Free 100 Questions Flashcards
Miracle, exception, and scaling questions are strategies used by practitioners of: Select one: A. solution-focused therapy. B. interpersonal psychotherapy. C. motivational interviewing. D. reality therapy.
a. CORRECT A solution-focused therapist acts as a consultant/collaborator who poses questions aimed at identifying solutions to problems, including miracle, exception, and scaling questions.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the therapeutic strategies of all of the therapies listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Emelina E., age 4, has learned that, when she approaches her father while he is watching a football game on TV, her father ignores her, but when she approaches her father while he is watching any other type of TV show, he is willing to talk to and play with her. As a result, Emelina only approaches her father when he is not watching football. Emelina's behavior illustrates which of the following? Select one: A. stimulus fading B. shaping C. stimulus control D. pseudoconditioning
Emelina has learned that she will not be reinforced for approaching her father when he is watching a football game but will be reinforced if she approaches him when he is watching other types of TV shows.
a. Incorrect Stimulus fading refers to the gradual elimination of a discriminative stimulus. In this situation, the discriminative stimulus (type of TV show) is not being gradually eliminated.
b. Incorrect Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired behavior are reinforced.
c. CORRECT A behavior is “under stimulus control” when it is more likely to occur in the presence of certain stimuli than in the presence of other stimuli because the stimuli signal whether or not reinforcement for the behavior will be provided.
d. Incorrect Pseudoconditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response due to the accidental pairing of the stimulus with another stimulus that evokes that response or when repeated exposure to a US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a neutral stimulus with a response similar to the UR.
Which of the following techniques would be most useful for evaluating the impact of an intervention on patients' quality of life? Select one: A. cost-feasibility analysis B. cost-minimization analysis C. cost-utility analysis D. cost-benefit analysis
Cost analysis is conducted to determine the optimal allocation of financial resources. Experts distinguish between the four methods of cost analysis listed in the answers to this question. Additional information on these methods is provided in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Cost-feasibility analysis is used to determine the feasibility of an intervention based on the monetary and other resources it requires.
b. Incorrect As its name implies, cost-minimization analysis is conducted to identify the least costly option among several options that produces equivalent outcomes.
c. CORRECT A cost-utility analysis is conducted to compare the costs and patient outcomes of an intervention, with outcomes including patients’ duration and quality of life.
d. Incorrect As its name implies, a cost-benefit analysis is used to determine the relative costs and benefits of a particular intervention.
The "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon is believed to be due to which of the following? Select one: A. trace decay B. inadequate retrieval cues C. retroactive interference D. attention deficits
b. CORRECT One theory of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is that it is due to a lack of cues that would facilitate retrieving information that is stored in long-term memory.
Sleep patterns vary somewhat with age. For example, during the first few months of life, infants begin a sleep period with: Select one: A. REM sleep. B. Stage 2 sleep. C. Stage 3 sleep. D. Stage 4 sleep.
The sleep pattern of newborns is quite different from that of older children and adults.
a. CORRECT The four stages of non-REM sleep are relatively indistinguishable during the first few months of life. Also, in contrast to older children, adolescents, and adults, newborns begin a sleep period with REM sleep.
Research on the role of hormones on sexual arousal suggest that androgen:
Select one:
A. is responsible for arousal in females but not in males.
B. is responsible for arousal in males but not in females.
C. is responsible for arousal in males and females.
D. does not impact arousal in either females or males.
The effects of androgen on sexual arousal vary from individual to individual, but it does appear to have a positive impact for both men and women.
c. CORRECT For men, androgen affects sexual interest and arousal, at least up to a point. Beyond that point, the relationship tends to level off. For women, androgen is more effective than estrogen for restoring sexual arousal following menopause or removal of the sex organs.
Research on prejudice indicates that certain conditions can reduce intergroup hostilities. Which of the following conditions would be MOST effective for reducing racial prejudice displayed by groups of White and African American children?
Select one:
A. the children are required to cooperate in order to achieve a common goal
B. the children are confronted with a “common enemy”
C. contact between the children occurs daily over an extended period of time
D. the children are provided with norms that prescribe courtesy and friendliness
Research on intergroup hostility has contributed greatly to the understanding of the variables that contribute to prejudice. One of the most consistent findings is that intergroup hostilities (e.g., prejudice) can be reduced by having groups work on a common goal (Cook, 1978; Sherif, 1966).
a. CORRECT When children are required to cooperate in order to achieve a common (“superordinate”) goal, prejudice is likely to decrease.
b. Incorrect Sherif (1966), for example, found that the introduction of a common enemy merely widened the scope of conflict.
Members of self-management work teams (SMWTs):
Select one:
A. are led by an external change agent who provides coaching and suggestions as needed.
B. are employees from different departments who have different levels of expertise.
C. make suggestions that may or may not be accepted by management.
D. make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were formerly made by managers.
d. CORRECT SMWTs are made up of employees who work together as a unit, with leadership usually rotating from one member to another. Members of SMWTs make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were previously made by managers.
The keyword method is most useful for:
Select one:
A. remembering word pairs.
B. remembering a long list of unrelated words.
C. recalling the order of mathematical operations.
D. mastering spatial relationships.
The keyword method is mnemonic device that involves forming an image that links two words. For example, to remember that ranidae is the scientific term for common frogs, you might create an image of a frog sitting in the rain under an umbrella. Additional information on mnemonic devices is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT The keyword method is useful for learning pairs of words such as the English and Spanish equivalents for words or the capitals of states.
b. Incorrect An acronym is more useful for learning lists of unrelated words.
c. Incorrect The pegword method is useful for recalling ordered information.
Stanley Milgram investigated which of the following at Yale University in the 1960s?
Select one:
A. the willingness of individuals to conform to group norms even when those norms were obviously incorrect
B. the willingness of individuals to obey an authority even when doing so had harmful consequences for someone else
C. the ability of individuals holding a minority opinion to influence the opinion of the majority
D. the ability of exposure to repeated conflict among groups to generate hostility and aggression toward members of the outgroup
b. CORRECT Milgram’s research found that, under certain conditions, people are willing to comply with the requests of an authority, even when doing seems to have negative consequences for another person.
In children, Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) most often entails excessive worry about: Select one: A. family relationships. B. illness or injury. C. school or sports performance. D. ghosts and other supernatural beings.
Answer C is correct: There are some age-related differences in the symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder. Children with GAD most commonly worry about school and sports performance or natural disasters and other catastrophic events.
Holmes and Rahe's (1967) Social Readjustment Rating Scale identifies which of the following life changes as the most stressful? Select one: A. losing one's job B. sexual difficulties C. death of a spouse D. imprisonment
Holmes and Rahe (1967) developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) as a method for evaluating a person’s current level of stress.
a. Incorrect Losing one’s job is the 7th most stressful event on the SRRS.
b. Incorrect Sexual difficulties is the 9th most stressful event.
c. CORRECT Death of a spouse is the most stressful event included in the SRRS.
d. Incorrect Imprisonment is the 3rd most stressful event.
Which of the following is a therapeutic approach that explicitly addresses an individual's commitment and readiness to change? Select one: A. solution-oriented therapy B. motivational interviewing C. reality therapy D. self-control training
b. CORRECT Motivational interviewing has been defined by W. R. Miller and S. Rollinick as an approach designed to help clients build commitment and readiness to change. It is based on the assumption that interventions are most effective when they are matched to the individual’s level of readiness.
Which of the following therapeutic approaches is based on the assumption that people have five basic needs (survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun) that act as the primary source of motivation? Select one: A. Adler's Individual Psychology B. Glasser's Reality Therapy C. Roger's Person-Centered Therapy D. Kelly's Personal Construct Therapy
b. CORRECT Reality Therapy focuses on the choices that people make with regard to the ways they fulfill their needs and proposes that people have the five basic needs listed in this question.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions underlying each of the therapeutic approaches listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
Select one:
A. A baby’s toes fan out and upward when the soles of her feet are tickled.
B. A baby turns his head in the direction of a light touch on his cheek or lip.
C. A baby flings his arms and legs outward and then toward his body in response to a loud noise.
D. A baby makes walking movements when held upright while her feet touch a flat surface.
Knowing that the Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Moro = “Oh No!”
a. Incorrect This describes the Babinski reflex.
b. Incorrect This describes the rooting reflex.
c. CORRECT This accurately describes the Moro reflex.
d. Incorrect This describes the stepping reflex.
As defined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, "personal constructs" are bipolar dimensions of meaning that determine how a person perceives, interprets, and predicts events. Select one: A. William Glasser B. Salvador Minuchin C. George Kelly D. Fritz Perls
a. Incorrect William Glasser is associated with Reality Therapy.
b. Incorrect Salvador Minuchin is the person who developed Structural Family Therapy.
c. CORRECT Kelly’s Personal Construct Therapy is a constructivist therapy that focuses on hoiw people “construe” events and proposes that construing involves reliance on personal constructs.
d. Incorrect Fritz Perls is associated with Gestalt Therapy.
This question should have been easy to answer as long as you’re familiar with the individual who developed Personal Construct Therapy. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination.
Dr. Brian Bertram, a licensed psychologist, is hired by the owner of a company to evaluate employees who are not doing well on the job to determine if they would benefit from counseling or additional training. In this situation, Dr. Bertram should:
Select one:
A. reveal the information obtained from each employee to the owner of the company since she is the client.
B. reveal information about each employee only after obtaining a signed consent from employees since they are the clients.
C. not discuss confidentiality with the employees since to do so might limit their willingness to reveal information to him.
D. inform each employee prior to the evaluation of the potential limits on confidentiality.
In the situation described in this question, the company does have a right to relevant information, but this does not free the psychologist from the obligation to inform employees about the limits of confidentiality and the company about what kinds of employee information will be revealed.
d. CORRECT Standard 3.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that “when psychologists agree to provide services to a person or entity at the request of a third party, psychologists attempt to clarify at the outset of the service the nature of the relationship with all individuals or organizations involved. This clarification includes … the fact that there may be limits to confidentiality.” Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics contains similar language.
An organizational psychologist would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to:
Select one:
A. obtain the information needed to complete a job analysis.
B. identify employees who are good candidates for managerial positions.
C. determine the causes of conflict between supervisors and supervisees.
D. evaluate employee performance.
The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a method for obtaining quantitative information about job requirements.
a. CORRECT The PAQ is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that is used to obtain information about the attributes needed to perform a job.
To assess the reading, spelling, and arithmetic skills of an elementary-school child who may have a learning disability, you would use which of the following? Select one: A. WRAT B. DAT C. PPVT D. CAS
a. CORRECT The Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT) is a rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling, and math skills and was designed to be used to assist in the diagnosis of a learning disability.
b. Incorrect The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) assesses job-related abilities and broad intellectual skills and is used for vocational counseling.
c. Incorrect The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) is a measure of receptive vocabulary.
d. Incorrect The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a measure of basic cognitive processes central to learning.
Research on the serial position effect has found that if participants are asked to recall a list of words immediately after reading the list, they are better able to remember the words:
Select one:
A. from the middle of the list than the words from the beginning or end of the list.
B. from the middle and end of the list than the words from the beginning of the list.
C. from the beginning and middle of the list than the words from the end of the list.
D. from the beginning and end of the list than the words from the middle of the list.
In studies investigating the serial position effect, participants are presented with a list of words to remember and asked to recall the words in any order either immediately after reading the list or following a brief delay after reading the list.
d. CORRECT When participants recall the words immediately after reading the list, more words from the beginning and end of the list are recalled than words from the middle of the list. This is apparently because words at the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory while words at the end of list are still in short-term memory. Additional information about the results of research on the serial position effect is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
A primary goal of interpersonal psychotherapy (ITP) is:
Select one:
A. resolving underlying conflicts.
B. living in an authentic, meaningful way.
C. satisfying needs in responsible ways.
D. reducing or alleviating symptoms.
Interpersonal psychotherapy (ITP) is based on a medical model and views depression and other mental disorders as illnesses. a. Incorrect This is characteristic of psychotherapies based on Freudian theory.
b. Incorrect This sounds like existential therapy.
c. Incorrect This is a goal of reality therapy.
d. CORRECT As its name implies, a primary goal of ITP is improved interpersonal relationships. However, consistent with the medical model, ITP also focuses on symptom reduction. Additional information about ITP that you want to be familiar with for the exam is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
The specifier "with delayed expression" is appropriate for a DSM-5 diagnosis of PTSD when the individual's symptoms do not meet all diagnostic criteria for the disorder until at least \_\_\_\_\_ after his/her exposure to the traumatic event. Select one: A. 30 days B. 90 days C. 6 months D. 12 months
Answer C is correct: The specifier “for delayed expression” is applied to the diagnosis of PTSD when the full diagnostic criteria are not met until at least six months after the traumatic event.
Once John Watson established Little Albert's phobic reaction to white rats, Albert displayed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by exhibiting a fear response to other white furry objects. Select one: A. experimental neurosis B. spontaneous recovery C. response generalization D. stimulus generalization
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question, and these terms are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT Stimulus generalization occurs when, following classical conditioning, the individual responds to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response.
An investigator is studying the impact of stress on the ability to perform a complex mental rotation task. The investigator is trying to eliminate all confounds to the experiment so that he can conclude that increased stress causes decrements in processing speed. What type of validity is the investigator trying to establish? Select one: A. face validity B. construct validity C. internal validity D. external validity
The researcher in this experiment is trying to establish a causal relationship between two variables - stress level and processing speed.
a. Incorrect Face validity focuses on whether a test looks like it measures what it is intended to measure.
b. Incorrect Construct validity is established when a test measures the intended hypothetical trait.
c. CORRECT Internal validity focuses on the causal relationship between independent and dependent variables.
d. Incorrect External validity focuses on the generalizability of one study to other conditions, individuals, etc.
Group polarization refers to the tendency of:
Select one:
A. large groups to be more cohesive than small groups are.
B. small groups to be more cohesive than large groups are.
C. groups to make more extreme decisions than individuals make.
D. groups make more centrist (moderate) decisions than individuals make.
c. CORRECT The research has shown that, after participating in a group discussion, group members are likely to advocate more extreme positions than they would have advocated if they had not participated in the discussion. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization.
Research by Taddio and Katz (2005) found that exposure to painful medical procedures during infancy:
Select one:
A. had no effect on subsequent responsivity to pain for both full-term and preterm infants.
B. increased subsequent responsivity to pain for full-term infants but not for preterm infants.
C. reduced subsequent responsivity to pain for full-term infants but not for preterm infants.
D. reduced subsequent responsivity to pain for both full-term and preterm infants.
b. CORRECT While some studies have found that early exposure to painful medical procedures increases subsequent sensitivity to pain, research by Taddio and Katz (2005) suggests that this may be true only for full-term infants.
It would be most important to assess the test-retest reliability of a measure that:
Select one:
A. is subjectively scored.
B. assesses examinees’ speed of responding.
C. measures a stable trait.
D. measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time.
To evaluate test-retest reliability, the same test is administered to the same group of examinees on two different occasions. The two sets of scores are then correlated.
a. Incorrect Test-retest reliability could be used to assess the reliability of a subjectively scored test, but it would not be “important” to do so. Therefore, this isn’t the best answer.
b. Incorrect Alternate forms reliability is better for speeded tests because it eliminates the problem of practice effects.
c. CORRECT If a test is designed to measure a stable trait, you would want to make sure that scores are stable over time. Therefore, test-retest reliability would be important for this kind of test.
d. Incorrect Test-retest would be the wrong type of reliability for a characteristic that fluctuates over time.
Janice J., age 23, has to be at work by 8:30 a.m. but she wakes up each work day by 5:30 a.m. so that she can wash her face and apply make-up to cover up her "bad skin." Often, this involves removing and reapplying the make-up several times and causes her to be late for work two or three times a month. At work, she takes frequent bathroom breaks so she can check her face in the mirror and re-apply make-up. Janice is always "broke" because she spends so much of her salary on skin-care products and at tanning salons. She is afraid that, if people see her without make-up, they won't want to have anything to do with her, and as a result, she avoids all social activities that will not allow her to frequently check her face. Janice has seen two dermatologists in the past six months and both have reassured her that her skin is fine, that she does not have acne, and that the scar above her eyebrow is not noticeable because it's so small and is usually covered by her bangs. The most likely diagnosis for Janice is: Select one: A. Illness Anxiety Disorder B. Somatic Symptom Disorder C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder D. Adjustment Disorder
Answer C is correct: Body Dysmorphic Disorder involves a preoccupation with a defect or flaw in appearance that appears minor or is unobservable to others. The person performs repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to the defect or flaw (e.g., mirror checking, excessive grooming), and his/her preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.
Answer A: People with Illness Anxiety Disorder are preoccupied with having or acquiring a serious illness. Although Janice is overly concerned about her skin, she does not seem to be concerned that the flaws she perceives are signs of a serious illness.
Answer B: People with Somatic Symptom Disorder have one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that are related to the symptoms. As noted in the DSM-5, a person with Somatic Symptoms Disorder is concerned that an illness underlies his/her somatic symptoms, while a person with Body Dysmorphic Disorder is concerned about a flaw or defect in appearance.
Answer D: Adjustment Disorder involves the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to one or more identifiable psychosocial stressors. No information is provided in the question that suggests that Janice’s symptoms developed after exposure to a stressor.
Which of the following best describes the requirements of the privacy rule of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
Select one:
A. The privacy rule always takes precedence over state laws.
B. The privacy rule is superseded by state laws when those laws provide greater privacy protection.
C. The privacy rule is enforceable only in the absence of state and other relevant federal laws.
D. The privacy rule applies only to organizations that receive financial assistance from the federal government.
b. CORRECT The privacy rule provides minimum standards for access to and use of patient information and is superseded by other laws that provide patients with greater control over their health records.
In the context of psychotherapy research, a “placebo” ordinarily involves providing participants with which of the following?
Select one:
A. a treatment that is already known to be effective
B. a treatment that is already known to be ineffective
C. nontherapeutic (“inert”) interventions
D. nonspecific factors of psychotherapy
d. CORRECT In medical research, a placebo is an inert (inactive) substance or treatment. However, in psychotherapy research, a placebo treatment usually involves providing participants with the nonspecific factors of therapy such as attention and support.
As defined by Murray Bowen, an emotional triangle is LEAST likely to develop in families when family members:
Select one:
A. are disengaged.
B. are highly differentiated.
C. have clear, overt rules that define their relationships.
D. seek satisfaction rather than security in family relationships.
Familiarity with Bowen’s terminology would have helped you choose the correct response to this question.
a. Incorrect Disengagement is a term associated more with Minuchin than with Bowen.
b. CORRECT Differentiation is an important concept for Bowen, and he proposes that, when family members are highly differentiated, they are less likely to become emotionally fused with other family members.
Which of the following is NOT included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of Substance Use Disorder?
Select one:
A. persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down on substance use
B. a strong desire (craving) for the substance
C. tolerance for the substance
D. recurrent legal problems related to substance use
Answer D is correct: Recurrent legal problems is not identified as a symptom of Substance Use Disorder in the DSM-5.
Answers A, B, and C: Persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down on substance use, a strong desire (craving) for the substance, and tolerance for the substance are all included as symptoms of Substance Use Disorder in the DSM-5.
In the DSM-5, dissociative fugue is included:
Select one:
A. with Dissociative Disorders as a separate diagnosis.
B. as a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia.
C. as a specifier for Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder.
D. as an example of disorders that may be coded as Other Specified Dissociative Disorder.
Answer B is correct: Dissociative fugue is a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia in the DSM-5.
Which of the following is an early indicator of job burnout?
Select one:
A. a sudden drop in work effort.
B. a sudden increase in work effort without an increase in productivity.
C. a sudden increase in irritability.
D. a sudden onset of intense anxiety with a temporary increase in productivity.
Job burnout is caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork.
b. CORRECT An early sign of job burnout is a sudden increase in work effort that is not accompanied by an increase in productivity. Other signs include a sense of low personal accomplishment, cynicism, and exhaustion.
For children with a learning disorder, the most frequent co-diagnosis is ADHD, with approximately \_\_\_\_\_% of children with a learning disorder also receiving the latter diagnosis. Select one: A. 5 to 10 B. 20 to 30 C. 45 to 50 D. 65 to 75
Children with a learning disorder often have a co-diagnosis of ADHD, Tourette’s Disorder, and/or a mood disorder.
b. CORRECT The studies have found that the most common co-diagnosis is ADHD, with about 20 to 30% of children with a learning disorder also receiving a diagnosis of ADHD.
In a research study, Variable B is paired with Variable A so that, eventually, the response automatically produced by Variable A is also produced by Variable B. Then, Variable C is paired with Variable B so that it produces the same response. Based on this information, you can conclude that this study was designed to investigate which of the following? Select one: A. pseudoconditioning B. spontaneous recovery C. two-factor learning D. higher-order conditioning
The term “paired with” suggests that this study is investigating some form of classical conditioning - i.e., in classical conditioning, presentation of a conditioned stimulus is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus produces a response that is similar to the one produced by the unconditioned stimulus.
a. Incorrect In classical conditioning, pseudoconditioning occurs when (1) the neutral stimulus is accidentally paired with the US and, as a result, produces a response similar to the UR or (2) repeated presentation of the US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a novel stimulus (not just the US or CS) with a response similar to the UR, especially in the same context in which the US was presented
b. Incorrect Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a classically conditioned response or an operant response following extinction.
c. Incorrect Two-factor learning (e.g., avoidance conditioning) combines classical and operant condition, which is not occurring in the study described in this question.
d. CORRECT In higher-order conditioning, the initial conditioned stimulus (CS) is treated as an unconditioned stimulus (US) and paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also produces a conditioned response. This question describes the procedure used in higher-order conditioning.
When evaluating a defendant’s competence to stand trial, the focus of the evaluation is on the defendant’s:
Select one:
A. ability to distinguish right from wrong.
B. ability to comprehend the charges against him/her.
C. mental state at the time he/she committed the crime.
D. DSM-IV diagnosis.
The focus of an evaluation to determine a defendant’s competence to stand trial focuses on his/her current psycholegal abilities and impairments.
b. CORRECT An evaluation for competence to stand trial focuses on the defendant’s ability to comprehend the charges against him/her, to understand the trial process, to cooperate with his/her attorney, etc.
If a psychologist acts as both a fact witness for the plaintiff and an expert witness for the court in a criminal trial, she has acted:
Select one:
A. unethically by accepting dual roles.
B. ethically as long as she did not have a prior relationship with the plaintiff.
C. ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties.
D. ethically as long as she obtains a waiver from the court.
The adoption of multiple roles is addressed in the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations and in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology.
c. CORRECT According to ethical guidelines, accepting multiple roles may be acceptable as long as certain conditions are met - e.g., as long as the psychologist considers the risks and benefits of doing so for all involved parties and clarifies the nature of the multiples roles with all involved parties.
Papez’s circuit is a network of nerves that mediates:
Select one:
A. the expression of emotion.
B. the immune system’s reaction to stress.
C. the emergence of secondary sex characteristics during puberty.
D. the attachment of emotion to memories.
Papez (1937) was among the first researchers to identify the neural structures that control emotional expression.
a. CORRECT Included in Papez’s circuit are the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, thalamus, amygdala, and cingulate gyrus.
Which of the following selection techniques is the most accurate predictor of job performance across different jobs and job settings? Select one: A. situational interviews B. general mental ability tests C. interest tests D. work sample tests
The validity of the various selection procedures used in organizations varies somewhat, depending on the specific job. However, this question is asking which procedure is most valid across different jobs and job settings.
a. Incorrect Interviews tend to have fairly low validity; and situational (future-oriented) interviews are less valid than behavioral (past-oriented) interviews.
b. CORRECT Based on their meta-analysis of published validity studies, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) conclude that general mental (cognitive) ability tests have the highest criterion-related validity coefficients across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.
c. Incorrect Interest tests are good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence but are not good predictors of job performance.
d. Incorrect Work sample tests are valid for some jobs but are unavailable for many jobs. In addition, they are useful only for hiring experienced applicants
