Exam Questions Flashcards
Data from the National Health Care Survey (Raofi & Schappert, 2006) indicate that, in general, central nervous system drugs are most commonly provided, prescribed, or continued at ambulatory office visits by primary care physicians. An exception to this general rule are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which are most commonly provided, prescribed, or continued by practitioners in medical specialty offices. A. antianxiety drugs B. antidepressants C. antipsychotic and antimanic drugs D. sedatives and hypnotics
c. CORRECT Of the specific CNS drugs identified in the survey, antipsychotics and antimanics were the only ones that were provided or prescribed more often by practitioners in medical specialty offices (e.g., psychiatrists and neurologists) than by primary care physicians.
This is a difficult question and one that you would not want too spend to much time trying to figure out if you are unfamiliar with the results of the National Health Care Survey.
A message is likely to be most persuasive when:
A. the message is in the listener’s latitude of noncommitment and there is a large discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message.
B. the message is in the listener’s latitude of noncomitment and there is a small to moderate discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message. Incorrect
C. the message is in the listener’s latitude of acceptance and there is a moderate discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message.
D. the message is in the listener’s latitude of acceptance and there is a large discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message.
c. CORRECT The research has found that people are most likely to be persuaded when the message targets their latitude of acceptance (i.e., the message represents an opinion that a listener finds tolerable and would be willing to consider) and when there is a small to moderate discrepancy between their initial position and the position advocated by the message.
This question requires you to be familiar with Social Judgment Theory, which is described in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
A 36-year-old woman has extensive deficits in declarative memory as the result of a severe head trauma. This means that she will have trouble recalling:
A. what she ate for dinner the previous evening.
B. how to ride a bicycle and what she ate for dinner.
C. the definition of amnesia.
D. what she ate for dinner and the definition of amnesia.
Declarative memory consists of episodic and semantic memory.
d. CORRECT Episodic memory is memory for personally experienced events (e.g., what one had for dinner the previous evening). Semantic memory is memory for factual knowledge (e.g., the definition of amnesia). Extensive impairment in declarative memory would, therefore, involve both types of memory, so this is the best answer.
The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is: Select one: A. internalization. B. incorporation. C. integrative awareness. D. autonomy
The most recent version of Cross’s model distinguishes between four stages of identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization.
a. CORRECT An African-American in the immersion stage has developed a strong ethnic identity but has also resolved global anti-white sentiments and become more bicultural.
Your colleague plans to use the "dismantling strategy" to identify the components of systematic desensitization that contribute most to its effectiveness. Being familiar with previous research using this strategy, you predict that she will find which of the following to be the critical component? Select one: A. reciprocal inhibition B. negative reinforcement C. classical extinction D. escape conditioning
c. CORRECT The dismantling strategy involves comparing the effects of the various components of an intervention by administering different components to different participants. The use of this strategy to identify the effective components of systematic desensitization has found that the critical component is extinction of the anxiety response through repeated exposure to the CS without the US.
Although Wolpe originally developed systematic desensitization as an application of reciprocal inhibition, research using the dismantling strategy has found that reciprocal inhibition is not the critical component.
In group therapy, members establish a “taking turns” pattern in which each group session is devoted, sequentially, to each group member. In response to this situation, Yalom (1985) recommends:
A. mass group interpretation.
B. here-and-now activation.
C. paradoxical prescription.
D. reframing.
In his book, The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, Yalom refers to the situation described in this question as an example of antitherapeutic group norms.
a. CORRECT Yalom considers such turn-taking as an obstacle to group therapy (e.g., because it may force some members to self-disclose prematurely) and recommends that it be dealt with through the use of mass group interpretation. This involves discussing the problem and its potential for negative effects on group members and the group process.
As a diathesis-stress model, Beck's cognitive theory predicts that which of the following serves as the diathesis in the development of depressive symptomology? Select one: A. dysfunctional schemas B. a genetic predisposition C. exposure to a negative event D. faulty attributions
Diathesis-stress models describe illness as the result of a combination of vulnerability (diathesis) and stress, with the nature of the vulnerability depending on the type of theory. Not surprisingly, Beck’s cognitive theory of depression identifies cognitive factors as the source of vulnerability.
a. CORRECT Beck’s cognitive diathesis-stress model of depression proposes that certain people have depressogenic schemas that make them vulnerable to experiencing depression when exposed to a negative life event.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was among the first researchers to propose the existence of a neural circuit that mediates the experience and expression of emotion. Select one: A. Sperry B. Fechner C. Papez D. Penfield
c. CORRECT Papez concluded that destruction of certain interconnected regions in the brain has an adverse impact on emotional experience and expression. These regions include the mammillary bodies, anterior thalamus, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, and fornix.
According to Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) situational leadership model, a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ leader is most effective for an employee who is low in ability and high in motivation. Select one: A. telling B. selling C. delegating D. participating
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model distinguishes between the four leadership styles listed in the answers to this question and proposes that the best style is the one that matches the employee’s ability and motivation.
a. Incorrect A telling leader is best for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
b. CORRECT A selling leader is best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
Incorrect A delegating leader is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
d. Incorrect A participating leader is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
An African American client in the dissonance stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model will exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A. self-deprecating and same-group deprecating attitudes
B. self-appreciating but dominant-group deprecating attitudes
C. a conflict between self-appreciating and self-deprecating attitudes and between same-group appreciating and same-group deprecating attitudes
D. concern over the basis of his/her self-appreciating and unequivocal same-group appreciating attitudes
The stages of the Atkinson, Morten, and Sue model are each characterized by different attitudes toward oneself, one’s own (same) minority group, other minority groups, and the majority (mainstream) group.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the conformity stage (stage 1).
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of the resistance and immersion stage (stage 3).
c. CORRECT Not surprisingly, a person in the dissonance stage (stage 2) will be conflicted about his/her attitudes.
d. Incorrect This is characteristic of the introspection stage (stage 4).
You have been hired by a school psychologist to help enhance her ability to work with children with conduct problems. During the consultation, you realize that the psychologist is exhibiting "theme interference" - that is, she has a marked lack of objectivity when working with conduct-disordered children due to her own childhood experience with an emotionally-disturbed sibling. The type of consultation you are involved in is best described as: Select one: A. process-centered. B. advocacy-centered. C. client-centered case consultation. D. consultee-centered case consultation
In this situation, you have been hired by the school psychologist to help her deal more effectively with a particular type of client.
a. Incorrect Process consultation is a type of organizational consultation and development that focuses on communication and other employee processes.
b. Incorrect The purpose of advocacy consultation is to act as an advocate for a disenfranchised group.
c. Incorrect In client-centered case consultation, the focus of the consultation is on a specific client (not a group of clients).
d. CORRECT In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the consultee’s skill, knowledge, or objectivity, and the goal is to improve the consultee’s effectiveness with members of a particular population.
In adults, Major Depressive Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males. This gender difference:
Select one:
A. is the opposite of what is found in prepubertal children.
B. is the same as what is found in prepubertal children.
C. does not become evident until adolescence.
D. does not become evident until early adulthood.
Answer C is correct: Although there is some evidence that young girls exhibit more risk factors for depression during childhood, it is not until puberty that the gender difference in rates of Major Depressive Disorder becomes evident.
The final group product is most affected by the performance of the member who makes the smallest contribution on which type of task? Select one: A. compensatory B. disjunctive C. conjunctive D. additive
c. CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the group product is limited by the contribution of the worst-performing member.
As noted in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, group tasks can be describd as compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, or additive.
When creating an acrostic:
Select one:
A. a sentence or rhyme is formed using words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized.
B. a word or pronounceable sequence of letters is created from the first letter of the words to be memorized.
C. a word or phrase is constructed from another word by rearranging the letters of that word.
D. an image is created from the images of two or more words.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with an acrostic and the other mnemonic devices described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT An acrostic is a phrase that is formed from words that begin with the first letter of each word to be memorized. “See Piaget creep forward” is an acrostic for Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development (sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational).
b. Incorrect This describes an acronym, which is a type of word play rather than a mnemonic device.
c. Incorrect This describes an anagram.
d. Incorrect This describes the keyword method.
As used by Lorenz (1965), the term “critical period” refers to:
Select one:
A. the period from ages three to six months during which the basic structure of the personality is formed.
B. periods when the infant shows predictable “growth spurts.”
C. the third trimester when the brain is at greatest vulnerability to structural damage.
D. a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother.
The term “critical period” refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which geese bond with (imprint on) their mothers.
d. CORRECT Lorenz found that the “critical period” for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.
Which of the following sleep abnormalities have been linked to Major Depressive Disorder?
Select one:
A. increased Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep
B. decreased duration of REM sleep early in the night
C. early onset of REM sleep
D. shortened sleep latency
Answer C is correct. A decreased REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) is one of several sleep abnormalities associated with MDD.
Answers A, B, and D: The abnormalities listed in these answers are the opposite of what is true – i.e., MDD is associated with decreased Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep, an increased duration of REM sleep early in the night, and a prolonged sleep latency.
You have been seeing a couple in conjoint therapy for seven months and anticipate that treatment will be ending soon. One day you receive a call from the wife who says she would like to start seeing you in individual therapy. Your best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A. make an appointment with her as long as you believe that she will benefit from individual therapy.
B. make an appointment with her only if it is your practice to see members of couples conjointly and individually.
C. suggest that you discuss this with her during the next conjoint session.
D. tell her that you’d be glad to see her individually once conjoint treatment has been terminated.
This is a difficult question because not enough information is given to know why the request for individual therapy was made and what has already been discussed about individual therapy with the couple.
c. CORRECT To identify why the woman is seeking individual therapy and to avoid “secrets” and conflicts regarding confidentiality, the best course of action would be to discuss the possibility of seeing the woman in individual therapy during the next conjoint session.
Several authorities have noted that traditional forms of psychotherapy reflect a Eurocentric (Western) perspective that emphasizes: Select one: A. a concrete non-linear approach. B. a linear cause-effect approach. C. a reciprocal (interactive) approach. D. a directive behavioral approach.
b. CORRECT The Eurocentric perspective emphasizes one-on-one problem-solving and adopts an atomistic, linear, and reductionist cause-effect approach.
This issue has been addressed by several experts interested in family therapy or cross-cultural counseling.
Super's life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between the individual's life stages and his/her: Select one: A. level of career differentiation. B. stage of ego identity development. C. career interests. D. life roles.
Super’s life-space, life-span theory of career development integrates several concepts, and his life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between two of these concepts.
a. Incorrect Differentiation is a term used by Holland to describe the clarity of a person’s vocational personality type. According to Holland, a person has a high degree of differentiation when he/she obtains a high score on one personality type and low scores on the other types.
b. Incorrect Ego identity is a focus of Tiedeman and O’Hara’s career identity development model.
c. Incorrect Career interests are not depicted in Super’s life-career rainbow.
d. CORRECT Super used the life-career rainbow to depict the impact of a person’s life stage and life roles on his/her career development.
When making the appointment with a new client for her first therapy session, Dr. Steven Sue asks the client to notice whether any changes in her behavior occur between their phone conversation and her first therapy session. Then, during the first session, Dr. Sue asks the client what she noticed. Apparently, Dr. Sue is a practitioner of: Select one: A. motivational interviewing. B. interpersonal therapy. C. solution-focused therapy. D. reality therapy.
c. CORRECT Asking a client to notice if any changes in behavior occur between the initial phone conversation and first therapy session is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to obtain information that can help identify solutions to the client’s problem.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major assumptions and processes of the four therapies listed in the answers to this question.
According to Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, a task-motivated ("low LPC") leader is most effective when his or her relations with subordinates are:
Select one:
A. very good.
B. very poor.
C. very good or very poor.
D. moderate.Fiedler’s theory predicts that task-motivated (low LPC) leaders and relationship-motivated (high LPC) leaders are most effective in different circumstances. One circumstance that determines the best leadership style is the nature of leader-member relations.
c. CORRECT Task-motivated leaders are most effective in extreme situations - that is, when leader-member relations are either very good or very poor.
d. Incorrect Relationship-motivated leaders are most effective in less extreme situations - e.g., when leader-member relations are moderate (between good and poor).
Bill B., a 26-year old small business owner, has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently "blows his fuse" at family members and employees, and has his wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn't have the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and often does things without thinking about the consequences. When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving. All through school, his teachers said he wasn't living up to his potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Bill is: Select one: A. Antisocial Personality Disorder. B. Adult Antisocial Behavior. C. ADHD. D. Bipolar I Disorder.
Answer C is correct: Bill’s childhood history of problem behaviors and his current attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of ADHD.
Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior.
Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior that is not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder or other mental disorder.
Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill’s symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder.
Constructional apraxia is caused by damage to the: Select one: A. corpus callosum. B. parietal lobe. C. basal ganglia. D. temporal lobe.
Constructional apraxia is characterized by an inability to copy or draw figures or to arrange blocks in a pattern.
b. CORRECT Apraxia involves an inability to perform skilled movements that are not due to muscle weakness, sensory loss, general intellectual deterioration, or lack of cooperation. Most forms of apraxia (including constructional apraxia) are caused by damage to the parietal lobe.
Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of Huntington's disease? Select one: A. anxiety, depression, and apathy B. a "dance-like" gait C. slow writhing movements D. apraxia, aphasia, and agnosia
Huntington’s disease produces a form of subcortical dementia and, therefore, has symptoms that differ somewhat from dementia due to Alzheimer’s disease and other forms of cortical dementia.
a. Incorrect Emotional and personality changes are often the first signs of Huntington’s disease.
b. Incorrect A dance-like gait is characteristic of Huntington’s disease.
c. Incorrect Slow writing movements (athetosis) are characteristic of this disorder.
d. CORRECT These are symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease and other cortical dementias.
Generally speaking, compared to first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine, risperidone) are:
Select one:
A. just as likely to cause tardive dyskinesia but less likely to cause agranulocytosis or other blood dyscrasia.
B. just as likely to cause tardive dyskinesia and more likely to cause agranulocytosis or other blood dyscrasia.
C. more likely to cause tardive dyskinesia.
D. less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the side effects of the first- and second-generation antipsychotics (which are also known as traditional and atypical antipsychotics, respectively).
b. Incorrect Although the second-generation drugs are more likely to produce agranulocytosis and other blood dyscrasias, they are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia.
d. CORRECT Second-generation antipsychotics are less likely than first-generation antipsychotics to produce tardive dyskinesia. (Note, however, that the risk for tardive dyskinesia is slightly higher for risperidone than for clozapine but that that the risk with risperidone is still lower than the risk with the first-generation drugs.)
To maximize the cueing function of feedback regarding goal achievement:
Select one:
A. internal and external rewards must be available when goals are achieved.
B. the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature.
C. the feedback should be outcome (versus process) oriented.
D. the level of behavior required to achieve the goal must be attainable.
This is an example of the “distant galaxy” questions that occasionally appear on the licensing exam. Note that the best strategy for these questions is to use what you know and to avoid being enticed by responses that “sound impressive.”
a. Incorrect Rewards are important in goal achievement but are associated more with the motivating function of feedback than its cueing function.
b. CORRECT Common sense probably suggests that this is the correct answer and, in fact, it is. Feedback is more effective when it is specific than when it is global or general.
c. Incorrect To maximize its effectiveness, feedback should provide information about both outcome and process.
d. Incorrect This is also important but, again, is more relevant to the motivating function of feedback.
The developer of a new predictor realizes that the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient has been affected by “criterion contamination.” If the developer conducts a new validity study and eliminates the effects of criterion contamination, he/she can expect which of the following to occur?
Select one:
A. The new validity coefficient will be larger in magnitude than the original coefficient.
B. The new validity coefficient will be smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.
C. The new validity coefficient will be either larger or smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.
D. The new validity coefficient will be neither larger nor smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.
b. CORRECT Criterion contamination artificially inflates the correlation coefficient. Therefore, the elimination of criterion contamination would lower the coefficient.
When a rater’s knowledge of the ratees’ predictor scores affects his/her ratings of the ratees on the criterion measure (i.e., when the rater rates a ratee high on the criterion because the ratee has scored high on the predictor and vice-versa), an artificially strong relationship is created between the predictor and criterion.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a neuroleptic-induced movement disorder that is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness accompanied by stereotypical motor movements such as fidgeting, pacing, or foot tapping. Select one: A. Dystonia B. Akathisia C. Akinesia D. Parkinsonism
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the characteristics of the four conditions listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Dystonia is characterized by “abnormal and prolonged contraction of the muscles of the eyes …, head, neck …, limbs, or truck” (DSM-5, p. 711). Acquired dystonia is caused by damage to the basal ganglia.
b. CORRECT The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of akathisia, which usually develops within a few weeks after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic drug.
c. Incorrect Akinesia is one of the symptoms of neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism and involves a slowing or lack of normal motor function. Loss of ability to move muscles. Dyskinesia can happen with conditions in which your muscles twitch or move involuntarily. In akinesia, you are unable to direct your muscles to move (sometimes entirely).
d. Incorrect Parkinsonism involves tremor, muscle rigidity, and akinesia.
Habit reversal training is most likely to be used to treat which of the following disorders? Select one: A. Reactive Attachment Disorder B. Intermittent Explosive Disorder C. Transvestic Disorder D. Childhood Onset Fluency Disorder
Answer D is correct: Habit reversal training was originally designed as a treatment for nervous habits and motor tics and has also been found useful for treating Childhood Onset Fluency Disorder (stuttering). It incorporates awareness, relaxation, motivation, competing response, and generalization training.
According to Selye (1956), during the \_\_\_\_\_\_ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which causes the adrenal cortex to release cortisol. Select one: A. alarm B. resistance C. preparation D. exhaustion
b. CORRECT The resistance stage occurs when stress persists and, as a result, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release ACTH which then activates the adrenal cortex to release the stress hormone cortisol.
The progression of Alzheimer’s disease is often described in terms of three stages. Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of the first stage?
Select one:
A. anterograde amnesia, tremor or clumsiness, apathy, and alexia
B. anterograde amnesia, wandering, irritability or sadness, and anomia
C. anterograde and retrograde amnesia, ideomotor apraxia, restlessness, and labile mood
D. retrograde amnesia, labile mood, ideomotor apraxia, and wandering
Answer B is correct: The symptoms listed in this answer are characteristic of the initial stage of Alzheimer’s disease. Some or all of the symptoms listed in the other answers are either characteristic of the second or third stage or are not common symptoms of this disorder. (A description of the stages is provided in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.)
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is best described as the "gateway to memory" because of its involvement in the storage of new information. Select one: A. hippocampus B. hypothalamus C. thalamus D. R.A.S.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions of the brain structures listed in the answers to this question.
a. CORRECT Damage to the hippocampus is associated with memory impairments, especially impairments in retaining recently acquired information.
b. Incorrect The hypothalamus is involved in a number of important functions including the maintenance of the body’s internal balance (homeostasis).
c. Incorrect The thalamus relays sensory messages to the cortex.
d. Incorrect The reticular activating system (RAS) is involved in arousing the cortex and screening incoming information.
Bouchard and McGue (1981) reported a correlation coefficient of .45 for the IQ test scores of:
Select one:
A. biological parent and child (together).
B. biological parent and child (apart).
C. biological siblings raised together.
D. biological siblings raised apart.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the correlation coefficients reported by Bouchard and McGue (1981). These are provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect The reported correlation for a biological parent and his/her child when the child is raised by that parent is .39.
b. Incorrect The reported correlation for a biological parent and his/her child when the child is not raised by that parent is .22.
c. CORRECT Bouchard and McGue reported a correlation of .45 for biological siblings reared together.
d. Incorrect These investigators reported a correlation of .24 for biological siblings reared apart.
A study conducted by Buhrmester and Furman (1990) of 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th graders found that, as children approach the end of middle childhood, relationships between siblings become more: Select one: A. distant. B. egalitarian. C. conflictual. D. complementary.
Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism with increasing age
b. CORRECT The study cited in the question found that, by the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.
Research investigating the relationship between interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for: Select one: A. lower-class people. B. middle-class people. C. upper-class people. D. lower-and upper-class people.
Socioeconomic status is one factor that has been found to affect the predictive validity of interest inventories. a. Incorrect Lower-class people do not always have the opportunity to pursue occupations that coincide with their interests and frequently choose jobs that provide the greatest pay and security.
b. CORRECT Members of the middle-class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
c. Incorrect Upper-class individuals often choose occupations on the basis of family tradition or societal expectations rather than interests.
Among men, the lowest rates of suicide are for those who are: Select one: A. single. B. divorced. C. married. D. cohabiting.
Answer C is correct: Studies have found that divorced and separated individuals have the highest risk for suicide and are about twice as likely to commit suicide than those who are married. Conversely, those who are married are least likely to commit suicide. Note that there is some evidence that the relationship between marital status and suicide risk may be statistically significant for men only.
When using the Premack Principle to increase a desirable behavior, the reinforcer is:
Select one:
A. a stimulus that naturally elicits the target behavior.
B. a stimulus that can be applied intermittently following the target behavior.
C. a generalized conditioned reinforcer.
D. a high probability behavior.
d. CORRECT When using the Premack Principle, a high probability behavior is used to reinforce a low probability behavior in order to increase the frequency of the low probability behavior.
The Premack Principle is an application of positive reinforcement.
For Miller and Dollard (1941), the approach-approach conflict:
Select one:
A. is a dilemma because as soon as the individual approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal increases in strength.
B. is a dilemma that is often resolved by “leaving the field” and choosing a third goal.
C. is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases.
D. is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected
Miller and Dollard distinguish between three conflicts: approach-avoidance, avoidance-avoidance, and approach-approach.
a. Incorrect This is not a prediction made by Miller and Dollard but does sound somewhat like what Lewin concluded about this type of dilemma.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like what Lewin concluded about avoidance-avoidance conflicts.
c. CORRECT According to Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating.
Erikson identified identity formation as the key issue during adolescence. At around age 18 or 19, this issue begins to be replaced by which of the following?
Select one:
A. the need to “repudiate one’s choices.”
B. the need to develop interpersonal closeness and solidarity.
C. the need to achieve a higher degree of individuation.
D. the need to be productive and creative.
Erikson’s stage of identity vs. role confusion is followed by intimacy vs. isolation. See the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials for additional information on Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development.
a. Incorrect Repudiation is part of identity formation.
b. CORRECT The psychosocial issues of early adulthood center on intimacy and solidarity versus isolation.
c. Incorrect Individuation is a concept associated with Levinson, not Erikson.
d. Incorrect The stage of generativity vs. stagnation is characteristic of middle adulthood.
Responsibility for the validity of information provided by a professional scoring and interpretation service lies with:
Select one:
A. the psychologist who uses the service.
B. the scoring and interpretation service.
C. the test author(s).
D. the organization that accredited the service
The use of computer-assisted scoring and interpretation services is addressed in Standard 9.09(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code.
a. CORRECT This Standard states: “(b) Psychologists select scoring and interpretation services (including automated services) on the basis of the validity of the program and procedures as well as on other appropriate considerations…. (c) Psychologists retain responsibility for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of assessment instruments, whether they score and interpret such tests themselves or use automated or other services.”
The research has consistently linked increasing age with decreases in scores on measures of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and suggests that these decreases may be related to declines in the efficiency of working memory. Select one: A. verbal comprehension B. nonverbal comprehension C. crystallized intelligence D. fluid intelligence
d. CORRECT The research has generally found that scores on measures of crystallized intelligence do not begin to decline until the mid-50s or later, while scores on measures of fluid intelligence begin to decline in early adulthood. In addition, there is evidence that decreases in fluid intelligence are attributable to declines in working memory.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between fluid and crystallized intelligence, including differences in their vulnerability to age-related decline.
A woman's clothing store hires only females as sales clerks because one of the clerks' tasks is to assist women in the store's dressing room. In this case, the store would use which of the following standards to justify hiring only women as sales clerks? Select one: A. quid pro quo B. business necessity C. bona fide occupational qualification D. systematic discrimination
In the situation described in the question, gender is a necessary qualification for the job.
a. Incorrect Quid pro quo is a term associated with sexual harassment and occurs when a hiring or employment decision is based on the person’s submission to or rejection of sexual advances.
b. Incorrect Business necessity is a defense to a charge of adverse impact and refers to using a discriminatory hiring practice on the ground that it is job related and necessary for the safe and efficient operation of the business. For example, considering only applicants with specific educational qualifications is a business necessity when those qualifications are necessary to perform the job at a minimum level of competence.
c. CORRECT Bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) is another defense to a charge of adverse impact and applies when the characteristic is an essential determinant of the genuineness of the job or must be taken into consideration to maintain community standards of morality or propriety. Gender is a BFOQ for the job described in this question.
d. Incorrect Systematic discrimination refers to a pattern of discrimination at a particular place of employment that is due to pervasive, interrelated policies and procedures.
According to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bootstrapping hypothesis, children use their knowledge of the meaning of words to figure out the structure of language. Select one: A. syntactic B. phonological C. semantic D. morphological
c. CORRECT The semantic bootstrapping hypothesis predicts that children use their understanding of the content of language to “bootstrap” the syntactical (grammatical) structure of language. Additional information on bootstrapping is provided in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
Bootstrapping is used to describe language development in young children.
Common side effects of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ include stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and joint and muscle pain. Select one: A. disulfiram (Antabuse) B. methylphenidate (Ritalin) C. naltrexone (ReVia) D. propranolol (Inderal)
c. CORRECT The symptoms listed in this question are common side effects of naltrexone, which is an opioid receptor antagonist that blocks the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the side effects of the drugs listed in the answers to this question. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials. Useful active study strategies for learning drug side effects are to create and frequently review a table of side effects and write and answer matching questions.
According to Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, a worker’s satisfactoriness depends on the degree to which the worker’s:
Select one:
A. abilities match the ability requirements of the job.
B. needs match the reinforcers provided by the job.
C. self-image matches the status provided by the job.
D. basic interests match the characteristics of the work environment.
The theory of work adjustment is a person-environment fit theory of career development and links tenure and other job outcomes to two factors – satisfaction and satisfactoriness.
a. CORRECT Satisfactoriness depends on the extent to which the worker’s skills correspond to the skill demands of the job.
. b. Incorrect Satisfaction depends on the extent to which the worker’s needs correspond to reinforcers provided by the job
Although most health care workers recognize the importance of hand washing for reducing hospital-based infection, frequency of hand washing by hospital personnel is low. Studies evaluating the effectiveness of various strategies for increasing hand washing by health care workers suggest that the most effective approach combines:
Select one:
A. rewards, sanctions, and provision of moisturized soaps.
B. automated sinks and provision of moisturized soaps.
C. continuous performance feedback with appropriate rewards and sanctions.
D. education, reminders, and continuous performance feedback.
d. CORRECT Although the research on this issue has not provided consistent results, overall, it has shown that a multi-component approach that incorporates education is most effective.
For example, based on their critical review of the literature, S. Naikoba and A. Hayward conclude that “multifaceted approaches which combine education with written materials, reminders, and continued feedback of performance can have an important effect on handwashing compliance and rates of hospital-acquired infection” (The effectiveness of interventions aimed at increasing handwashing in healthcare workers - a systematic review, Journal of Hospital Infection, 47, 173-180, 2001).
Research investigating comorbidity in children suggests that, when depression occurs in conjunction with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the depression is often associated with a different course and a different family background than when it occurs alone. Select one: A. an Anxiety Disorder B. Conduct Disorder C. somatic complaints D. learning problems
Answer B is correct: Some experts suggest that depression occurring in conjunction with Conduct Disorder is actually a different type of depression since it is associated with a lower rate of depression in adulthood as well as with a lower rate of depression among relatives. See R. Harrington, Affective disorders, in M. Rutter, et al., (Eds.), Child and Adolescent Psychiatry,Oxford, Blackwell Scientific Publications, 1994. Note that this is a difficult “distant galaxy” question that addresses a topic that few people are familiar with. For these kinds of questions, if you don’t know the answer, don’t spend too much time trying to figure them out: Make an “educated guess” and move on to the next question.
Answer A: Anxiety commonly occurs in conjunction with depressive symptoms in children. The research suggests that when anxiety and depression occur together, the depression is similar in terms of course and family background to depression that occurs without anxiety.
Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase which means that they:
Select one:
A. begin a sleep period with REM (versus non-REM) sleep.
B. begin a sleep period with Stage 3 sleep.
C. have trouble falling asleep at night and wake up later in the morning.
D. get sleepier earlier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning.
d. CORRECT Older adults experience an advanced sleep phase, which refers to a shift in the timing of sleep that involves getting sleepier earlier in the evening and waking up earlier in the morning.
As noted in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials, sleep patterns vary with age. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the patterns characteristic of infants and older adults.
Which of the following imaging techniques would be used to obtain a "metabolic map" of the brain during various mental and physical activities? Select one: A. CT B. PET C. MRI D. NMR
In this situation, it is the function of the brain that is of interest.
b. CORRECT PET scans provide information on the functions of the brain (e.g., metabolic functions).
Learning a sequence of operant responses that each act as a secondary reinforcer and that eventually end in a primary reinforcer is known as: Select one: A. shaping. B. chaining. C. differential reinforcement. D. classical conditioning.
To answer this question, you must recognize that the procedure described is a type of operant conditioning (the term “reinforcer” is a clue) and be familiar with the various operant conditioning techniques. If you are unfamiliar with chaining (the correct answer), perhaps you could have chosen it as the correct answer though a process of elimination.
a. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of shaping, which involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior.
b. CORRECT Chaining, which is believed to account for the acquisition of complex behaviors, involves the association of responses such that each response acts as a secondary reinforcer and as a discriminative stimulus for the following response. The final reinforcer (the reinforcer that is delivered at the end of the “chain”) is a primary reinforcer.
c. Incorrect The information in the question does not describe differential reinforcement, in which the target behavior is decreased by reinforcing behaviors other than the target behavior.
Dr. Bekke, a cognitive-behavioral therapist, is most likely to rely on which of the following when working with a client exhibiting symptoms of PTSD after exposure to a life-threatening traumatic event?
Select one:
A. exposure and cognitive restructuring
B. applied relaxation and overcorrection
C. self-monitoring and self-control desensitization
D. covert sensitization and stress inoculation
Answer A is correct: The treatment-of-choice for PTSD is a comprehensive cognitive-behavioral intervention that incorporates exposure, cognitive restructuring, and anxiety management or similar techniques.
The research suggests that about \_\_\_\_\_ percent of children who receive a diagnosis of ADHD continue to meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder in adolescence. Select one: A. 20 to 35 B. 40 to 55 C. 65 to 80 D. 85 to 90
Answer C is correct: Estimates vary but most studies indicate that between 65 and 80% of children who receive a diagnosis of ADHD continue to exhibit symptoms that meet the criteria for the diagnosis in adolescence. See, e.g., R. A. Barkley, Taking charge of ADHD: The complete, authoritative guide for parents, New York, Guilford Press, 2013.
As a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder, Linehan’s (1987) dialectical behavior therapy emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A. altering the client’s dysfunctional behaviors using modeling and behavior rehearsal
B. using family therapy to alter the client’s social and emotional environment
C. improving the client’s problem-solving and social skills
D. strengthening the client’s weak ego
Answer C is correct: Knowing that dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) includes group skills training aimed at improving the client’s social and coping skills would have helped you identify this as the correct answer to this question.
Answer D: Strengthening the client’s weak ego is a goal of object relations psychotherapy for Borderline Personality Disorder.
On the MMPI-2, higher-than-normal L and K scale scores with a lower-than-normal F scale score has been linked to which of the following?
Select one:
A. Malingering
B. Schizophrenia
C. somatization of psychological problems
D. parental alientation syndrome
Knowing that the L, K, and F scales are validity scales may have helped you eliminate answers b and c.
a. Incorrect Malingering has been linked to several score patterns, including L and K scale scores around 50 with a slightly elevated F scale and a “saw-toothed” pattern on the clinical scales.
b. Incorrect Schizophrenia has been linked to the “psychotic valley” (scores on scales 6 and 8 substantially higher than the score on scale 7).
c. Incorrect Somatization of psychological problems has been linked to the “neurotic triad” (scores on scales 1 and 3 substantially higher than the score on scale 2).
d. CORRECT Siegel and Langsford (1998) compared the MMPI-2 profiles of mothers undergoing a custody evaluation as part of a divorce proceeding and found that both had a defensive pattern on the L, K, and F scales but that those mothers who also exhibited behaviors associated with parental alienation syndrome had even more extreme scores on these scales, with L and K being higher-than-normal and F being lower-than-normal.
A practitioner of cognitive therapy is most likely to conceptualize a personality disorder as a consequence of: Select one: A. impulsive action tendencies. B. cognitive enactments. C. maladaptive life scripts. D. compelling schemata
d. CORRECT Although the word “compelling” might be unfamiliar, the word “schemata” is one you want to have associated cognitive therapy.
According to A. Freeman and R. C. Leaf, people with personality disorders are “generally governed by very compelling schemata,” which are not easily challenged or surrendered”
Even if you are unfamiliar with the cognitive view of the personality disorders, your familiarity with cognitive therapy in general should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
A person with anosognosia will:
Select one:
A. be unable to recognize parts of her own body.
B. be unable to recognize familiar faces.
C. deny the paralysis in her left leg.
D. report an area of blindness in her left visual field.
Anosognosia is one of several types of agnosia. All agnosias are characterized by a failure of recognition that is NOT due to a sensory deficit or verbal or intellectual impairment.
a. Incorrect This is called asomatognosia and is due to damage to the somatosensory cortex. It usually involves the left side of the body.
b. Incorrect Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.
c. CORRECT Anosognosia involves a failure to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis). It often accompanies asomatognosia.
d. Incorrect This is called a scotoma and is due to damage to the primary visual cortex.
Research suggests that, in general, the most effective treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is which of the following?
Select one:
A. exposure with response prevention
B. overcorrection
C. desensitization and behavioral rehearsal
D. desensitization with reinforced practice
Answer A is correct: Studies investigating the effects of various behavioral therapies have consistently found exposure with response (ritual) prevention to be the most effective treatment for OCD.
According to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, an employee's motivation is a function of the degree to which the employee perceives that his/her job inputs and outcomes are comparable to the inputs and outcomes of others performing similar jobs. Select one: A. equity theory B. social-cognitive theory C. expectancy theory D. two-factor theory
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four theories of motivation listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT Equity theory emphasizes the impact of social comparison on motivation and focuses on an employee’s comparison of his/her input/outcome ratio to the input/outcome ratios of others doing the same or similar work.
Older workers are LEAST likely to show decrements on which of the following types of work-related tasks as the result of normal age-related cognitive decline? Select one: A. verbal tasks B. dual (multi) tasks C. tasks requiring inductive reasoning D. tasks requiring selective attention
a. CORRECT Verbal ability has been found to be relatively immune to the effects of normal aging and does not begin to show declines until the late 70s or early 80s.
As predicted by the Taylor-Russell tables, the incremental validity of a selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will be the greatest when:
Select one:
A. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .20.
B. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50.
C. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .20.
D. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .50.
The Taylor-Russell Tables provide information on a test’s incremental validity for various combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients.
b. CORRECT A test with even a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50). For additional information on this topic, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Research investigating compliance behaviors of individuals with diabetes mellitus indicates that adherence to dietary and other treatment regimens is most problematic: Select one: A. during the elementary school years. B. during preadolescence. C. during adolescence. D. among older adults.
Answer C is correct: Research on diabetes mellitus and other chronic illnesses has consistently shown that compliance is most problematic during adolescence. Although adolescents are more knowledgeable about their illness than younger children are, they typically exhibit a lower level of compliance.
B. F. Skinner attributed which of the following to accidental, noncontingent reinforcement? Select one: A. experimental neurosis B. superstitious behavior C. overshadowing D. satiation
b. CORRECT Skinner found that his animal subjects would repeat behaviors that were accidentally reinforced and proposed that noncontingent reinforcement may account for the acquisition of superstitious behaviors in humans.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the terms listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
An ipsative score provides information about:
Select one:
A. an examinee’s score on a test relative to scores obtained by examinees in the same age group.
B. an examinee’s score on a test relative to scores obtained by examinees in the same academic grade.
C. an examinee’s score on one scale of a test relative to his/her scores on the other scales.
D. an examinee’s score on a test relative to a predefined standard of performance.
An ipsative score is different from most other types of scores which either provide information on the examinee’s standing in a norm group or standing in terms of an absolute standard of performance.
c. CORRECT An ipsative score indicates the relative strength of an examinee’s status or performance on the various scales of the test.
A parent yells at her 5-year-old son whenever he misbehaves. The boy quickly figures out that, if he apologizes for his misbehavior, his mother will stop yelling at him. Consequently, he begins to say, "I'm sorry" as soon as his mother starts yelling at him. The boy's apologizing is best described as the result of which of the following? Select one: A. avoidance conditioning B. escape conditioning C. stimulus control D. stimulus generalization
In this situation, the boy’s apologizing is maintained because it allows him to “escape” his mother’s yelling once it has started.
a. Incorrect Avoidance conditioning involves presenting a stimulus that signals that an aversive event is about to occur so that eventually the stimulus elicits a behavior that allows the individual to avoid the aversive event.
b. CORRECT In this situation, the boy doesn’t entirely avoid his mother’s yelling, but he does “escape” it once it has started by apologizing.
c. Incorrect A behavior is brought under stimulus control when a stimulus signals whether or not the behavior will be reinforced.
d. Incorrect Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original CS elicit the CR.
In an experiment, a tone is presented to a dog just before meat powder is presented numerous times so that, eventually, the dog salivates when the tone is presented alone. Then a light and the tone are simultaneously presented just before the meat powder numerous times. Based on your knowledge of “blocking,” you predict that the dog will subsequently:
Select one:
A. salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone and continue to salivate in response to the tone when it is presented alone.
B. salivate in response to the light when it is presented alone but salivate in response to the tone only when it is presented with the light.
C. continue to salivate in response to the tone but not salivate in response to the light.
D. not salivate in response to either the tone or the light.
Blocking occurs when one stimulus blocks the other from becoming a conditioned stimulus.
c. CORRECT In this situation, the tone will block the light from becoming a CS since the tone was the first stimulus to be paired with the meat powder. Apparently, blocking occurs because the second stimulus (the light in this case) provides redundant information and does not become linked to the unconditioned stimulus (meat powder).
The DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette’s Disorder requires the presence of:
Select one:
A. at least one vocal tic and one motor tic.
B. at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics.
C. multiple vocal tics and at least one motor tic.
D. multiple vocal and multiple motor tics.
Answer B is correct: The diagnosis of Tourette’s Disorder requires the presence of at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics that have persisted for more than one year and had an onset before 18 years of age.
In his study on the effects of therapy fees on satisfaction with therapy, a social psychologist finds that clients who have to work overtime or get a second job to pay for therapy generally express greater satisfaction than wealthy clients, clients whose insurance covers most of their fee, or clients who are receiving therapy for free or at low cost. This finding provides support for which of the following? Select one: A. the overjustification hypothesis B. cognitive dissonance theory C. the approach-avoidance conflict D. equity theory
The results of the study indicate that people who “struggle” for therapy say it gives them greater satisfaction.
a. Incorrect The overjustification hypothesis is used to explain why intrinsic motivation decreases after external rewards have been applied.
b. CORRECT This finding is consistent with other research on cognitive dissonance, including studies showing that students say they like a dull club more when they have experienced a difficult initiation.
c. Incorrect The approach-avoidance conflict doesn’t really fit the situation described in this question.
d. Incorrect Equity theory makes predictions about how people perform in situations they perceive to be either equitable or inequitable.
According to Patterson and his colleagues, aggression in children is linked to the use of coercive discipline by their parents. In turn, the parents’ use of coercive discipline is directly related to:
Select one:
A. the parents’ misinterpretations of the child’s intentions when he or she misbehaves.
B. the parents’ personality characteristics and the child’s temperament.
C. the nature of the attachment between the child and the parent.
D. the effectiveness of the discipline in stopping the child’s misbehavior.
Patterson’s theory regarding coercive family interactions takes into account the reciprocal influences of the parent and child.
b. CORRECT Patterson (1992) views coercive discipline as being more likely in the presence of stressful life events, certain personality characteristics in the parents, and a temperamentally difficult child.
Richard Stuart's operant interpersonal therapy combines the principles of operant conditioning with: Select one: A. social role theory. B. social constructionism. C. object relations theory. D. social exchange theory.
Stuart describes successful marriages as involving a high degree of reciprocal positive behavioral exchanges.
d. CORRECT A primary influence on Stuart’s approach to behavioral marital therapy was social exchange theory, which conceptualizes satisfaction in relationships in terms of cost-reward ratios.
Studies investigating the relationship between maternal socialization practices and children’s internalization of conscience have found that:
Select one:
A. maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization regardless of a child’s temperament.
B. maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization only for children who have a secure attachment.
C. maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization for children who are fearful and anxious prone.
D. maternal gentle discipline is predictive of internalization for children who are relatively fearless and non-anxious.
This question is asking about research by G. Kochanska, which found that the relationship between maternal parenting style and children’s internalization of conscience is mediated by the child’s temperament.
c. CORRECT The impact of gentle discipline (use of control that de-emphasizes power assertion and emphasizes reasoning, suggestion, distraction, and positive reinforcement) is most effective in terms of internalization for children who are relatively fearful and anxious.
Which of the following occupational themes is most dissimilar to Holland's social theme? Select one: A. enterprising B. realistic C. conventional D. investigative
Knowing that the occupational themes are listed in order of similarity in Holland’s hexagon and that the order is represented by the acronym “RIASEC” would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
b. CORRECT The social theme is directly opposite the realistic theme in Holland’s hexagon, which indicates that the realistic theme is most unlike the social theme.
An 11-year-old loves playing the piano and does so for at least one hour a day. His parents have begun to reward him for doing so by giving him a dollar for each 30 minutes that he practices and find that this increases the amount of time he spends playing the piano each day. Subsequently, the child’s parents decide to discontinue the reward. Research by Lepper, Greene, and Nisbett (1973) suggests that, once the parents discontinue the reward, which of the following will occur:
Select one:
A. the child will continue playing the piano at the increased rate.
B. the child will go back to playing the piano at the pre-reward rate.
C. the child will play the piano at a rate less than the pre-reward rate.
D. the child will initially play the piano at a reduced rate but will eventually go back to the pre-reward rate.
Research by M. R. Lepper, D. Greene, and R. E. Nisbett (1973) provided support for the overjustification hypothesis.
c. CORRECT The overjustification hypothesis predicts that providing an extrinsic reward for an activity that is intrinsically motivating will reduce intrinsic motivation. Consequently, when the extrinsic reward is discontinued, interest (and participation) in the activity will decline to a level below the pre-extrinsic reward level.
According to Murray Bowen, when two family members experience stress, they may recruit a third family member to reduce the tension in their relationship. Then, if the stress continues, the resulting tension may spread to other family members and, as more people become involved, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ develops.
Select one:
A. a destabilized ("runaway") system
B. a series of interlocking triangles
C. emotional cutoff
D. emotional floodingKnowing that Bowen is associated with triangles would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect In a system, positive feedback amplifies deviation or change and, in some situations, can produce a runaway system.
b. CORRECT Bowen proposed that, when a three-person system (triangle) does not reduce the stress between two family members, other individuals may be recruited, and the family system may eventually include a series of interlocking triangles.
c. Incorrect Emotional cutoff refers to extreme emotional distancing by a family member in an attempt to cut off ties from other members.
d. Incorrect Emotional flooding refers to uncontrollable and uncontrolled emotional expression.
A psychophysicist is measuring “just noticeable differences” while investigating the relationship between changes in the intensity of light and her research participants’ perceptions of those changes. The measuring scale being used has:
Select one:
A. physically equal intervals.
B. psychologically equal intervals.
C. physically and psychologically equal intervals.
D. physically and psychologically unequal intervals.
Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between stimulus magnitude and perception of that stimulus.
b. CORRECT Psychophysicists use just noticeable differences (JNDs) and similar measurements to study the relationship between changes in physical stimuli and the psychological responses to those changes. JNDs are considered to be equal; however, the corresponding physical stimuli usually are not. For example, it may take only the addition of one pound to notice a difference when you start with ten pounds but the addition of ten pounds to notice a difference when you start with 100 pounds. In each case, the JND is equal to one, but the physical differences in weight are not the same.
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model, a manager will be most effective with an employee who is low in both ability and motivation when the manager:
Select one:
A. provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee’s work.
B. encourages the employee to take responsibility for decision-making.
C. shares ideas with the employee and supports the employee’s participation in decision-making.
D. acts as a supportive coach.
Situational leadership theory proposes that, to be effective, managers must adopt a leadership style that matches the employee’s maturity, which is determined by a combination of the employee’s ability and motivation.
a. CORRECT This describes a “telling” style, which, according to Hersey and Blanchard, is appropriate for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
b. Incorrect This describes a “delegating” style, which is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the “participating” style, which is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
d. Incorrect This is the “selling” style, which works best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
Of the intermittent schedules of reinforcement, the variable ratio schedule produces the quickest acquisition of a behavior and the greatest resistance to extinction once reinforcement is terminated. This is because reinforcement is presented:
Select one:
A. after a predictable number of responses.
B. after an unpredictable number of responses.
C. after a predictable interval of time.
D. after an unpredictable interval of time.
Ratio schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified number of responses, while interval schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified period of time (as long as at least one response is made during that interval). Knowing this would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect This describes a fixed ratio schedule.
b. CORRECT When using a variable ratio schedule, the number of responses required for reinforcement varies from trial to trial but, on the average, requires a specific number of responses. For example on a VR-10 schedule, the individual might be reinforced for 8 responses, then 12 responses, and then 10 responses. It is apparently this unpredictability that accounts for the effectiveness of this schedule in establishing and maintaining behaviors.
c. Incorrect This describes a fixed interval schedule.
d. Incorrect This describes a variable interval schedule.
Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia?
Select one:
A. As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident, a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred.
B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted.
C. A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones.
D. A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information.
Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur after the event that caused the memory loss.
a. Incorrect A loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the trauma that caused the memory impairment is referred to as retrograde amnesia.
b. CORRECT This answer provides an example of anterograde amnesia - i.e., the woman has no memory for events that occurred after the assault.
c. Incorrect This is an example of proactive interference.
d. Incorrect This is an example of source amnesia.
The goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess (1977) is supported by which of the following research findings?
Select one:
A. Modeling and imitation are primary contributors to the development of a gender role identity.
B. Providing a child with experiences that are slightly beyond his/her abilities maximizes opportunities for social and cognitive development.
C. Parents who adopt an authoritative style are likely to have children who obtain high scores on measures of self-esteem, peer popularity, and scholastic achievement.
D. Irritable temperament in children is predictive of insecure attachment only when mothers are not socially supportive.
Thomas and Chess proposed that childhood pathology is related to a lack of fit between the child’s basic temperament and the parents’ behaviors toward the child.
d. CORRECT This finding is consistent with the prediction made by Thomas and Chess - i.e., it is the combination of the child’s temperament and the parents’ parenting style that determines the child’s developmental outcomes.
According to Sternberg (1999), traditional intelligence tests focus primarily on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is one of the three abilities identified in his triarchic theory of intelligence. Select one: A. analytical ability B. logical-mathematical ability C. verbal memory D. processing speed
Being familiar with the three intellectual abilities identified by Sternberg would have allowed you to identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Sternberg’s three abilities are analytical, creative, and practical.
Research on which of the following found that, over time, people tend to remember a message but forget the messenger? Select one: A. psychological reactance B. gain-loss effect C. sleeper effect D. attitude inoculation
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the phenomena listed in the answers to these questions. Information about them is provided in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
c. CORRECT Research on the sleeper effect found that the initial difference in the persuasiveness of high- and low-credible communicators disappears over time apparently because people tend to forget the source of the message.
Factor analyses of Raven’s Progressive Matrices has found that it is a reliable measure of which of the following?
Select one:
A. Spearman’s “g”
B. Horn and Cattell’s fluid and crystallized intelligence
C. Luria’s simultaneous and sequential processing
D. Guilford’s convergent and divergent thinking
Knowing that Raven’s Progressive Matrices is a nonverbal measure of intelligence may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Raven’s Progressive Matrices was originally designed to be a measure of Spearman’s “g” factor and its usefulness for this purpose has been confirmed by a number of factor analytic studies.
When conducting a research study, you want to ensure that you will detect a difference between the treatment group and the control (no treatment) group. Therefore, you will:
Select one:
A. decrease error variance by decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable.
B. increase experimental variance by increasing the magnitude of the independent variable.
C. decrease the probability of making a Type I error by decreasing alpha.
D. decrease the probability of making a Type II error by increasing beta.
Rephrased, this question would read “how do you increase power?” To identify the correct answer to this question, your understanding of power must be beyond a definitional level (e.g., “power is 1 - beta,” or “power is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis,”) and at an abstract or conceptual level. Power can be thought of as the sensitivity of an empirical study. That is, if significant differences exist between groups, a powerful study will be sensitive enough to detect the differences.
a. Incorrect Decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable will result in less power. For instance, if you are studying the effects of a drug on a behavior, you are less likely to detect its effects when your experimental group receives a low dosage than when it receives a higher dosage. Moreover, this response does not make sense because decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable does not decrease error variance.
b. CORRECT Increasing the magnitude of the independent variable would increase experimental variance by increasing the difference between the experimental and control (no treatment) groups. This would increase power, or the ability to detect the effects of the independent variable. As an example, if you are studying the effects of a new learning procedure on performance, you are more likely to detect its effects if you administer the learning procedure to the experimental group subjects for six weeks rather than for one week.
c. Incorrect Decreasing alpha does decrease the probability of making a Type I error but, at the same time, it reduces power.
d. Incorrect Power does increase as the probability of making a Type II error decreases. However, this response does not make sense, since an increase in beta will, by definition, result in an INCREASE of the probability of making a Type II error.
In the context of test validity, specificity refers to which of the following?
Select one:
A. the correct identification of true negatives
B. the correct identification of true positives
C. the correct identification of true negatives and true positives
D. the correct identification of false negatives and false positives
a. CORRECT Specificity refers to the correct identification of true negatives – i.e., the percent of cases in the validation sample who do not have the characteristic being screened for and were accurately identified by the predictor as not having that characteristic.
b. Incorrect Sensitivity refers to the correct identification of true positives.
One problem with a decentralized communication network is that:
Select one:
A. it is associated with low levels of employee morale.
B. it can lead to the development of autocratic leadership.
C. it can confuse the situation when the task is simple.
D. it is effective only when the company’s organizational structure is also decentralized.
In a decentralized communication network, all people in the system can communicate freely with each other.
a. Incorrect This is more likely to occur with a centralized communication network.
b. Incorrect This is also more characteristic of a centralized communication network.
c. CORRECT For simple tasks (e.g., an automated production line), centralized communication networks tend to be more effective.
d. Incorrect This is not necessarily true. The most effective communication network may not necessarily be the one that matches the organizational structure.
Holland’s Self-Directed Search provides scores on six occupational themes. A person who obtains the highest score on the realistic theme is best suited for a job involving:
Select one:
A. physical, mechanical, or outdoor activities.
B. scientific, mathematical, or analytic tasks.
C. activities that require attention to detail and good organization skills.
D. tasks that require business, management, or sales skills.
Holland’s scale distinguishes between five occupational themes (“RIASEC”): realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. Additional information on these themes is provided in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT People who score high on the realistic scale are well suited for these types of tasks.
b. Incorrect These tasks fit the investigative type.
c. Incorrect These activities fit the interests of individuals receiving the highest score on the conventional scale.
d. Incorrect These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with a high score on the enterprising scale.
According to Ridley (1984), “cultural paranoia” is:
Select one:
A. a sign of depression, anxiety, or a psychotic disorder.
B. a healthy reaction to racism.
C. a manifestation of racist beliefs.
D. a sign of internalized oppression.
Ridley (1984) was interested in nondisclosure by African American therapy clients and described it as the result of two types of paranoia - cultural and functional.
b. CORRECT According to Ridley, cultural paranoia is a healthy, adaptive reaction to racism. One result of cultural paranoia is that African American clients may mistrust a White therapist and, as a result, be unwilling to self-disclose in therapy.
The results of a study by Diener et al. (1976) found that children who were trick-or-treating on Halloween were more likely to steal candy from a large bowl when the adult was unable to identify individual children and when the children were in a large group. This result is explained by which of the following? Select one: A. psychological reactance B. inoculation C. deindividuation D. scapegoating
In the study described in this question, children were more likely to steal when they were able to do so anonymously.
a. Incorrect Psychological reactance occurs when a person responds to the request of another person by acting in a way that is opposite to what is being requested because the person feels his/her personal freedom is being threatened.
b. Incorrect In the context of attitude change, inoculation refers to providing a person with arguments and counterarguments prior to hearing a persuasive message in order to reduce the likelihood that the person will be influenced by that message.
c. CORRECT Deindividuation is the increased tendency to act in antisocial ways when it is possible to do so anonymously.
d. Incorrect Scapegoating occurs when a person blames his/her problems or misfortunes on someone else.
A young man is found guilty of driving while intoxicated and is required by the court to receive in-patient treatment at an alcohol rehabilitation center. As a therapist working at the rehabilitation center, you should be aware that:
Select one:
A. it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since his treatment is court-ordered.
B. it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality because he has apparently voluntarily chosen treatment rather than some other form of punishment.
C. it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality since no information should be given to the court in this situation under any circumstances.
D. it is necessary to have the man sign a waiver of confidentiality before releasing any information to the court.
The best approach to answering a question on informed consents and waivers of confidentiality is to choose the most conservative answer.
d. CORRECT Although the court has ordered the treatment, the client’s right to confidentiality is not waived. In fact, a court order is likely to be required for the release of information to it, and the information that must be released would likely be limited to objective data
An older adult in the middle (second) stage of Alzheimer’s disease is most likely to exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A. apathy, incontinence, and an inability to recognize close relatives and friends
B. restlessness and agitation, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and flat or labile mood
C. impaired attention and judgment, anterograde amnesia, and indifference or sadness
D. poor judgment and insight, changes in speech and writing, and tremor
Answer B is correct: Alzheimer’s disease is often described in terms of three stages (see the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials). The symptoms listed in this answer are characteristic of the second stage.
Answer A: These symptoms are characteristic of the third (late) stage of the disorder.
Answer C: These symptoms are characteristic of the first (early) stage of Alzheimer’s disease.
Answer D: These symptoms are characteristic of Huntington’s disease.
A number of neuropsychologists interested in constructive memory have attempted to identify the areas of the brain that are involved in false recollections. Their research has most consistently linked false recollection to lesions in the: Select one: A. frontal lobe. B. temporal lobe. C. occipital lobe. D. parietal lobe.
The current view of memory is that it does not involve a literal recollection of past events but instead a constructive process that is susceptible to errors, distortions, and other factors that limit the accuracy of memories.
a. CORRECT The research has most consistently linked false recollections to lesions in the frontal lobes, especially the prefrontal cortex.
