Free 100 Questions Flashcards
Miracle, exception, and scaling questions are strategies used by practitioners of: Select one: A. solution-focused therapy. B. interpersonal psychotherapy. C. motivational interviewing. D. reality therapy.
a. CORRECT A solution-focused therapist acts as a consultant/collaborator who poses questions aimed at identifying solutions to problems, including miracle, exception, and scaling questions.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the therapeutic strategies of all of the therapies listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Emelina E., age 4, has learned that, when she approaches her father while he is watching a football game on TV, her father ignores her, but when she approaches her father while he is watching any other type of TV show, he is willing to talk to and play with her. As a result, Emelina only approaches her father when he is not watching football. Emelina's behavior illustrates which of the following? Select one: A. stimulus fading B. shaping C. stimulus control D. pseudoconditioning
Emelina has learned that she will not be reinforced for approaching her father when he is watching a football game but will be reinforced if she approaches him when he is watching other types of TV shows.
a. Incorrect Stimulus fading refers to the gradual elimination of a discriminative stimulus. In this situation, the discriminative stimulus (type of TV show) is not being gradually eliminated.
b. Incorrect Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired behavior are reinforced.
c. CORRECT A behavior is “under stimulus control” when it is more likely to occur in the presence of certain stimuli than in the presence of other stimuli because the stimuli signal whether or not reinforcement for the behavior will be provided.
d. Incorrect Pseudoconditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response due to the accidental pairing of the stimulus with another stimulus that evokes that response or when repeated exposure to a US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a neutral stimulus with a response similar to the UR.
Which of the following techniques would be most useful for evaluating the impact of an intervention on patients' quality of life? Select one: A. cost-feasibility analysis B. cost-minimization analysis C. cost-utility analysis D. cost-benefit analysis
Cost analysis is conducted to determine the optimal allocation of financial resources. Experts distinguish between the four methods of cost analysis listed in the answers to this question. Additional information on these methods is provided in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Cost-feasibility analysis is used to determine the feasibility of an intervention based on the monetary and other resources it requires.
b. Incorrect As its name implies, cost-minimization analysis is conducted to identify the least costly option among several options that produces equivalent outcomes.
c. CORRECT A cost-utility analysis is conducted to compare the costs and patient outcomes of an intervention, with outcomes including patients’ duration and quality of life.
d. Incorrect As its name implies, a cost-benefit analysis is used to determine the relative costs and benefits of a particular intervention.
The "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon is believed to be due to which of the following? Select one: A. trace decay B. inadequate retrieval cues C. retroactive interference D. attention deficits
b. CORRECT One theory of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is that it is due to a lack of cues that would facilitate retrieving information that is stored in long-term memory.
Sleep patterns vary somewhat with age. For example, during the first few months of life, infants begin a sleep period with: Select one: A. REM sleep. B. Stage 2 sleep. C. Stage 3 sleep. D. Stage 4 sleep.
The sleep pattern of newborns is quite different from that of older children and adults.
a. CORRECT The four stages of non-REM sleep are relatively indistinguishable during the first few months of life. Also, in contrast to older children, adolescents, and adults, newborns begin a sleep period with REM sleep.
Research on the role of hormones on sexual arousal suggest that androgen:
Select one:
A. is responsible for arousal in females but not in males.
B. is responsible for arousal in males but not in females.
C. is responsible for arousal in males and females.
D. does not impact arousal in either females or males.
The effects of androgen on sexual arousal vary from individual to individual, but it does appear to have a positive impact for both men and women.
c. CORRECT For men, androgen affects sexual interest and arousal, at least up to a point. Beyond that point, the relationship tends to level off. For women, androgen is more effective than estrogen for restoring sexual arousal following menopause or removal of the sex organs.
Research on prejudice indicates that certain conditions can reduce intergroup hostilities. Which of the following conditions would be MOST effective for reducing racial prejudice displayed by groups of White and African American children?
Select one:
A. the children are required to cooperate in order to achieve a common goal
B. the children are confronted with a “common enemy”
C. contact between the children occurs daily over an extended period of time
D. the children are provided with norms that prescribe courtesy and friendliness
Research on intergroup hostility has contributed greatly to the understanding of the variables that contribute to prejudice. One of the most consistent findings is that intergroup hostilities (e.g., prejudice) can be reduced by having groups work on a common goal (Cook, 1978; Sherif, 1966).
a. CORRECT When children are required to cooperate in order to achieve a common (“superordinate”) goal, prejudice is likely to decrease.
b. Incorrect Sherif (1966), for example, found that the introduction of a common enemy merely widened the scope of conflict.
Members of self-management work teams (SMWTs):
Select one:
A. are led by an external change agent who provides coaching and suggestions as needed.
B. are employees from different departments who have different levels of expertise.
C. make suggestions that may or may not be accepted by management.
D. make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were formerly made by managers.
d. CORRECT SMWTs are made up of employees who work together as a unit, with leadership usually rotating from one member to another. Members of SMWTs make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were previously made by managers.
The keyword method is most useful for:
Select one:
A. remembering word pairs.
B. remembering a long list of unrelated words.
C. recalling the order of mathematical operations.
D. mastering spatial relationships.
The keyword method is mnemonic device that involves forming an image that links two words. For example, to remember that ranidae is the scientific term for common frogs, you might create an image of a frog sitting in the rain under an umbrella. Additional information on mnemonic devices is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT The keyword method is useful for learning pairs of words such as the English and Spanish equivalents for words or the capitals of states.
b. Incorrect An acronym is more useful for learning lists of unrelated words.
c. Incorrect The pegword method is useful for recalling ordered information.
Stanley Milgram investigated which of the following at Yale University in the 1960s?
Select one:
A. the willingness of individuals to conform to group norms even when those norms were obviously incorrect
B. the willingness of individuals to obey an authority even when doing so had harmful consequences for someone else
C. the ability of individuals holding a minority opinion to influence the opinion of the majority
D. the ability of exposure to repeated conflict among groups to generate hostility and aggression toward members of the outgroup
b. CORRECT Milgram’s research found that, under certain conditions, people are willing to comply with the requests of an authority, even when doing seems to have negative consequences for another person.
In children, Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) most often entails excessive worry about: Select one: A. family relationships. B. illness or injury. C. school or sports performance. D. ghosts and other supernatural beings.
Answer C is correct: There are some age-related differences in the symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder. Children with GAD most commonly worry about school and sports performance or natural disasters and other catastrophic events.
Holmes and Rahe's (1967) Social Readjustment Rating Scale identifies which of the following life changes as the most stressful? Select one: A. losing one's job B. sexual difficulties C. death of a spouse D. imprisonment
Holmes and Rahe (1967) developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) as a method for evaluating a person’s current level of stress.
a. Incorrect Losing one’s job is the 7th most stressful event on the SRRS.
b. Incorrect Sexual difficulties is the 9th most stressful event.
c. CORRECT Death of a spouse is the most stressful event included in the SRRS.
d. Incorrect Imprisonment is the 3rd most stressful event.
Which of the following is a therapeutic approach that explicitly addresses an individual's commitment and readiness to change? Select one: A. solution-oriented therapy B. motivational interviewing C. reality therapy D. self-control training
b. CORRECT Motivational interviewing has been defined by W. R. Miller and S. Rollinick as an approach designed to help clients build commitment and readiness to change. It is based on the assumption that interventions are most effective when they are matched to the individual’s level of readiness.
Which of the following therapeutic approaches is based on the assumption that people have five basic needs (survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun) that act as the primary source of motivation? Select one: A. Adler's Individual Psychology B. Glasser's Reality Therapy C. Roger's Person-Centered Therapy D. Kelly's Personal Construct Therapy
b. CORRECT Reality Therapy focuses on the choices that people make with regard to the ways they fulfill their needs and proposes that people have the five basic needs listed in this question.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions underlying each of the therapeutic approaches listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
Select one:
A. A baby’s toes fan out and upward when the soles of her feet are tickled.
B. A baby turns his head in the direction of a light touch on his cheek or lip.
C. A baby flings his arms and legs outward and then toward his body in response to a loud noise.
D. A baby makes walking movements when held upright while her feet touch a flat surface.
Knowing that the Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Moro = “Oh No!”
a. Incorrect This describes the Babinski reflex.
b. Incorrect This describes the rooting reflex.
c. CORRECT This accurately describes the Moro reflex.
d. Incorrect This describes the stepping reflex.
As defined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, "personal constructs" are bipolar dimensions of meaning that determine how a person perceives, interprets, and predicts events. Select one: A. William Glasser B. Salvador Minuchin C. George Kelly D. Fritz Perls
a. Incorrect William Glasser is associated with Reality Therapy.
b. Incorrect Salvador Minuchin is the person who developed Structural Family Therapy.
c. CORRECT Kelly’s Personal Construct Therapy is a constructivist therapy that focuses on hoiw people “construe” events and proposes that construing involves reliance on personal constructs.
d. Incorrect Fritz Perls is associated with Gestalt Therapy.
This question should have been easy to answer as long as you’re familiar with the individual who developed Personal Construct Therapy. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination.
Dr. Brian Bertram, a licensed psychologist, is hired by the owner of a company to evaluate employees who are not doing well on the job to determine if they would benefit from counseling or additional training. In this situation, Dr. Bertram should:
Select one:
A. reveal the information obtained from each employee to the owner of the company since she is the client.
B. reveal information about each employee only after obtaining a signed consent from employees since they are the clients.
C. not discuss confidentiality with the employees since to do so might limit their willingness to reveal information to him.
D. inform each employee prior to the evaluation of the potential limits on confidentiality.
In the situation described in this question, the company does have a right to relevant information, but this does not free the psychologist from the obligation to inform employees about the limits of confidentiality and the company about what kinds of employee information will be revealed.
d. CORRECT Standard 3.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that “when psychologists agree to provide services to a person or entity at the request of a third party, psychologists attempt to clarify at the outset of the service the nature of the relationship with all individuals or organizations involved. This clarification includes … the fact that there may be limits to confidentiality.” Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics contains similar language.
An organizational psychologist would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to:
Select one:
A. obtain the information needed to complete a job analysis.
B. identify employees who are good candidates for managerial positions.
C. determine the causes of conflict between supervisors and supervisees.
D. evaluate employee performance.
The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a method for obtaining quantitative information about job requirements.
a. CORRECT The PAQ is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that is used to obtain information about the attributes needed to perform a job.
To assess the reading, spelling, and arithmetic skills of an elementary-school child who may have a learning disability, you would use which of the following? Select one: A. WRAT B. DAT C. PPVT D. CAS
a. CORRECT The Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT) is a rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling, and math skills and was designed to be used to assist in the diagnosis of a learning disability.
b. Incorrect The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) assesses job-related abilities and broad intellectual skills and is used for vocational counseling.
c. Incorrect The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) is a measure of receptive vocabulary.
d. Incorrect The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a measure of basic cognitive processes central to learning.
Research on the serial position effect has found that if participants are asked to recall a list of words immediately after reading the list, they are better able to remember the words:
Select one:
A. from the middle of the list than the words from the beginning or end of the list.
B. from the middle and end of the list than the words from the beginning of the list.
C. from the beginning and middle of the list than the words from the end of the list.
D. from the beginning and end of the list than the words from the middle of the list.
In studies investigating the serial position effect, participants are presented with a list of words to remember and asked to recall the words in any order either immediately after reading the list or following a brief delay after reading the list.
d. CORRECT When participants recall the words immediately after reading the list, more words from the beginning and end of the list are recalled than words from the middle of the list. This is apparently because words at the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory while words at the end of list are still in short-term memory. Additional information about the results of research on the serial position effect is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
A primary goal of interpersonal psychotherapy (ITP) is:
Select one:
A. resolving underlying conflicts.
B. living in an authentic, meaningful way.
C. satisfying needs in responsible ways.
D. reducing or alleviating symptoms.
Interpersonal psychotherapy (ITP) is based on a medical model and views depression and other mental disorders as illnesses. a. Incorrect This is characteristic of psychotherapies based on Freudian theory.
b. Incorrect This sounds like existential therapy.
c. Incorrect This is a goal of reality therapy.
d. CORRECT As its name implies, a primary goal of ITP is improved interpersonal relationships. However, consistent with the medical model, ITP also focuses on symptom reduction. Additional information about ITP that you want to be familiar with for the exam is provided in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
The specifier "with delayed expression" is appropriate for a DSM-5 diagnosis of PTSD when the individual's symptoms do not meet all diagnostic criteria for the disorder until at least \_\_\_\_\_ after his/her exposure to the traumatic event. Select one: A. 30 days B. 90 days C. 6 months D. 12 months
Answer C is correct: The specifier “for delayed expression” is applied to the diagnosis of PTSD when the full diagnostic criteria are not met until at least six months after the traumatic event.
Once John Watson established Little Albert's phobic reaction to white rats, Albert displayed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by exhibiting a fear response to other white furry objects. Select one: A. experimental neurosis B. spontaneous recovery C. response generalization D. stimulus generalization
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question, and these terms are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
d. CORRECT Stimulus generalization occurs when, following classical conditioning, the individual responds to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response.
An investigator is studying the impact of stress on the ability to perform a complex mental rotation task. The investigator is trying to eliminate all confounds to the experiment so that he can conclude that increased stress causes decrements in processing speed. What type of validity is the investigator trying to establish? Select one: A. face validity B. construct validity C. internal validity D. external validity
The researcher in this experiment is trying to establish a causal relationship between two variables - stress level and processing speed.
a. Incorrect Face validity focuses on whether a test looks like it measures what it is intended to measure.
b. Incorrect Construct validity is established when a test measures the intended hypothetical trait.
c. CORRECT Internal validity focuses on the causal relationship between independent and dependent variables.
d. Incorrect External validity focuses on the generalizability of one study to other conditions, individuals, etc.
Group polarization refers to the tendency of:
Select one:
A. large groups to be more cohesive than small groups are.
B. small groups to be more cohesive than large groups are.
C. groups to make more extreme decisions than individuals make.
D. groups make more centrist (moderate) decisions than individuals make.
c. CORRECT The research has shown that, after participating in a group discussion, group members are likely to advocate more extreme positions than they would have advocated if they had not participated in the discussion. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization.
Research by Taddio and Katz (2005) found that exposure to painful medical procedures during infancy:
Select one:
A. had no effect on subsequent responsivity to pain for both full-term and preterm infants.
B. increased subsequent responsivity to pain for full-term infants but not for preterm infants.
C. reduced subsequent responsivity to pain for full-term infants but not for preterm infants.
D. reduced subsequent responsivity to pain for both full-term and preterm infants.
b. CORRECT While some studies have found that early exposure to painful medical procedures increases subsequent sensitivity to pain, research by Taddio and Katz (2005) suggests that this may be true only for full-term infants.
It would be most important to assess the test-retest reliability of a measure that:
Select one:
A. is subjectively scored.
B. assesses examinees’ speed of responding.
C. measures a stable trait.
D. measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time.
To evaluate test-retest reliability, the same test is administered to the same group of examinees on two different occasions. The two sets of scores are then correlated.
a. Incorrect Test-retest reliability could be used to assess the reliability of a subjectively scored test, but it would not be “important” to do so. Therefore, this isn’t the best answer.
b. Incorrect Alternate forms reliability is better for speeded tests because it eliminates the problem of practice effects.
c. CORRECT If a test is designed to measure a stable trait, you would want to make sure that scores are stable over time. Therefore, test-retest reliability would be important for this kind of test.
d. Incorrect Test-retest would be the wrong type of reliability for a characteristic that fluctuates over time.
Janice J., age 23, has to be at work by 8:30 a.m. but she wakes up each work day by 5:30 a.m. so that she can wash her face and apply make-up to cover up her "bad skin." Often, this involves removing and reapplying the make-up several times and causes her to be late for work two or three times a month. At work, she takes frequent bathroom breaks so she can check her face in the mirror and re-apply make-up. Janice is always "broke" because she spends so much of her salary on skin-care products and at tanning salons. She is afraid that, if people see her without make-up, they won't want to have anything to do with her, and as a result, she avoids all social activities that will not allow her to frequently check her face. Janice has seen two dermatologists in the past six months and both have reassured her that her skin is fine, that she does not have acne, and that the scar above her eyebrow is not noticeable because it's so small and is usually covered by her bangs. The most likely diagnosis for Janice is: Select one: A. Illness Anxiety Disorder B. Somatic Symptom Disorder C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder D. Adjustment Disorder
Answer C is correct: Body Dysmorphic Disorder involves a preoccupation with a defect or flaw in appearance that appears minor or is unobservable to others. The person performs repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to the defect or flaw (e.g., mirror checking, excessive grooming), and his/her preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.
Answer A: People with Illness Anxiety Disorder are preoccupied with having or acquiring a serious illness. Although Janice is overly concerned about her skin, she does not seem to be concerned that the flaws she perceives are signs of a serious illness.
Answer B: People with Somatic Symptom Disorder have one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that are related to the symptoms. As noted in the DSM-5, a person with Somatic Symptoms Disorder is concerned that an illness underlies his/her somatic symptoms, while a person with Body Dysmorphic Disorder is concerned about a flaw or defect in appearance.
Answer D: Adjustment Disorder involves the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to one or more identifiable psychosocial stressors. No information is provided in the question that suggests that Janice’s symptoms developed after exposure to a stressor.
Which of the following best describes the requirements of the privacy rule of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
Select one:
A. The privacy rule always takes precedence over state laws.
B. The privacy rule is superseded by state laws when those laws provide greater privacy protection.
C. The privacy rule is enforceable only in the absence of state and other relevant federal laws.
D. The privacy rule applies only to organizations that receive financial assistance from the federal government.
b. CORRECT The privacy rule provides minimum standards for access to and use of patient information and is superseded by other laws that provide patients with greater control over their health records.
In the context of psychotherapy research, a “placebo” ordinarily involves providing participants with which of the following?
Select one:
A. a treatment that is already known to be effective
B. a treatment that is already known to be ineffective
C. nontherapeutic (“inert”) interventions
D. nonspecific factors of psychotherapy
d. CORRECT In medical research, a placebo is an inert (inactive) substance or treatment. However, in psychotherapy research, a placebo treatment usually involves providing participants with the nonspecific factors of therapy such as attention and support.
As defined by Murray Bowen, an emotional triangle is LEAST likely to develop in families when family members:
Select one:
A. are disengaged.
B. are highly differentiated.
C. have clear, overt rules that define their relationships.
D. seek satisfaction rather than security in family relationships.
Familiarity with Bowen’s terminology would have helped you choose the correct response to this question.
a. Incorrect Disengagement is a term associated more with Minuchin than with Bowen.
b. CORRECT Differentiation is an important concept for Bowen, and he proposes that, when family members are highly differentiated, they are less likely to become emotionally fused with other family members.
Which of the following is NOT included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of Substance Use Disorder?
Select one:
A. persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down on substance use
B. a strong desire (craving) for the substance
C. tolerance for the substance
D. recurrent legal problems related to substance use
Answer D is correct: Recurrent legal problems is not identified as a symptom of Substance Use Disorder in the DSM-5.
Answers A, B, and C: Persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down on substance use, a strong desire (craving) for the substance, and tolerance for the substance are all included as symptoms of Substance Use Disorder in the DSM-5.
In the DSM-5, dissociative fugue is included:
Select one:
A. with Dissociative Disorders as a separate diagnosis.
B. as a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia.
C. as a specifier for Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder.
D. as an example of disorders that may be coded as Other Specified Dissociative Disorder.
Answer B is correct: Dissociative fugue is a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia in the DSM-5.
Which of the following is an early indicator of job burnout?
Select one:
A. a sudden drop in work effort.
B. a sudden increase in work effort without an increase in productivity.
C. a sudden increase in irritability.
D. a sudden onset of intense anxiety with a temporary increase in productivity.
Job burnout is caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork.
b. CORRECT An early sign of job burnout is a sudden increase in work effort that is not accompanied by an increase in productivity. Other signs include a sense of low personal accomplishment, cynicism, and exhaustion.
For children with a learning disorder, the most frequent co-diagnosis is ADHD, with approximately \_\_\_\_\_% of children with a learning disorder also receiving the latter diagnosis. Select one: A. 5 to 10 B. 20 to 30 C. 45 to 50 D. 65 to 75
Children with a learning disorder often have a co-diagnosis of ADHD, Tourette’s Disorder, and/or a mood disorder.
b. CORRECT The studies have found that the most common co-diagnosis is ADHD, with about 20 to 30% of children with a learning disorder also receiving a diagnosis of ADHD.
In a research study, Variable B is paired with Variable A so that, eventually, the response automatically produced by Variable A is also produced by Variable B. Then, Variable C is paired with Variable B so that it produces the same response. Based on this information, you can conclude that this study was designed to investigate which of the following? Select one: A. pseudoconditioning B. spontaneous recovery C. two-factor learning D. higher-order conditioning
The term “paired with” suggests that this study is investigating some form of classical conditioning - i.e., in classical conditioning, presentation of a conditioned stimulus is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus produces a response that is similar to the one produced by the unconditioned stimulus.
a. Incorrect In classical conditioning, pseudoconditioning occurs when (1) the neutral stimulus is accidentally paired with the US and, as a result, produces a response similar to the UR or (2) repeated presentation of the US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a novel stimulus (not just the US or CS) with a response similar to the UR, especially in the same context in which the US was presented
b. Incorrect Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a classically conditioned response or an operant response following extinction.
c. Incorrect Two-factor learning (e.g., avoidance conditioning) combines classical and operant condition, which is not occurring in the study described in this question.
d. CORRECT In higher-order conditioning, the initial conditioned stimulus (CS) is treated as an unconditioned stimulus (US) and paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also produces a conditioned response. This question describes the procedure used in higher-order conditioning.
When evaluating a defendant’s competence to stand trial, the focus of the evaluation is on the defendant’s:
Select one:
A. ability to distinguish right from wrong.
B. ability to comprehend the charges against him/her.
C. mental state at the time he/she committed the crime.
D. DSM-IV diagnosis.
The focus of an evaluation to determine a defendant’s competence to stand trial focuses on his/her current psycholegal abilities and impairments.
b. CORRECT An evaluation for competence to stand trial focuses on the defendant’s ability to comprehend the charges against him/her, to understand the trial process, to cooperate with his/her attorney, etc.
If a psychologist acts as both a fact witness for the plaintiff and an expert witness for the court in a criminal trial, she has acted:
Select one:
A. unethically by accepting dual roles.
B. ethically as long as she did not have a prior relationship with the plaintiff.
C. ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties.
D. ethically as long as she obtains a waiver from the court.
The adoption of multiple roles is addressed in the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations and in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology.
c. CORRECT According to ethical guidelines, accepting multiple roles may be acceptable as long as certain conditions are met - e.g., as long as the psychologist considers the risks and benefits of doing so for all involved parties and clarifies the nature of the multiples roles with all involved parties.
Papez’s circuit is a network of nerves that mediates:
Select one:
A. the expression of emotion.
B. the immune system’s reaction to stress.
C. the emergence of secondary sex characteristics during puberty.
D. the attachment of emotion to memories.
Papez (1937) was among the first researchers to identify the neural structures that control emotional expression.
a. CORRECT Included in Papez’s circuit are the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, thalamus, amygdala, and cingulate gyrus.
Which of the following selection techniques is the most accurate predictor of job performance across different jobs and job settings? Select one: A. situational interviews B. general mental ability tests C. interest tests D. work sample tests
The validity of the various selection procedures used in organizations varies somewhat, depending on the specific job. However, this question is asking which procedure is most valid across different jobs and job settings.
a. Incorrect Interviews tend to have fairly low validity; and situational (future-oriented) interviews are less valid than behavioral (past-oriented) interviews.
b. CORRECT Based on their meta-analysis of published validity studies, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) conclude that general mental (cognitive) ability tests have the highest criterion-related validity coefficients across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.
c. Incorrect Interest tests are good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence but are not good predictors of job performance.
d. Incorrect Work sample tests are valid for some jobs but are unavailable for many jobs. In addition, they are useful only for hiring experienced applicants
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence or history of:
Select one:
A. at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode.
B. at least one major depressive episode and one mixed episode.
C. two or more mixed episodes without a manic, hypomanic, or major depressive episode.
D. two or more hypomanic episodes.
a. CORRECT The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence or history of major depressive and hypomanic episodes.
Campbell and Stanley (1966) identify which of the following as a direct threat to a study's external (but not internal) validity? Select one: A. multiple treatment interference B. statistical regression C. maturation D. attrition
a. CORRECT Anything that threatens a study’s internal validity will also threaten its external validity, but this question is asking about a factor that threatens external validity only. Of the threats listed, only multiple treatment interference is listed by Campbell and Stanley as a direct threat to external validity.
An electrolyte imbalance is a possible complication of Bulimia Nervosa. The danger of this complication lies in the fact that it can lead to: Select one: A. cardiac arrhythmia and arrest. B. blood dyscrasias. C. permanent memory loss. D. dehydration.
a. CORRECT Electrolyte imbalances caused by vomiting and the use of laxatives and diuretics can have serious consequences, including, in extreme cases, cardiac arrhythmia and arrest.
In 1989, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy revised the 1978 learned helplessness theory of depression. In their revision, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is conceptualized as a proximal and sufficient cause of depressive symptoms. Select one: A. non-contingent reinforcement B. a depressogenic cognitive style C. an external locus of control D. a sense of hopelessness
d. CORRECT Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy identify a sense of hopelessness as a proximal cause because, in the chain of events leading to depression, it is at the end of the chain; and as a sufficient cause because the presence of hopelessness is sufficient to cause depressive symptoms.
Mia M., age 28, has just received a diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. She tells her therapist that she knows that this disorder is often treated with medication but that she doesn't want to take a drug because of the side effects. Which of the following would likely be the most effective treatment for Mia? Select one: A. interpersonal therapy B. mentalization-based therapy C. exposure with response prevention D. panic control therapy
Answer C is correct: Exposure with response prevention (ERP) is an empirically supported and first-line treatment for OCD.
Which of the following would be most useful for alleviating an attack of hyperventilation? Select one: A. an ice pack B. an antacid C. a glass of water D. a paper bag
Hyperventilation is a rapid deep-breathing attack that involves a drop in carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory alkalosis and cerebral hypoxia. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, tingling and numbness in the hands and feet, dizziness, and impaired concentration and memory.
d. CORRECT Breathing into a paper bag alleviates hyperventilation by increasing the level of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
The brain is only about 25% of its adult weight at birth but, by about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ months of age, it has reached 80% of its adult weight. Select one: A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
c. CORRECT By two years of age, the brain has achieved about 80% of its adult weight. The growth of the brain during the first two years of life is due less to the addition of new neurons than to an increase in their size and interconnections and the formation of glial cells.
An extraneous variable is a variable that is irrelevant to the purpose of a research study but confounds a study’s results because it:
Select one:
A. has a systematic effect on the study’s dependent variable.
B. has a random effect on the study’s dependent variable.
C. has a systematic effect on the study’s independent variable.
D. has a random effect on the study’s independent variable.
Knowing that an extraneous variable is a source of systematic error would have helped you narrow your choice of a correct response to answers a and c.
a. CORRECT An extraneous variable is a variable that is not relevant to the purpose of the study but has a systematic effect on the dependent variable and, as a result, can make it difficult to ascertain the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. Additional information on extraneous variables is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
Dr. Melba Morrison, a licensed psychologist, conducts research and teaches several classes at a large university. In her social psychology classes, she usually covers only material that is consistent with the results of her own research. In terms of the ethical guidelines, this practice is:
Select one:
A. ethical since it is up to Dr. Morrison to decide what to cover in her classes.
B. ethical as long as Dr. Morrison provides information about her policy in the class syllabus.
C. ethically questionable but not addressed by ethical guidelines.
D. clearly unethical.
d. CORRECT To be consistent with ethical requirements when acting as an instructor or trainer, psychologists must present information accurately and in an unbiased way. Therefore, Dr. Morrison is acting unethically by presenting only information that is consistent with the results of her own research.
An insurance company requests that you fax the company confidential client information. Assuming that the client has signed a release for this information, you should:
Select one:
A. refuse to fax the requested documents.
B. make sure the documents are clearly marked as confidential.
C. make sure that all identifying information is removed or coded.
D. ask the company to verify that the documents have been received after they are faxed.
c. CORRECT You would not have control over who sees the documents once they’ve been transmitted, and this course of action would ensure that client information is kept confidential.
The point at which an item characteristic curve intercepts the vertical (Y) axis provides information on which of the following?
Select one:
A. the item’s difficulty level
B. the item’s ability to discriminate between low and high scorers
C. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing
D. the item’s ability to predict performance on an external criterion
Most item characteristic curves provide information on three parameters – difficulty level, discrimination, and probability of guessing correctly.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The vertical axis indicates the probability of choosing a correct response as a function of an examinee’s ability level. The point at which the item characteristic curve intercepts the vertical axis indicates the probability of choosing the correct response by chance alone.
Sexual harassment:
Select one:
A. is explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines.
B. is not explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines but is implicitly prohibited by standards limiting multiple relationships.
C. is not explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines but is implicitly prohibited by standards limiting sexual intimacies.
D. is not explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines but is implicitly prohibited by standards requiring avoidance of harm.
Sexual harassment is explicitly addressed by Standard 3.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.4 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
a. CORRECT Standard 3.02 of the Ethics Code states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual harassment”; and Principle I.4 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists “abstain from all forms of harassment, including sexual harassment.”
The clients in advocacy consultation are:
Select one:
A. children.
B. people who have been declared legally incompetent.
C. members of a disenfranchised group.
D. people in a legal proceeding.
As its name implies, advocacy consultation involves acting as an advocate. It is a political form of consultation that has, as its primary goal, social change.
c. CORRECT The individuals listed in responses a, b, and d might be the clients in advocacy consultation, but this answer is best because it includes these individuals as well as others who may be disenfranchised.
While relaxing in front of the TV, Dexter D. is suddenly startled by strange noises coming from his basement and, as a result, his blood pressure increases, his heart starts racing, and he begins to sweat. Dexter's physical reactions to the strange noises are mediated by his \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ nervous system. Select one: A. enteric B. somatic C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic
a. Incorrect The enteric nervous system is sometimes categorized as part of the autonomic nervous system. It is a network of nerves located in the gastrointestinal tract and is believed to be involved in several functions including gastrointestinal motility and secretions, activities of the endocrine system, and regulation of immune and inflammatory processes.
b. Incorrect The somatic nervous system consists of sensory nerves that carry signals from the sensory receptors to the CNS and motor nerves that carry signals from the CNS to the skeletal muscles. It is responsible for activities that are ordinarily considered voluntary.
c. CORRECT The sympathetic nervous system is a branch of the autonomic nervous system. It mediates arousal and the expenditure of energy and prepares the body for fight or flight.
d. Incorrect The parasympathetic nervous system is another branch of the autonomic nervous system. It is involved in the conservation of energy and is active during digestion and periods of rest and relaxation.
With regard to gender and biological vulnerability, the research has most consistently supported which of the following?
Select one:
A. Males are more vulnerable than females with regard to physical health.
B. Females are more vulnerable than males with regard to physical health.
C. Males and females are similarly vulnerable with regard to physical health.
D. While females are more vulnerable than males during the prenatal and postnatal periods, males are subsequently more vulnerable than females with regard to physical health.
The commonly held belief that males are biologically more vulnerable than females has been supported by the research.
a. CORRECT The greater vulnerability of males is fairly consistent throughout the lifespan. For example, more males are stillborn or spontaneously aborted and are subsequently more vulnerable to physical and mental disorders that have been linked to biological factors.
Pavlov concluded that spontaneous recovery provided support for which of the following assumptions?
Select one:
A. Regardless of the number of conditioning trials, the CR is always weaker than the UR.
B. Extinction trials suppress (rather than eliminate) a conditioned response.
C. Negative punishment is more effective than positive punishment for suppressing an undesirable behavior.
D. Learning (but not performance) can occur without positive reinforcement.
Spontaneous recovery refers to the re-emergence of a conditioned response following extinction trials without additional conditioning trials.
b. CORRECT According to Pavlov, the spontaneous re-emergence of a conditioned response after it has been extinguished suggests that extinction trials suppress the conditioned response rather than eliminate it.
A psychologist’s behavior as a private citizen:
Select one:
A. can never serve as grounds for a charge of unethical conduct.
B. may serve as grounds for a charge of unethical conduct if it violates ethical guidelines.
C. may serve as grounds for a charge of unethical conduct if it compromises his/her professional responsibilities.
D. will serve as grounds for a charge of unethical conduct when it also violates the law.
c. CORRECT The Introduction to the APA’s Ethics Code states that the “purely private conduct of psychologists … is not within the purview of the Ethics Code.” However, Principle C (Professional and Scientific Responsibility) notes that when “psychologists’ conduct may compromise their professional responsibilities or reduce the public’s trust in psychology and psychologists,” personal misconduct may constitute a violation of the Ethics Code. Similar language is included in the Preamble of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
In his book, The Nature of Prejudice, Gordon Allport concludes that:
Select one:
A. stateways cannot change folkways.
B. stateways can only intensify existing folkways.
C. stateways are often in advance of folkways.
D. folkways always proceed stateways.
In contrast to the traditional view that “stateways cannot change folkways” (e.g., you cannot legislate against racial prejudice), Allport asserts that, at least in the United States, stateways are often in advance of folkways.
c. CORRECT Allport proposes that, while laws do not prevent violations altogether, they do act as a restraint and can, therefore, break the vicious cycle of racial prejudice and discrimination. In other words, by terminating the overt signs of prejudice through legislation, the open expression of prejudice is discouraged and, eventually, thoughts and attitudes “fall into line.”
From the perspective of Holland’s approach to career choice and career counseling, a highly differentiated person:
Select one:
A. resembles only one personality/occupational type.
B. has obtained a personality profile that is unique or atypical.
C. has scored highly on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality/occupational hexagon.
D. has vocational aspirations that correspond to several RIASEC categories.
Holland’s theory distinguishes between six personality and occupational types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (“RIASEC”).
a. CORRECT According to Holland, a person is highly differentiated when he/she obtains a high score on only one personality dimension. He also believed that a personality-occupational match is most accurate for predicting outcomes for those who are highly differentiated.
In Albert Ellis’s A-B-C model, B refers to:
Select one:
A. beliefs about an event.
B. behaviors that occur in response to an event.
C. biological predispositions.
D. baseline rates of responding.
Ellis’s rational-emotive behavior therapy is based on the assumption that behavioral and emotional reactions to events are due to beliefs about those events rather than to the events themselves.
a. CORRECT Ellis depicts the relationship between antecedent events, beliefs about those events, and reactions to those events in terms of an A-B-C model, where A represents the antecedent event, B represents beliefs about the event, and C represents the behavioral or emotional consequence of the beliefs.
The General Occupational Themes (GOT) scale of the current version of the Strong Interest Inventory provides information on which of the following? Select one: A. five personal styles B. 30 basic occupational interests C. Super's major life roles D. Holland's occupational themes
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on four scales: General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales.
d. CORRECT As its name implies, the General Occupational Themes Scale provides information on occupational themes and, more specifically, on Holland’s six occupational themes.
Research by Mayo and his colleagues found that worker productivity increased no matter what changes were made in environmental conditions, apparently because of the attention that workers were receiving as research participants. This phenomenon is referred to as the: Select one: A. Hawthorne effect. B. Zeigarnik effect. C. halo bias. D. confirmation bias.
a. CORRECT Knowing that Mayo and his colleagues conducted their studies at the Hawthorne Plant of the Western Electric Company would have helped you identify this as the correct response.
b. Incorrect The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones.
c. Incorrect The halo bias (effect) occurs when a rater’s rating of an employee on one dimension of performance affects how he/she rates the employee on other unrelated dimensions of performance.
d. Incorrect The confirmation bias is the tendency to search for or pay attention to information that verifys one’s beliefs.
Ella E. age 10, often says she doesn't want to go to school because she's afraid some of the children in her class will be "mean" to her. She seems overly concerned about her ability to perform well at school and in social situations and has trouble finishing her homework and other tasks because she keeps re-doing them because she wants them to be "perfect." Ella frequently says she has a headache and has trouble falling asleep at night. Her mother tries to keep Ella from watching the news because she's unwilling to go out of the house whenever there's a story about a local murder or accident. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis for Ella is: Select one: A. Separation Anxiety Disorder. B. Agoraphobia. C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder. D. Specific Phobia.
This child is expressing excessive worry about multiple situations.
a. Incorrect A diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder requires evidence of excessive anxiety concerning separation from those to whom the child is attached. This evidence is not provided in the description given in this question.
b. Incorrect The question does not indicate that the child has a fear of being in places where escape might be difficult or embarrassing or where help might not be available if panic-like symptoms develop, which are the essential features of Agoraphobia.
c. CORRECT Generalized Anxiety Disorder involves excessive worry or anxiety about a number of events or activities that the person finds difficult to control. Children with this disorder are often perfectionistic, filled with self-doubt, and typically exhibit physical signs of anxiety (e.g., headaches, stomachaches).
d. Incorrect Specific Phobia is characterized by a marked and persistent fear of a specific object or situation. The child’s fears in this case are broader than this and, therefore, Generalized Anxiety Disorder is the better diagnosis.
During the initial \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ stage of the development of the central nervous system, new cells are produced inside the neural tube. Select one: A. differentiation B. proliferation C. synaptogenesis D. apoptosis
The development of the central nervous system involves five stages: proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination, and synaptogenesis.
a. Incorrect Differentiation is the third stage in brain development and occurs when neurons of different types develop their own unique features.
b. CORRECT This question accurately describes the first stage of brain development - i.e., the generation of new cells is referred to as proliferation.
c. Incorrect Synaptogenesis is the formation of synapses and is the last of the five stages.
d. Incorrect Apoptosis refers to cell death. During the development of the CNS, too many cells are produced, and apoptosis is a normal process.
A "general representative sample" was used to develop which of the following Strong Interest Inventory scales? Select one: A. General Occupational Themes B. Basic Interest Scales C. Occupational Scales D. College Major Scales
The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales.
c. CORRECT The Occupational Scales were derived using a criterion keying method that involved comparing the responses of individuals employed in specific occupational groups to individuals in a general representative sample. The General Occupational Themes and Basic Interest Scales utilized a logical content method.
Recent surveys suggest that, for women, which of the following characteristics are associated with a high risk for divorce?
Select one:
A. marrying at an older age and coming from a single-parent home
B. marrying at a younger age and having a child within 7 months of marriage
C. having a lower level of education and marrying at an older age
D. having a higher level of education and cohabitating with the partner prior to marriage
b. CORRECT Marrying at a younger age and having a child before marriage or within 7 months of marriage is associated with a higher risk for divorce.
Criterion \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to the degree to which a supervisor's evaluation of an employee's job performance is biased by the supervisor's knowledge of the employee's score on the selection test used to hire the employee. Select one: A. deficiency B. contamination C. relevance D. partiality
In this situation, the supervisor’s knowledge of the employee’s selection test score is “contaminating” his/her rating of the employee on a criterion (job performance) measure.
b. CORRECT The situation described in this question illustrates criterion contamination.
Bob B. always perceives the sound of a piano as blue, the sound of a violin as green, and the sound of a trumpet as purple. This condition is referred to as: Select one: A. achromatopsia. B. paresthesia. C. synesthesia. D. simultagnosia.
c. CORRECT Synesthesia refers to a sensation that occurs in one sense modality when another modality has been stimulated - e.g., perceiving auditory stimuli as color.
As described by Piaget, the concrete operational stage extends from ages: Select one: A. birth to 2 years. B. 2 to 7 years. C. 7 to 11 years. D. 11 to 15 years.
Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. Note that the exact age at which each stage begins varies, depending on the individual’s experiences. However, of the age ranges listed, only one is most associated with the concrete operational stage.
c. CORRECT Piaget’s concrete operational stage extends from 7 to 11 years of age
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ research with chimpanzees led to his conclusion that the performance of a new behavior may be the result of insight learning. Select one: A. Kohler's B. Tolman's C. Watson's D. Thorndike's
a. CORRECT Kohler’s research led him to conclude that learning is not just the result of trial-and-error or reinforcement but involves cognitive restructuring, which he referred to as insight learning.
b. Incorrect Tolman is associated with latent learning.
c. Incorrect Watson used classical conditioning to establish a phobia in a young child.
d. Incorrect Thorndike developed the law of effect after observing that cats were more likely to repeat a behavior if they were reinforced for engaging in that behavior.
As a treatment for insomnia and other sleep problems, sleep hygiene education focuses on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that may be interfering with sleep. Select one: A. health and environmental factors B. dysfunctional cognitions C. emotional factors D. recent life events
Answer A is correct: Sleep hygiene education focuses on diet, substance use, exercise, and other health practices and light, temperature, noise, and other environmental factors that may interfere with sleep. Sleep hygiene education is usually combined with other interventions such as stimulus control, relaxation training, and cognitive strategies that focus on attitudes and beliefs that are contributing to sleep problems.
Niche-picking is the tendency:
Select one:
A. of parents to provide their child with experiences that encourage the development of the child’s genetic predispositions.
B. of a child’s genetic predispositions to evoke certain reactions from parents and others.
C. of children to seek experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions.
D. of a child’s genotype to restrict his or her phenotype to a small number of possible outcomes.
Scarr (1992) distinguishes between three types of genotype-environment correlation that help explain how heredity influences the types of environment a person is exposed to.
a. Incorrect This answer describes passive genotype-environment correlation.
b. Incorrect This answer describes evocative genotype-environment correlation.
c. CORRECT This answer describes active genotype-environment correlation, which is also known as niche picking.
d. Incorrect This answer describes canalization.
Longitudinal studies of children who attended Head Start programs have found that:
Select one:
A. early IQ gains and improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence and early adulthood.
B. early IQ gains decline but improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence.
C. early improvements in academic achievement decline by adolescence but initial IQ gains persist into adulthood.
D. attendees are indistinguishable from non-attendees on measures of IQ and academic achievement by adolescence.
b. CORRECT While early research on Head Start found that it has positive effects on IQ, subsequent longitudinal studies found that IQ gains usually decline over time but that beneficial effects on academic achievement and success persist into adolescence and early adulthood.
The Embedded Figures Test is a measure of:
Select one:
A. visual-motor integration.
B. cognitive flexibility.
C. field dependence/independence.
D. ability to alter cognitive strategies.
c. CORRECT The Embedded Figures Test is a paper-and-pencil measure of field independence and dependence and its items require the examinee to separate a targeted figure from a complex background.
Carl Jung’s archetypes are best conceptualized as:
Select one:
A. repressed emotion-laden material.
B. universal primordial images or patterns.
C. the primary components of the ego.
D. acquired tendencies that contribute to the personal unconscious.
Jung considered the archetypes to be an important contributor to personality development.
b. CORRECT Archetypes are primordial images that are part of the collective unconscious, are passed down from one generation to the next, and cause people to experience certain phenomena in a universal way.
An \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ intervention focuses on changing environmental conditions so that they better accommodate the characteristics of the individual. Select one: A. emic B. etic C. alloplastic D. autoplastic
c. CORRECT An alloplastic intervention alters environmental conditions that contribute to or cause personal distress.
A person with Wernicke’s aphasia will:
Select one:
A. have trouble understanding language without substantial deficits in producing language.
B. have trouble producing language without substantial deficits in understanding language.
C. have trouble understanding language and will speak slowly and with great difficulty.
D. have trouble understanding language and will have speech that is fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
d. CORRECT Wernicke’s aphasia is also known as receptive aphasia and involves deficits in both production and comprehension of language. In terms of production, people with Wernicke’s aphasia exhibit speech that is rapid and fluent but is largely devoid of meaning.
b. Incorrect This describes Broca’s aphasia.
The most common symptoms of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) are:
Select one:
A. immunologic abnormalities and delayed physical and cognitive development.
B. hyperactivity, irritability, and irregular sleep and feeding habits.
C. retarded physical growth, facial deformities, and hyperactivity.
D. intellectual disabilities and hearing and visual impairments.
Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) occurs when a type of herpes virus is passed from an infected pregnant woman to her fetus through the placenta. a. Incorrect These are signs of HIV infection in childhood.
b. Incorrect These symptoms are associated with prenatal malnutrition but not with congenital CMV.
c. Incorrect These are some of the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), which is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD).
d. CORRECT These are the most common symptoms of congenital CMV.
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding sexual intimacies with supervisees?
Select one:
A. Ethical guidelines do not prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees.
B. Ethical guidelines prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees under any circumstances.
C. Ethical guidelines prohibit sexual relationships with current supervisees only when the relationship will impair the psychologists objectivity and effectiveness as a supervisor.
D. Ethical guidelines prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees over whom the psychologist has evaluative authority.
d. CORRECT Standard 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics prohibit psychologists from becoming involved in sexual relationships with students and supervisees over whom they have evaluative authority.
The James-Lange theory of emotions emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A. cognitive appraisal of the situation.
B. perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
C. social comparisons.
D. the activity of the endocrine system.
The James-Lange theory is a peripheralist theory of emotion that focuses on perceptions of bodily reactions to stimuli.
b. CORRECT According to James-Lange theory, our emotions are based on our perceptions or interpretations of bodily responses – e.g., “I must be afraid because my heart is racing and my knees are shaking.”
Dr. La-Keysha Leonard, a licensed psychologist, has been seeing a prison inmate in group therapy for several months and is asked by the parole board to evaluate the inmate to assist with their decision regarding his parole. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Leonard should:
Select one:
A. agree to evaluate the inmate.
B. agree to evaluate the inmate only if she believes it is in the best interests of the inmate to do so.
C. agree to do so only if she is allowed to explain the purpose of the evaluation and the limits on confidentiality to the inmate.
D. refuse to evaluate the inmate for the purpose of parole.
d. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the provisions of the APA’s Ethics Code which prohibit psychologists from becoming involved in multiple relationships that might impair their objectivity and the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology which warns psychologists about the need for caution in dual relationships and roles in forensic settings. (The actions described in answer a, b, and c do not constitute sufficient caution.)
Dr. Vic Vasquez, the director of a private counseling center, prepares and distributes a brochure describing the center’s services. The brochure is available to potential clients and other interested people, and its text includes a list of the center’s staff members and their credentials. Specifically, it indicates that five of the six members have doctoral degrees from accredited universities and that the staff member who does not have a degree is a “Ph.D. candidate.” The designation of the nondegreed staff member is:
Select one:
A. acceptable because it accurately reflects the staff members status.
B. acceptable because it was not meant to be deceptive.
C. acceptable because this issue is not addressed by ethical guidelines.
D. unacceptable because it is potentially misleading.
d. CORRECT Ethical guidelines caution against presenting one’s credentials in a way that could be misleading. Dr. Vasquez should not have listed the staff member as a “Ph.D. candidate” because it is possible that many people will not understand what this means.
When the heterotrait-monomethod coefficient is large, this indicates: Select one: A. a lack of differential validity. B. a lack of discriminant validity. C. adequate convergent validity. D. adequate concurrent validity.
The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient represents the correlation between different traits being measured with the same kind of method.
b. CORRECT If you are validating a test, you want the heterotrait-monomethod coefficient to be low so that you have evidence of discriminant (divergent) validity. When this coefficient is large, this indicates a lack of discriminant validity. Additional information on the heterotrait-monomethod coefficient and other coefficients included in a multitrait-multimethod matrix is provided in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines regarding the use of inducements to encourage individuals to participate in a research study?
Select one:
A. Financial and other inducements are acceptable only when they do not coerce participation in the research study.
B. Financial and other inducements are acceptable only when the risks for participating in the study are clearly described to potential participants.
C. Financial and other inducements are acceptable only when alternative methods for obtaining participants are unavailable.
D. Financial inducements are unacceptable under any circumstances.
a. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. For example, Standard 8.06 of the Ethics Code states that “psychologists make reasonable efforts to avoid offering excessive or inappropriate financial or other inducements for research participation when such inducements are likely to coerce participation.”
Frame-of-reference training is used to:
Select one:
A. increase the use of effective rehearsal strategies in older adults.
B. improve the diagnostic accuracy of clinical psychologists.
C. improve a raters accuracy when evaluating a ratees performance.
D. train and evaluate managerial-level employees.
c. CORRECT The goal of FOR training is to improve raters’ accuracy when completing performance appraisals by helping them identify and focus on the most important job performance dimensions and distinguish behaviors that are indicative of good, average, and poor performance within each dimension.
A researcher would use which of the following techniques when her goal is to evaluate the cause-and-effect or predictive relationships between measured variables and latent factors? Select one: A. meta-analysis B. multitrait-multimethod matrix C. discriminant function analysis D. structural equation modeling
a. Incorrect Meta-analysis is used to evaluate an intervention by combining the results of a number of research studies.
b. Incorrect The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to evaluate convergent and divergent validity.
c. Incorrect Discriminant function analysis is used to classify people into criterion groups based on their scores or status on two or more predictors.
d. CORRECT Structural equation model is used to explore or confirm hypothesized relationships between both measured and latent variables.
Studying new information beyond the point of mastery is referred to as: Select one: A. overlearning. B. overtraining. C. elaborative rehearsal. D. maintenance rehearsal.
a. CORRECT Overlearning is what it sounds like – i.e., studying or reviewing material past the point of mastery.
b. Incorrect Overtraining is a term used in sports psychology and refers to physical and psychological stress resulting from excessive athletic training.
c. Incorrect Elaborative rehearsal involves related new information to existing information and is useful for ensuring that information is stored in long-term memory.
d. Incorrect Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing.
In terms of item response theory, the slope (steepness) of the item characteristic curve indicates the item’s:
Select one:
A. level of difficulty.
B. ability to discriminate between examinees.
C. internal consistency reliability.
D. criterion-related validity.
The item characteristic curve provides three pieces of information about an item - i.e., its difficulty, ability to discriminate between those who are high and low on the characteristic being measured, and the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing.
b. CORRECT The steeper the slope of the item characteristic curve, the better its ability to discriminate between examinees who are high and low on the characteristic being measured.
At the end of her third therapy session with Dr. Beatrice Bramwell, a client reveals that he is also in therapy with another psychologist. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Bramwell should:
Select one:
A. inform the client that hell have to make a choice in the near future about which therapist to continue seeing.
B. inform the client that it would be unethical to continue seeing him while he is receiving treatment from another psychologist.
C. call the other psychologist to inform him of the situation and obtain his permission to continue therapy with the client.
D. discuss the treatment issues relevant to this situation with the client during the next session.
d. CORRECT In this situation, Dr. Bramwell would want to consider the client’s welfare and avoid duplicating services or working at cross purposes with the other psychologist. Consequently, of the answers given, this is the best one.
Syntactic bootstrapping is useful for understanding how children:
Select one:
A. learn how to pronounce new words.
B. narrow the possible meanings of new words.
C. learn how words are combined to form a sentence.
D. distinguish between similarly sounding words.
b. CORRECT Syntactic bootstrapping refers to a child’s use of syntactic knowledge to learn the meaning of new words.
Adults who are classified as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on the Adult Attachment Interview describe their childhood relationships with parents using positive terms, but their specific childhood memories contradict or do not support these positive descriptions. Select one: A. autonomous B. preoccupied C. dismissing D. distant
The Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) assesses the examinee’s childhood relationships with his/her mother and father and categorizes the examinee’s attachment style as autonomous, preoccupied, or dismissing.
a. Incorrect Examinees classified as autonomous provide coherent descriptions of their childhood relationships.
b. Incorrect Examinees classified as preoccupied become very angry or confused when describing their childhood relationships with parents and may be preoccupied with a parent.
c. CORRECT Examinees classified as dismissing provide inconsistent and incoherent descriptions of their childhood relationships with parents
The base rate fallacy refers to the tendency to:
Select one:
A. believe that a particular chance event is affected by the occurrence of previous events.
B. overestimate the link between two events that are unrelated or only slightly related.
C. focus on a specific case rather than general information when reaching a conclusion or making a judgment.
D. overestimate the number of people who share one’s beliefs, opinions, and attitudes.
As its name implies, the base rate fallacy occurs when a person ignores base rate information.
a. Incorrect This answer describes the gambler’s fallacy.
b. Incorrect This describes the phenomenon known as the illusory correlation.
c. CORRECT The tendency to ignore base rate (general)information and to focus, instead, on a specific case is referred to as the base rate fallacy.
d. Incorrect This answer describes the false consensus bias.
A physician is most likely to prescribe which of the following for a 36-year old man who has just received a diagnosis of Premature Ejaculation?
Select one:
A. a drug that stimulates dopamine receptors
B. a drug that inhibits GABA receptors
C. a drug that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
D. a drug that stimulates the reuptake of endorphins
c. CORRECT SSRIs (e.g., dapoxetine) are currently used to treat premature ejaculation.
Results of Schachter and Singer’s (1962) “epinephrine study” led them to conclude that a person’s subjective emotional response to an event:
Select one:
A. is determined entirely by environmental cues.
B. is determined entirely by the person’s physiological reaction to the event.
C. depends primarily on the simultaneous activation of certain peripheral and brain mechanisms.
D. depends on a combination of the person’s physical reaction to and cognitive interpretation of the event
d. CORRECT According to Schachter and Singer’s (1962) two-factor theory, subjective emotional experience is the consequence of a combination of physical arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal and the context in which it occurs.
The research has shown that, when Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is comorbid with other psychiatric disorders, symptoms tend to be more severe and outcomes are often worse. The studies have also found that about \_\_\_\_\_ percent of people with GAD have a comorbid psychiatric disorder. Select one: A. 20 to 30 B. 40 to 50 C. 60 to 70 D. 80 to 90
Answer D is correct: GAD is highly comorbid with other psychiatric disorders, with studies reporting comorbidity rates ranging from about 80 to 90%. The National Comorbidity Study Replication (NCS-R), for example, found a comorbidity rate of 85% (Kessler et al., 2005).
Studies using the seaslug Aplysia as the research subject have provided information on which of the following? Select one: A. pain sensitivity B. stimulus and response generalization C. habituation and sensitization D. synaptogenesis
Because of its simple nervous system and the relatively large size of its neurons, the seaslug Aplysia has been a popular subject for researchers interested in the physiology of learning.
c. CORRECT Researchers using Aplysia as their research subject have investigated the neural changes associated with habitation, sensitization, and classical conditioning.
When the number of participants in a research study is too small to permit the use of a completely counterbalanced research design, a researcher would use which of the following? Select one: A. changing criterion design B. Latin square design C. multiple baseline design D. Solomon four-group design
Counterbalancing is a within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants. The goal of counterbalancing is to use every possible sequence of treatments with an equal number of participants for each sequence.
a. Incorrect The changing criterion design is a type of single case design that consists of a series of phases in which a different behavioral criterion is set for each phase. If the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase, the treatment is considered to be effective.
b. CORRECT When the number of participants does not permit a completely counterbalanced design a researcher may use partial counterbalancing. The Latin square design is a type of partial counterbalancing that helps determine exactly what sequences of a treatment will be administered to different groups of participants.
c. Incorrect The multiple baseline design is a type of single case design that involves sequentially applying a treatment across participants, settings, or behaviors.
d. Incorrect The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity.
When developing an intervention for children with behavioral problems, you are focusing on Bronfenbrenner's "microsystem." This means that you are targeting: Select one: A. the behavioral problems themselves. B. the children's families. C. the parents' support systems. D. community resources.
Bronfenbrenner distinguishes between five interacting systems in describing the environmental influences on development - microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosysem.
b. CORRECT The child’s family is a primary aspect of the microsystem (i.e., of the child’s immediate environment).
Recent research investigating treatments for Generalized Anxiety Disorder suggests that the most effective intervention is: Select one: A. EMDR. B. systematic desensitization. C. stress inoculation training. D. cognitive-behavioral therapy.
A number of well-designed studies on interventions for Generalized Anxiety Disorder confirm that the best treatment is cognitive or cognitive-behavioral in nature.
d. CORRECT The studies have consistently found that a multicomponent cognitive or cognitive-behavioral approach is most effective for Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
A psychologist develops a parent mentoring program for parents who have a history of abusing or neglecting their children. Participants will have access to nonabusive parents who will act as role models as well as support during times of crisis. This is an example of: Select one: A. primary prevention. B. secondary prevention. C. tertiary prevention. D. ancillary prevention.
a. Incorrect Primary preventions are designed to keep a problem from developing.
b. Incorrect Secondary preventions are aimed at early identification and intervention.
c. CORRECT The goal of tertiary preventions is to prevent a problem from becoming chronic or to prevent relapse.
