causing microbes and toxins

A

Immunization

393
Q

Exposure to antigen eliciting endogenous immune response
A. Active immunization
B. Passive immunization

A

A. Active immunization

394
Q

Transfer of immune factors from exogenous source
A. Active immunization
B. Passive immunization

A

B. Passive immunization

395
Q

Results from actual infection or noninfectious exposure to antigen
A. Active immunization
B. Passive immunization

A

A. Active immunization

396
Q

Produces immunologic memory for future response to antigen
A. Active immunization
B. Passive immunization

A

A. Active immunization

397
Q

Principle behind vaccination using antigen-containing vaccines
A. Active immunization
B. Passive immunization

A

A. Active immunization

398
Q

Immune factors transferred from donor to recipient, exemplified by antibody transfer
A. Active immunization
B. Passive immunization

A

B. Passive immunization

399
Q

Rapid-onset immunity feasible without immunologic memory
A. Active immunization
B. Passive immunization

A

B. Passive immunization

400
Q

ABO blood groups is defined by presence or absence of _________ resembling certain antigens of normal gut flora

A

Oligosaccharide moieties known as A & B antigens

401
Q

Lack of antigen typically leads to production of ____ that can bind the missing antigen

A

IgM

402
Q

Rh blood groups is defined by presence or absence of

A

RhD antigen aka Rh antigen

403
Q

Delivers nutrients and wastes, O2 and CO2 to and from cells

A

Blood

404
Q

Blood composition by volume

A

55% plasma

45% formed elements (1% WBC platelets, 44% RBC)

405
Q

Blood composition by absolute cell count

A
RBC = 5x 10^12 /L
Platelets = 150-450 x 10^9 /L
WBC = 5x 10^9 /L
406
Q

Erythrocytes aka

A

RBC

407
Q

Platelets aka

A

Thrombocytes

408
Q

Leukocytes aka

A

WBC

409
Q

Most abundant granulocytes

A

Neutrophil

410
Q

Least abundant granulocytes

A

Basophil

411
Q

Biconcave disc; pliable + resilient

A

RBC

412
Q

Long filaments forming networks

A

Spectrin

413
Q

Short filaments connect ends of spectrin

A

Actin

414
Q

Links spectrin-actin network to integral proteins of PM

A

Ankyrin

415
Q

ABO antigens differ in the __________ attached to the basic glycoprotein

A

Extra sugar

416
Q

Rh incompatibility

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn, only in second borns

Negative Rh pregnant mother, positive Rh child

417
Q

Anucleate biconvex disc

A

Platelets

418
Q

Minute (2-3 micrometer)

A

Platelets

419
Q

Nucleated, contains azurophilic granules

A

Leukocytes (WBC)

420
Q

Platelet factor IV

A

Counteracts heparin

421
Q

Adhesion / plt aggreg

A

Thrombospondin

422
Q

Plasma clotting factors

A

Fibrin

423
Q
WBC differential count
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
A
Neutrophils - 60-70%
Lymphocytes - 20-30%
Monocytes - 3-8%
Eosinophils - 2-4%
Basophils - 0-1%
424
Q

10-12 micrometers, highly mobile/phagocytic vs. bacteri

A

Neutrophils

425
Q

12-14 micrometers, numerous in connective tissue beneath resp/dig mucosa

A

Eusinophils

426
Q

Stays in blood 8 hrs, tissues 1-2 days, selfvdestruct

A

Neutrophils

427
Q

Stays in blood for only few hours (6-10), into CTbfor 8-12 days

A

Eosinophils

428
Q

Large, bright pink-red specific granules obscuring;

Bilobed nucleus

A

Eosinophil

429
Q

8-10 microns;
Few but large, coarse, dark blue specific granules, obscured bilobed nucleus;
Allergic response

A

Basophil

430
Q

Major mediator in allergy

A

Histamine

431
Q

Respinsible for metachromasia

A

Heparin

432
Q

Recirculating, most long lived

A

Lymphocytes

433
Q

Smallest WBC, ranges from 7-12 micrometers

A

Lymphocytes

434
Q

Mod. Condensed chromatin, many ribosomes, no specific granules but few small azurophilic granules

A

Lymphocytes

435
Q

Largest 17-20 micrometers

A

Monocytes

436
Q

Eccentric, pale stg, bean-shaped nucleus

A

Monocytes

437
Q

Less condensed chromatin;

Few small mod. dense azur. Gran.

A

Monocytes

438
Q

=”big eater”
“Housekeeping” - ingestion/ phagocytosis of senescent cells/ cellular debris in normal tissue;
Antigen presenting cell

A

Macrophage

439
Q

Plasma composition

A

90% water
7% proteins
Rest are gases, electrolytes, nutrients, hormones

440
Q

Maintain colloid osmotic pressure; transport insoluble metabolites
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Plasma lipoprotein

A

A. Albumin

441
Q

Transport metal ions, protein-bound lipids, lipid soluble vitamins
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Plasma lipoprotein

A

B. Globulin

442
Q

Transport of triglycerides and cholesterol to/from the liver
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Plasma lipoprotein

A

C. Plasma lipoprotein

443
Q

Process by which mature blood cells develop from precursor cells in BM

A

Hemopoiesis

444
Q

Site of hemopoiesis at birth

A

Bone marrow

445
Q

Common, looks like PHSC but (+) lineage - specific cell surface markers, highly mitotic, self-renewing

A

Progenitor cell

446
Q

Common, unipotential, fast dividing, non-self renewing, morphologically distinct

A

Precursor cell

447
Q

Cell size decrease
nuclear size decrease and lobulated
nuclei + euchromatin disappear or decrease
cytoplasm decrease in basophilia

A

Changes during hemopoeisis

448
Q

Erythropoiesis changes

A

Cell smaller
Organelles lost
Nucleus smaller/darker

449
Q

12-15 micrometer
Mildly basophilic cytoplasm
Large round nucleus with 1-2 nucleoli

A

Proerythroblast

450
Q

Smaller, darker nucleus (w/ more heterochromatin) and no nucleoli

A

Basophilic erythroblast

451
Q

Last cell capable of mitosis
Hb production begins
Cytoplasm gray or dull lilac

A

Polychromatophilic erythroblast

452
Q

Eosinophilic
Biconcave disk
7-8 micrometer

A

RBC

453
Q
Decrease in cell size
Decrease in nuclear size and shape
Condensation of chromatin
Nucleoli decrease in number then disappear
Azurophilic granules first to appear
Specific granules first to appear
Increasing eosinophilia of cytoplasm
A

Granulopoiesis

454
Q

14-20 micrometer
Large euchromatic spherical nucleus + 3-5 nuclei
(-) granules
Resembles proerythroblast but smaller and less blue cytoplasm

A

Myeloblast

455
Q
Azurophilic granules produced in this stage only
Nucleus indented
Nucleoli
Increased size 18-24 micrometer
Chromatin condenses
A

Promyelocyte

456
Q

Last cell capable of mitosis

A

Myelocyte

457
Q

Deeply indented nucleus

A

Metamyelocyte

458
Q

Cell becomes bigger - 50 micrometer
Nucleus becomes bigger/multilobed/polypoid
Cytoplasmic granules increase
Increased membranes (=platelet demarcation membranes)
Cytoplasm becomes less basophilic

A

Megakaryopoiesis

459
Q

Produced by kidney in response to decreased tissue oxygen

A

Erythropoeitin

460
Q

Induce other cells to produce CSF’s (colony stimulating factors)

A

Interleukins

461
Q
Decrease in cell size
Decrease in nuclear size and shape
Condensation of chromatin
Nucleoli decrease in number then disappear
Azurophilic granules first to appear
Specific granules first to appear
Increasing eosinophilia of cytoplasm
A

Granulopoiesis

462
Q

14-20 micrometer
Large euchromatic spherical nucleus + 3-5 nuclei
(-) granules
Resembles proerythroblast but smaller and less blue cytoplasm

A

Myeloblast

463
Q
Azurophilic granules produced in this stage only
Nucleus indented
Nucleoli
Increased size 18-24 micrometer
Chromatin condenses
A

Promyelocyte

464
Q

Last cell capable of mitosis

A

Myelocyte

465
Q

Deeply indented nucleus

A

Metamyelocyte

466
Q

Cell becomes bigger - 50 micrometer
Nucleus becomes bigger/multilobed/polypoid
Cytoplasmic granules increase
Increased membranes (=platelet demarcation membranes)
Cytoplasm becomes less basophilic

A

Megakaryopoiesis

467
Q

Produced by kidney in response to decreased tissue oxygen

A

Erythropoeitin

468
Q

Induce other cells to produce CSF’s (colony stimulating factors)

A

Interleukins

469
Q
Decrease in cell size
Decrease in nuclear size and shape
Condensation of chromatin
Nucleoli decrease in number then disappear
Azurophilic granules first to appear
Specific granules first to appear
Increasing eosinophilia of cytoplasm
A

Granulopoiesis

470
Q

14-20 micrometer
Large euchromatic spherical nucleus + 3-5 nuclei
(-) granules
Resembles proerythroblast but smaller and less blue cytoplasm

A

Myeloblast

471
Q
Azurophilic granules produced in this stage only
Nucleus indented
Nucleoli
Increased size 18-24 micrometer
Chromatin condenses
A

Promyelocyte

472
Q

Last cell capable of mitosis

A

Myelocyte

473
Q

Deeply indented nucleus

A

Metamyelocyte

474
Q

Cell becomes bigger - 50 micrometer
Nucleus becomes bigger/multilobed/polypoid
Cytoplasmic granules increase
Increased membranes (=platelet demarcation membranes)
Cytoplasm becomes less basophilic

A

Megakaryopoiesis

475
Q

Produced by kidney in response to decreased tissue oxygen

A

Erythropoeitin

476
Q

Induce other cells to produce CSF’s (colony stimulating factors)

A

Interleukins

477
Q

What are the polar amino acids

A
Ser
Cys
Tyr
Thr
Gln
Asn
478
Q

What are the acidic amino acids

A

Asp

Glu

479
Q

What are the basic amino acids

A

Lys
His
Arg