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OS 201 [2019 exams] > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following noncovalent interactions occur between all types of molecules
    a) Van der Waals Repulsion
    b) Van der Waals Attraction
    c) H-bonding
    d) All of the above
    e) A and B Only
A

e) A and B Only

H-bonding is only found in compounds that have hydrogen covalently bonded to an electronegative atom (F, O, N). Not all types of molecules fit into this criterion, e.g., hydrocarbons.

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2
Q

Which among the following is a chiral carbon? (Various structures shown)

A

Find the compound with a carbon that is connected to FOUR DIFFERENT GROUPS, e.g.

In this structure, the chiral carbon (the one in the middle of the cross) is bonded to four different groups: –H, –Cl, –CH3 (methyl), and –CH2CH3 (ethyl). Therefore, it is a chiral molecule.

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3
Q

What is the shape when carbon bonds with four functional groups?

a) Planar
b) Linear
c) Tetrahedral

A

c) Tetrahedral

The shape when carbon is bonded to three groups is trigonal planar. The tetrahedral shape accounts for the presence of chiral compounds.

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4
Q

Which functional group is capable of accepting and donating a hydrogen?

a) Hydroxyl Group
b) Benzene Ring
c) Methyl Group
d) Alkene Group

A

a) Hydroxyl Group

The hydroxyl group (–OH) can be both H-bond donor and acceptor because the O can accept H from other moieties, while the H can be donated to an electronegative atom of another moiety.

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5
Q

Which functional group is protonated at neutral pH?

a) Carboxyl Group
b) Amino Group
c) Hydroxyl Group
d) Sulfhydryl Group

A

b) Amino Group

Basic groups are protonated at neutral pH, whereas acidic groups are DEprotonated at said pH.

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6
Q 
L-Alanine and D-Alanine
A.	Functional Isomers
B.	Positional Isomers
C.	Enantiomers
D.	Diastereomers
E.	Tautomers
A

C. Enantiomers

Skeletal/Chain isomers - different arrangement of carbon atoms in C4H10
Positional isomers - functional groups differ in location
Functional isomers - same molecular formula but have different functional groups
Tautomers - special type of structural isomer; two functional isomers that are rapidly interconvertible; keto-enol tautonerism
Stereoisomers - exact same pairing of covalently bonded atoms; differ in relative orientations of covalent bonds in space; enantionmers & diastereomers
Enantionmers - mirror image; cannot be superimposed
Diastereomers - presence of a double bond (cis-trans isomers); different shape (conformational isomers)

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7
Q 
Keto-enol form
A.	Functional Isomers
B.	Positional Isomers
C.	Enantiomers
D.	Diastereomers
E.	Tautomers
A

E. Tautomers

Skeletal/Chain isomers - different arrangement of carbon atoms in C4H10
Positional isomers - functional groups differ in location
Functional isomers - same molecular formula but have different functional groups
Tautomers - special type of structural isomer; two functional isomers that are rapidly interconvertible; keto-enol tautonerism
Stereoisomers - exact same pairing of covalently bonded atoms; differ in relative orientations of covalent bonds in space; enantionmers & diastereomers
Enantionmers - mirror image; cannot be superimposed
Diastereomers - presence of a double bond (cis-trans isomers); different shape (conformational isomers)

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8
Q 
Ethanol and Dimethylether (stuctures shown)
A.	Functional Isomers
B.	Positional Isomers
C.	Enantiomers
D.	Diastereomers
E.	Tautomers
A

A. Functional Isomers

Skeletal/Chain isomers - different arrangement of carbon atoms in C4H10
Positional isomers - functional groups differ in location
Functional isomers - same molecular formula but have different functional groups
Tautomers - special type of structural isomer; two functional isomers that are rapidly interconvertible; keto-enol tautonerism
Stereoisomers - exact same pairing of covalently bonded atoms; differ in relative orientations of covalent bonds in space; enantionmers & diastereomers
Enantionmers - mirror image; cannot be superimposed
Diastereomers - presence of a double bond (cis-trans isomers); different shape (conformational isomers)

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9
Q

Which is the most hydrophobic?

a) Triacylglycerol
b) Lysine
c) D-Glucose
d) Glutamic acid

A

a) Triacylglycerol

Lys and Glu are polar, charged amino acids; therefore, they are hydrophilic. D-Glucose is a very polar and hydrophilic molecule because of the numerous –OH groups

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10
Q

Which of the following molecules would most likely participate in the formation of a lipid bilayer?

a) Triacylglycerol
b) Phospholipid
c) Palmitic Acid
d) All of them are equally likely to form a lipid bilayer

A

b) Phospholipid

TAGs will most likely form aggregates and globs. Fatty acids, such as palmitic acid, will usually form monolayers or micelles.

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11
Q

Hormones like insulin are commonly secreted via vesicular transport. Which of the following is most relevant in this case?

a) Micelle
b) Monolayer
c) Bilayer
d) A and C

A

c) Bilayer

Strictly speaking, vesicular transport requires vesicles, which are bilayers.

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12
Q

match the monomer with the biopolymer it builds.

Amino Acid:
A. Amino Acid
B. mRNA
C. Polypeptide Chain

A

C. Polypeptide Chain

Amino acid- building blocks of polypeptides (proteins)
Nucleotides- building blocks for nucleic acids ( RNA & DNA); energy currency is ATP

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13
Q

match the monomer with the biopolymer it builds.

Nucleotides:
A. Amino Acid
B. mRNA
C. Polypeptide Chain

A

B. mRNA

Amino acid- building blocks of polypeptides (proteins)
Nucleotides- building blocks for nucleic acids ( RNA & DNA); energy currency is ATP

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14
Q 
Which component confers isomerism? 
A.	α-Carbon
B.	Hydrogen
C.	–NH2
D.	–COOH
E.	R Group
A

A. α-Carbon

The chiral center lends asymmetry to a molecule. In general, the chiral center of an amino acid is the α-carbon.

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15
Q 
Which component of AA is protonated at pH=7? 
A.	α-Carbon
B.	Hydrogen
C.	–NH2
D.	–COOH
E.	R Group
A

C. –NH2

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16
Q 
Basis for classification of Amino Acid:
A.	α-Carbon
B.	Hydrogen
C.	–NH2
D.	–COOH
E.	R Group
A

E. R Group

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17
Q

Which of these form disulfide bonds?

a) Cysteine
b) Proline
c) Cystine

A

a) Cysteine

You need sulfhydryls (–SH) to form disulfide bonds. Pro does not contain sulfur atoms in its backbone. You call two cysteines that form a disulfide bond a cystine.

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18
Q

Which amino acid fuses to form desmosine in elastin?

a) Lysine
b) Glutamine
c) Alanine
d) Proline

A

a) Lysine

Desmosine is formed from the condensation reaction of four Lys residues

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19
Q

Which confers structural stability in polypeptides?

a) Serine
b) Isoleucine
c) Methionine
d) Proline

A

d) Proline

Remember: the ring bestows stability, and the ring is with Pro-do.

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20
Q

Which of the following are the most important determinants of the electrophoretic mobility of amino acids?

a) Temperature and pressure
b) Buffer concentration and net charge
c) Net charge and molecular weight
d) Molecular weight and buffer concentration

A

c) Net charge and molecular weight

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21
Q

What is false about beta keratin?

a) Assumes beta pleated sheet zig zag configuration
b) All hydrogen bonds are interchain rather than intrachain
c) Flexible, non-stretchable and insoluble in water
d) Oriented in parallel direction for stability

A

d) Oriented in parallel direction for stability

Anti-parallel direction is MORE stable than parallel direction in β-keratin because the latter experiences more crooked and weaker H-bonds.

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22
Q

Which of the following is not true about collagen?

a) High tensile strength and non-stretchable
b) Left handed strands that are tightly intertwined
c) Abundance of proline and hydroxyproline
d) Contains a lot of lysine, forming desmosine

A

d) Contains a lot of lysine, forming desmosine

Collagen has a lot of Lys, but it DOES NOT form desmosine. Desmosine is found in elastin.

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23
Q

. Which molecule has a sigmoidal curve?

A

a) Hemoglobin

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24
Q

Which of the following releases oxygen during severe oxygen deprivation?

a) Myoglobin
b) Hemoglobin
c) Both
d) Neither

A

c) both

Not sure with this one, but the question did not say “ONLY during severe oxygen deprivation.” Hb and Mb will both release oxygen during severe hypoxia.

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25
Q

Which of the following sugars is an aldopentose?

a) Erythrose
b) Arabinose
c) Mannose
d) Ribose (Hindi ba ‘to Ribulose?)

A

b) Arabinose
d) Ribose (Hindi ba ‘to Ribulose?)

Sobrang trivia nitong question na’to! HAGGARD LANG! Erythrose and mannose are an aldotetrose and an aldohexose, respectively. BOTH ribose and arabinose are aldopentoses. However, kung ribulose yung choice d, arabinose ang answer because ribulose is a ketopentose

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26
Q

Why is glycogen the better choice as a storage polysaccharide in the animal body?

a) It is highly branched.
b) It forms a compact structure.
c) It allows large amounts of carbon energy to be stored in a small volume
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

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27
Q

What is the main structural difference between proteoglycans and glycoproteins?

a) The sugar moieties in proteoglycans do not form glycosidic bonds.
b) N-glycosidic bonds are only present in glycoproteins
c) The protein part serves as an anchor to the plasma membrane
d) There are more protein than sugar units in glycoproteins than in proteoglycans.

A

d) There are more protein than sugar units in glycoproteins than in proteoglycans.
Think of it this way: kung ano ang nasa huli, yun yung mas marami. So mas maraming proteins sa glycoPROTEINS.

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28
Q

Main storage form for humans
A. Glucose Structure
B. Triacylglycerol
C. Polypeptide sequence

A

B. Triacylglycerol

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29
Q

Most readily accessible
A. Glucose Structure
B. Triacylglycerol
C. Polypeptide sequence

A

A. Glucose Structure

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30
Q

Conjugates with other two
A. Glucose Structure
B. Triacylglycerol
C. Polypeptide sequence

A

C. Polypeptide sequence

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31
Q

Which of the following fatty acids has the lowest melting point?

a) C20:4; Δ5, 8, 11, 14
b) C18:2; Δ9, 14
c) C18:1; Δ9
d) C16:0

A

a) C20:4; Δ5, 8, 11, 14

Trivia ulit to.

32
Q 
Palmitic Acid:
A.	18:0
B.	18:2
C.	20:4
D.	18:1
A

A. 18:0

Palmitic acid is C16:0, whereas stearic acid is C18:0.

33
Q 
Linoleic Acid: 
A.	18:0
B.	18:2
C.	20:4
D.	18:1
A

B. 18:2

34
Q 
Arachidonic Acid: 
A.	18:0
B.	18:2
C.	20:4
D.	18:1
A

C. 20:4

35
Q 
Oleic Acid:
A.	18:0
B.	18:2
C.	20:4
D.	18:1
A

D. 18:1

36
Q

Which is true about cholesterol?

a) Cholesterol is a normal compound of cell membrane, providing rigidity
b) LDL is important for development of atherosclerosis.
c) Bile allows secretion of cholesterol (?)
d) Cholesterol is (something) in boat conformation; stable structure

A

a) Cholesterol is a normal compound of cell membrane, providing rigidity

37
Q

Which of the following is a secosteroid?

a) Cortisol
b) Progesterone
c) Testosterone
d) Calcitriol

A

d) Calcitriol

Secosteroids are steroid compounds that have an open ring. Only calcitriol has an open ring.

38
Q

What hormone forms a hormone-receptor complex that acts directly on a DNA segment?

a) T3
b) Calcitrol
c) Estradiol

A

c) Estradiol

Usually, hydrophobic hormone-receptor complexes act directly on the DNA and nucleus.

39
Q

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?

a) Erucic Acid
b) Linoleic Acid
c) Oleic Acid
d) Palmitic Acid

A

b) Linoleic Acid

Linoleic acid is an Ω-6 FA.

40
Q

At baseline, C1=10 and C2=5. Using Fick’s law of Diffusion, what is the effect if C1 is reduced to half on flux?

a) More positive
b) Increase 3x
c) Decrease 3x
d) No movement

A

d) No movement

Fick’s law of diffusion:
Flux=(-D∙A)/x(C_in-C_out)
If C1 is reduced to half, C1 = 5, and C1 − C2 = 0.

41
Q

The main difference between facilitated and simple diffusion

a) Concentration gradient flow
b) Use of membrane proteins
c) Solute flow
d) Source of energy

A

b) Use of membrane proteins

Solute flow is still along concentration gradient and there is no need for a source of energy for transport.

42
Q

Which of the following does not display saturation (Michaelis-Meuten) kinetics?

a) Facilitated diffusion
b) Na-coupled active transport
c) Passive diffusion
d) Vesicular Transport

A

c) Passive diffusion
In passive diffusion, the solutes easily pass through the plasma membrane. Therefore, there is no need for proteins that can be saturated by solute molecules during transport.

43
Q

Diabetes insipidus is a condition where serum sodium is high. This is because

a) Transport against concentration gradient
b) Impaired exocytosis
c) No(?)/low ATP

A

b) Impaired exocytosis
DI sufferers pee a lot because of vasopressin problem, which leads to problems in vesicle formation. Remember that exocytosis requires vesicles.

44
Q

Digitalis, which inhibits Na-K ATPase pump, will result in decreased intracellular

a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium

A

c) Potassium
Na-K-ATPase pump exchanges three Na+ ions out of the cell for two K+ ions. If the pump is inhibited, sodium cannot exit and potassium cannot enter. Therefore, intacellular [K+] decreases.

45
Q

Which channel proteins are mediated through GPCR? [“…are mediated” ba talaga or “…are NOT mediated?”]

a) IP3-Ca2+ Release Channel
b) Na+ Activated K+ Channel
c) CAMP gated Na+ Channel
d) cGMP-activated Na+ Channel

A

a) cGMP-activated Na+ Channel
c) CAMP gated Na+ Channel
d) IP3-Ca2+ Release Channel

All except (b) are mediated by a GPCR. If “not mediated,” (b) ang sagot.

46
Q

The energy used to drive filtration across a semi-permeable membrane comes from

a) ATP
b) Hydrostatic Pressure
c) Kinetic Energy
d) Oncotic Pressure

A

d) Oncotic Pressure
Oncotic pressure is a form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. You need osmotic pressure for filtration through a semi-permeable membrane. Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at a point within the fluid due to the force of gravity.

47
Q

Which of the following is true regarding transepithelial transport?

a) Solute has higher concentration at the luminal side
b) Facilitated diffusion to the vessel
c) Primary active transport predominates at the luminal side
d) Secondary active transport drives Na+ to the vessel

A

b) Facilitated diffusion to the vessel

Facilitated diffusion of glucose from the enterocyte to the vessels occurs via GLUT2.

48
Q

Which is correct?

a) Central Pontine Myelinosis: Diffusion
b) Dapaglifozin: Active Transport
c) Glomerulonephritis: Facilitated Diffusion
d) Myasthenia Gravis: Passive Transport

A

b) Dapaglifozin: Active Transport

CPM: osmosis; glomerulonephritis: filtration; myasthenia gravis: endocytosis

49
Q

Which of the following is true regarding G protein activation?

a) Directly activates calcium channel through IP3
b) Indirectly activates sodium channel through DAG
c) Directly activates potassium channel, i.e. muscarinic Ach
d) Indirectly activates sodium channel, i.e. olfactory receptors

A

d) Indirectly activates sodium channel, i.e. olfactory receptors

50
Q

Example of enzyme-linked receptors include the following except

a) Insulin Receptor
b) ACTH Receptor
c) Growth Hormone Receptor
d) ANP Receptor

A

b) ACTH Receptor

ACTH receptor falls under GPCR, particularly the receptor involving adenylate cyclase.

51
Q

Which is/are involved in receptor activation? [Activation or inactivation?]

a) First messenger is metabolized by enzymes in the vicinity
b) GTPase breakdown of GTP to GDP in alpha subunit
c) Dephosphorylation of previously phosphorylated proteins by protein phosphatases
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

All the given choices are responsible for receptor INactivation.

52
Q

Heterotrimeric G-proteins can activate the following transmembrane protein except

a) Ion Channels
b) Guanylyl Cyclase
c) Adenylyl Cyclase
d) Phosphokinase C

A

d) Phosphokinase C

PKC is not a transmembrane protein.

53
Q

Example of receptor that has intrinsic enzyme activity includes the receptors of the hormones:

a) Fibroblast growth factor
b) ANP
c) Erythropoietin
d) Prolactin
e) AOTA

A

e) AOTA

54
Q

ACTH in Adrenal

a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) DAG
d) IP3

A

a)cAMP

55
Q

ANP

a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) DAG
d) IP3

A

b) cGMP

56
Q

Vasopressin

a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) DAG
d) IP3

A

c) DAG and d) IP3

57
Q

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a) Km has the same unit of measurement as substrate concentration
b) When affinity of the substrate to the enzyme is increased, Km is also increased
c) When Km is increased, substrate concentration required to occupy all binding sites is also increased
d) A & B

A

b) When affinity of the substrate to the enzyme is increased, Km is also increased

The value of KM should decrease as the affinity increases.

58
Q

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a) All coenzymes are cofactors
b) Coenzymes are typically derived from minerals
c) Coenzymes are typically derived from vitamins
d) Both A and C

A

b) Coenzymes are typically derived from minerals

Coenzymes are organic molecules derived from vitamins. These compounds are kinds of cofactor.

59
Q

. Which of the following are incorrect?

a) Competitive and noncompetitive inhibition are reversible
b) Competitive inhibition can be reversed by an increase in substrate
c) Reversible inhibition contains covalent bonds
d) B and C

A

c) Reversible inhibition contains covalent bonds

Irreversible inhibitions occur when there is covalent modification of the enzyme.

60
Q

Which is/are incorrect?

a) Strong acids and bases tend to inactivate enzymes
b) Refrigeration tends to inactivate enzymes more than heating
c) Extreme heat tends to inactivate enzymes
d) A & C

A

b) Refrigeration tends to inactivate enzymes more than heating

Extreme changes in pH and temperature deactivate enzymes because these molecules become denatured.

61
Q

Which one(s) is/are incorrect?

a) Competitive Inhibition entails an increase in Km
b) Noncompetitive Inhibitor is a structural analog
c) Noncompetitive inhibitor binds to an active site
d) B and C

A

d) B and C

62
Q

Which of the following is correct? [Correct ba ‘to or incorrect?]

a) Tetrahydrofolate typically functions as an electron carrier in redox.
b) Pyridoxal Phosphate typically functions as a carrier for methyl groups
c) Thiamine Pyrophosphate typically functions as a carrier for methyl, methylene, formyl and formimino groups
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above
If the question is “incorrect,” the answer is (d). THF is a one-carbon group carrier. Pyridoxal phosphate is an amino group carrier in aminotransferase. TPP is a two-carbon group carrier.

63
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) All racemases are isomerases
b) Racemases catalyze interconversion of enantiomers
c) Interconversion of epimers is catalyzed by a mutase
d) A and B

A

c) Interconversion of epimers is catalyzed by a mutase

Epimer interconversion is catalyzed by epimerases.

64
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about trypsin:

a) Secreted in a catalytically inactive form
b) Exhibits optimum activity at normal gastric pH
c) Contains a catalytic triad with a serine residue
d) A and C

A

b) Exhibits optimum activity at normal gastric pH

The optimum pH of trypsin is 7.5–8.5. It is secreted as trypsinogen, which is the inactive form. The catalytic site of trypsin involves a triad composed of Asp, His, and Ser.

65
Q

Which of the following is incorrect

a) Cyanide interferes with biological redox reactions mainly via binding to flavin-based cofactors
b) Examples of oxidoreductases include dehydrogenase, oxidase, and peroxidase
c) Heme occurs as prosthetic group in hemoglobin, myoglobin, cytochromes
d) A & C

A

a) Cyanide interferes with biological redox reactions mainly via binding to flavin-based cofactors

Cyanide coordinates with the iron in the heme, not with flavin-based cofactors.

66
Q

Which statement about Delta G° is correct when (something) equilibrium?

a) Delta G° is equal to the heat produced
b) Delta G° is equal to the activation energy
c) Delta G° is proportional to the concentration of enzyme
d) Delta G° is proportional to –log km (?)

A

d) Delta G° is proportional to –log km (?)
ΔG = ΔG° + 2.303RT log Q, when not in equilibrium. At equilibrium, ΔG = 0, and Q = Keq.
Therefore, ΔG° = −2.303RT log Keq when at equilibrium

67
Q

The direction of the reaction can be predicted from the following

a) Reactant concentration
b) Product concentration
c) Free energy value
d) Heat content

A

c) Free energy value

If the free energy (ΔG) is negative, the reaction as written proceeds spontaneously. Otherwise, the reverse reaction is spontaneous.

68
Q

What is indicative of spontaneous metabolic reactions?

a) High Enthalpy
b) Negative ΔG
c) Positive ΔG
d) Low entropy

A

b) Negative ΔG

69
Q

Which of the following is not true?

a) A reaction is at equilibrium when the free energy change is 0.
b) Free energy change is proportional to the product of the gas constant R and the absolute temperature of the system
c) A reaction may proceed spontaneously if the free energy is negative
d) A reaction which would otherwise not proceed can be made to proceed if it is coupled with another reaction for which the free energy change is negative

A

b) Free energy change is proportional to the product of the gas constant R and the absolute temperature of the system

70
Q

How are endergonic cellular reactions driven to completion inside the cell?

a) Increase the temperature
b) Couple with exergonic reaction
c) Increase enzyme concentration
d) Bind with ADP

A

b) Couple with exergonic reaction

71
Q

The following items explain why the free energy from ATP hydrolysis is large and negative, EXCEPT which statement

a) Resonance stabilization of the products of ATP hydrolysis
b) Electrostatic repulsion among the negatively charged oxygen atoms of the phosphates
c) Products of the ATP hydrolysis are better solvated than ATP
d) Hydrophobic interaction within the triphosphate causes cleavage of the phosphodiester bonds

A

d) Hydrophobic interaction within the triphosphate causes cleavage of the phosphodiester bonds

There are negligible hydrophobic interactions within the triphosphate

72
Q

Indicate whether conditions described below primarily exemplify the first or second law of thermodynamics.
A. First Law of Thermodynamics
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics

Eukaryotic cilia and flagella use ATP for generating mechanical work.

A

A. First Law of Thermodynamics

73
Q

Indicate whether conditions described below primarily exemplify the first or second law of thermodynamics.
A. First Law of Thermodynamics
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics

Many fungi, marine organisms, as well as fireflies are capable of generating bioluminescence which requires energy from ATP.

A

A. First Law of Thermodynamics

74
Q

Indicate whether conditions described below primarily exemplify the first or second law of thermodynamics.
A. First Law of Thermodynamics
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics

Living organisms constantly produce disorder in their surroundings as a necessary cost of maintaining their own order.

A

B. Second Law of Thermodynamics

75
Q

What will make a reaction spontaneous?

a) ΔG = 0
b) ΔG > 0
c) ΔG

A

c) ΔG

76
Q

A more negative oxidation reduction system will reduce a more positive system relative to the standard hydrogen electrode. THE most positive standard ox-red potential is exhibited by which of the following systems?

a) Cytochrome B System
b) Flavoprotein System
c) Molecular O2 System
d) NAD System

A

c) Molecular O2 System

The most positive redox potential is usually the last to receive electrons. Molecular O2 is the last e− acceptor in the ETC.

77
Q

Which of the following molecules cannot passively diffuse across a lipid bilayer of purely phospholipids

a) Ethanol
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Glucose
d) All of the above

A

c) Glucose

In order to diffuse through the cell membrane, a molecule should not be hydrophilic, i.e., it should be lipophilic. Glucose is highly hydrophilic and lipophobic.

OS 201 [2019 exams] (5 decks)

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