Exam Questions Flashcards
Data from the National Health Care Survey (Raofi & Schappert, 2006) indicate that, in general, central nervous system drugs are most commonly provided, prescribed, or continued at ambulatory office visits by primary care physicians. An exception to this general rule are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which are most commonly provided, prescribed, or continued by practitioners in medical specialty offices. A. antianxiety drugs B. antidepressants C. antipsychotic and antimanic drugs D. sedatives and hypnotics
c. CORRECT Of the specific CNS drugs identified in the survey, antipsychotics and antimanics were the only ones that were provided or prescribed more often by practitioners in medical specialty offices (e.g., psychiatrists and neurologists) than by primary care physicians.
This is a difficult question and one that you would not want too spend to much time trying to figure out if you are unfamiliar with the results of the National Health Care Survey.
A message is likely to be most persuasive when:
A. the message is in the listener’s latitude of noncommitment and there is a large discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message.
B. the message is in the listener’s latitude of noncomitment and there is a small to moderate discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message. Incorrect
C. the message is in the listener’s latitude of acceptance and there is a moderate discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message.
D. the message is in the listener’s latitude of acceptance and there is a large discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the position advocated by the message.
c. CORRECT The research has found that people are most likely to be persuaded when the message targets their latitude of acceptance (i.e., the message represents an opinion that a listener finds tolerable and would be willing to consider) and when there is a small to moderate discrepancy between their initial position and the position advocated by the message.
This question requires you to be familiar with Social Judgment Theory, which is described in the Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
A 36-year-old woman has extensive deficits in declarative memory as the result of a severe head trauma. This means that she will have trouble recalling:
A. what she ate for dinner the previous evening.
B. how to ride a bicycle and what she ate for dinner.
C. the definition of amnesia.
D. what she ate for dinner and the definition of amnesia.
Declarative memory consists of episodic and semantic memory.
d. CORRECT Episodic memory is memory for personally experienced events (e.g., what one had for dinner the previous evening). Semantic memory is memory for factual knowledge (e.g., the definition of amnesia). Extensive impairment in declarative memory would, therefore, involve both types of memory, so this is the best answer.
The final stage in Cross's (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is: Select one: A. internalization. B. incorporation. C. integrative awareness. D. autonomy
The most recent version of Cross’s model distinguishes between four stages of identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization.
a. CORRECT An African-American in the immersion stage has developed a strong ethnic identity but has also resolved global anti-white sentiments and become more bicultural.
Your colleague plans to use the "dismantling strategy" to identify the components of systematic desensitization that contribute most to its effectiveness. Being familiar with previous research using this strategy, you predict that she will find which of the following to be the critical component? Select one: A. reciprocal inhibition B. negative reinforcement C. classical extinction D. escape conditioning
c. CORRECT The dismantling strategy involves comparing the effects of the various components of an intervention by administering different components to different participants. The use of this strategy to identify the effective components of systematic desensitization has found that the critical component is extinction of the anxiety response through repeated exposure to the CS without the US.
Although Wolpe originally developed systematic desensitization as an application of reciprocal inhibition, research using the dismantling strategy has found that reciprocal inhibition is not the critical component.
In group therapy, members establish a “taking turns” pattern in which each group session is devoted, sequentially, to each group member. In response to this situation, Yalom (1985) recommends:
A. mass group interpretation.
B. here-and-now activation.
C. paradoxical prescription.
D. reframing.
In his book, The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, Yalom refers to the situation described in this question as an example of antitherapeutic group norms.
a. CORRECT Yalom considers such turn-taking as an obstacle to group therapy (e.g., because it may force some members to self-disclose prematurely) and recommends that it be dealt with through the use of mass group interpretation. This involves discussing the problem and its potential for negative effects on group members and the group process.
As a diathesis-stress model, Beck's cognitive theory predicts that which of the following serves as the diathesis in the development of depressive symptomology? Select one: A. dysfunctional schemas B. a genetic predisposition C. exposure to a negative event D. faulty attributions
Diathesis-stress models describe illness as the result of a combination of vulnerability (diathesis) and stress, with the nature of the vulnerability depending on the type of theory. Not surprisingly, Beck’s cognitive theory of depression identifies cognitive factors as the source of vulnerability.
a. CORRECT Beck’s cognitive diathesis-stress model of depression proposes that certain people have depressogenic schemas that make them vulnerable to experiencing depression when exposed to a negative life event.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was among the first researchers to propose the existence of a neural circuit that mediates the experience and expression of emotion. Select one: A. Sperry B. Fechner C. Papez D. Penfield
c. CORRECT Papez concluded that destruction of certain interconnected regions in the brain has an adverse impact on emotional experience and expression. These regions include the mammillary bodies, anterior thalamus, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, and fornix.
According to Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) situational leadership model, a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ leader is most effective for an employee who is low in ability and high in motivation. Select one: A. telling B. selling C. delegating D. participating
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model distinguishes between the four leadership styles listed in the answers to this question and proposes that the best style is the one that matches the employee’s ability and motivation.
a. Incorrect A telling leader is best for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
b. CORRECT A selling leader is best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
Incorrect A delegating leader is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
d. Incorrect A participating leader is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
An African American client in the dissonance stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model will exhibit which of the following?
Select one:
A. self-deprecating and same-group deprecating attitudes
B. self-appreciating but dominant-group deprecating attitudes
C. a conflict between self-appreciating and self-deprecating attitudes and between same-group appreciating and same-group deprecating attitudes
D. concern over the basis of his/her self-appreciating and unequivocal same-group appreciating attitudes
The stages of the Atkinson, Morten, and Sue model are each characterized by different attitudes toward oneself, one’s own (same) minority group, other minority groups, and the majority (mainstream) group.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the conformity stage (stage 1).
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of the resistance and immersion stage (stage 3).
c. CORRECT Not surprisingly, a person in the dissonance stage (stage 2) will be conflicted about his/her attitudes.
d. Incorrect This is characteristic of the introspection stage (stage 4).
You have been hired by a school psychologist to help enhance her ability to work with children with conduct problems. During the consultation, you realize that the psychologist is exhibiting "theme interference" - that is, she has a marked lack of objectivity when working with conduct-disordered children due to her own childhood experience with an emotionally-disturbed sibling. The type of consultation you are involved in is best described as: Select one: A. process-centered. B. advocacy-centered. C. client-centered case consultation. D. consultee-centered case consultation
In this situation, you have been hired by the school psychologist to help her deal more effectively with a particular type of client.
a. Incorrect Process consultation is a type of organizational consultation and development that focuses on communication and other employee processes.
b. Incorrect The purpose of advocacy consultation is to act as an advocate for a disenfranchised group.
c. Incorrect In client-centered case consultation, the focus of the consultation is on a specific client (not a group of clients).
d. CORRECT In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the consultee’s skill, knowledge, or objectivity, and the goal is to improve the consultee’s effectiveness with members of a particular population.
In adults, Major Depressive Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males. This gender difference:
Select one:
A. is the opposite of what is found in prepubertal children.
B. is the same as what is found in prepubertal children.
C. does not become evident until adolescence.
D. does not become evident until early adulthood.
Answer C is correct: Although there is some evidence that young girls exhibit more risk factors for depression during childhood, it is not until puberty that the gender difference in rates of Major Depressive Disorder becomes evident.
The final group product is most affected by the performance of the member who makes the smallest contribution on which type of task? Select one: A. compensatory B. disjunctive C. conjunctive D. additive
c. CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the group product is limited by the contribution of the worst-performing member.
As noted in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials, group tasks can be describd as compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, or additive.
When creating an acrostic:
Select one:
A. a sentence or rhyme is formed using words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized.
B. a word or pronounceable sequence of letters is created from the first letter of the words to be memorized.
C. a word or phrase is constructed from another word by rearranging the letters of that word.
D. an image is created from the images of two or more words.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with an acrostic and the other mnemonic devices described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT An acrostic is a phrase that is formed from words that begin with the first letter of each word to be memorized. “See Piaget creep forward” is an acrostic for Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development (sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational).
b. Incorrect This describes an acronym, which is a type of word play rather than a mnemonic device.
c. Incorrect This describes an anagram.
d. Incorrect This describes the keyword method.
As used by Lorenz (1965), the term “critical period” refers to:
Select one:
A. the period from ages three to six months during which the basic structure of the personality is formed.
B. periods when the infant shows predictable “growth spurts.”
C. the third trimester when the brain is at greatest vulnerability to structural damage.
D. a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother.
The term “critical period” refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which geese bond with (imprint on) their mothers.
d. CORRECT Lorenz found that the “critical period” for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.
Which of the following sleep abnormalities have been linked to Major Depressive Disorder?
Select one:
A. increased Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep
B. decreased duration of REM sleep early in the night
C. early onset of REM sleep
D. shortened sleep latency
Answer C is correct. A decreased REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) is one of several sleep abnormalities associated with MDD.
Answers A, B, and D: The abnormalities listed in these answers are the opposite of what is true – i.e., MDD is associated with decreased Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep, an increased duration of REM sleep early in the night, and a prolonged sleep latency.
You have been seeing a couple in conjoint therapy for seven months and anticipate that treatment will be ending soon. One day you receive a call from the wife who says she would like to start seeing you in individual therapy. Your best course of action would be to:
Select one:
A. make an appointment with her as long as you believe that she will benefit from individual therapy.
B. make an appointment with her only if it is your practice to see members of couples conjointly and individually.
C. suggest that you discuss this with her during the next conjoint session.
D. tell her that you’d be glad to see her individually once conjoint treatment has been terminated.
This is a difficult question because not enough information is given to know why the request for individual therapy was made and what has already been discussed about individual therapy with the couple.
c. CORRECT To identify why the woman is seeking individual therapy and to avoid “secrets” and conflicts regarding confidentiality, the best course of action would be to discuss the possibility of seeing the woman in individual therapy during the next conjoint session.
Several authorities have noted that traditional forms of psychotherapy reflect a Eurocentric (Western) perspective that emphasizes: Select one: A. a concrete non-linear approach. B. a linear cause-effect approach. C. a reciprocal (interactive) approach. D. a directive behavioral approach.
b. CORRECT The Eurocentric perspective emphasizes one-on-one problem-solving and adopts an atomistic, linear, and reductionist cause-effect approach.
This issue has been addressed by several experts interested in family therapy or cross-cultural counseling.
Super's life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between the individual's life stages and his/her: Select one: A. level of career differentiation. B. stage of ego identity development. C. career interests. D. life roles.
Super’s life-space, life-span theory of career development integrates several concepts, and his life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between two of these concepts.
a. Incorrect Differentiation is a term used by Holland to describe the clarity of a person’s vocational personality type. According to Holland, a person has a high degree of differentiation when he/she obtains a high score on one personality type and low scores on the other types.
b. Incorrect Ego identity is a focus of Tiedeman and O’Hara’s career identity development model.
c. Incorrect Career interests are not depicted in Super’s life-career rainbow.
d. CORRECT Super used the life-career rainbow to depict the impact of a person’s life stage and life roles on his/her career development.
When making the appointment with a new client for her first therapy session, Dr. Steven Sue asks the client to notice whether any changes in her behavior occur between their phone conversation and her first therapy session. Then, during the first session, Dr. Sue asks the client what she noticed. Apparently, Dr. Sue is a practitioner of: Select one: A. motivational interviewing. B. interpersonal therapy. C. solution-focused therapy. D. reality therapy.
c. CORRECT Asking a client to notice if any changes in behavior occur between the initial phone conversation and first therapy session is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to obtain information that can help identify solutions to the client’s problem.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major assumptions and processes of the four therapies listed in the answers to this question.
According to Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, a task-motivated ("low LPC") leader is most effective when his or her relations with subordinates are: Select one: A. very good. B. very poor. C. very good or very poor. D. moderate.
Fiedler’s theory predicts that task-motivated (low LPC) leaders and relationship-motivated (high LPC) leaders are most effective in different circumstances. One circumstance that determines the best leadership style is the nature of leader-member relations.
c. CORRECT Task-motivated leaders are most effective in extreme situations - that is, when leader-member relations are either very good or very poor.
d. Incorrect Relationship-motivated leaders are most effective in less extreme situations - e.g., when leader-member relations are moderate (between good and poor).
Bill B., a 26-year old small business owner, has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently "blows his fuse" at family members and employees, and has his wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn't have the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and often does things without thinking about the consequences. When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving. All through school, his teachers said he wasn't living up to his potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Bill is: Select one: A. Antisocial Personality Disorder. B. Adult Antisocial Behavior. C. ADHD. D. Bipolar I Disorder.
Answer C is correct: Bill’s childhood history of problem behaviors and his current attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of ADHD.
Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior.
Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior that is not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder or other mental disorder.
Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill’s symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder.
Constructional apraxia is caused by damage to the: Select one: A. corpus callosum. B. parietal lobe. C. basal ganglia. D. temporal lobe.
Constructional apraxia is characterized by an inability to copy or draw figures or to arrange blocks in a pattern.
b. CORRECT Apraxia involves an inability to perform skilled movements that are not due to muscle weakness, sensory loss, general intellectual deterioration, or lack of cooperation. Most forms of apraxia (including constructional apraxia) are caused by damage to the parietal lobe.
Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of Huntington's disease? Select one: A. anxiety, depression, and apathy B. a "dance-like" gait C. slow writhing movements D. apraxia, aphasia, and agnosia
Huntington’s disease produces a form of subcortical dementia and, therefore, has symptoms that differ somewhat from dementia due to Alzheimer’s disease and other forms of cortical dementia.
a. Incorrect Emotional and personality changes are often the first signs of Huntington’s disease.
b. Incorrect A dance-like gait is characteristic of Huntington’s disease.
c. Incorrect Slow writing movements (athetosis) are characteristic of this disorder.
d. CORRECT These are symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease and other cortical dementias.