Exam 2 Flashcards

Question

According to Carol Gilligan, adolescent females tend to score at lower stages than adolescent males on Kohlbergian tasks because: Select one: A. there are biases in the way that raters score the responses of females. B. females are more concerned than males with being judged positively by the rater. C. Kohlberg's theory focuses on individual rights, while the moral reasoning of girls reflects concerns about responsibility toward others. D. Kohlberg's theory focuses on instrumentality, while the moral responses of girls are based more on socioemotional concerns.

Answer 1

c. CORRECT According to Gilligan, males and females use different moral criteria in judging moral dilemmas, with females emphasizing mutual caring and responsibility for others and males focusing more on individual rights.

Answer 2

Following moderate to severe head injury, a person is likely to show some degree of both anterograde and retrograde amnesia. In this situation, recovery of long-term memories typically involves a predictable pattern. a. Incorrect Anterograde amnesia is usually more severe than retrograde amnesia, and the individual usually never recalls the incident that caused the amnesia or the events occurring after it because those events were never stored in long-term memory. d. CORRECT Memories of more remote events ordinarily return first.

Answer 3

b. CORRECT Since this program is aimed at all seniors in the community, it is a primary prevention. c. Incorrect A secondary prevention would be aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at high-risk. As originally defined, secondary prevention always involves some kind of screening process to identify individuals. d. Incorrect A tertiary program is for people who have already suffered mental health problems. Its purpose is to reduce the risk for relapse or a continuation or worsening of the problem.

Answer 4

a. Incorrect Strictness error (bias) refers to the tendency to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale. b. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting the central tendency bias when he/she rates all ratees using the middle of a rating scale. c. CORRECT A floor effect is a characteristic of a measuring instrument (not a rater) and refers to the instrument's inability to distinguish between people who have low levels of whatever is being measured by the instrument. d. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting a halo effect when his/her evaluation of an employee on one dimension of performance affects the rater's evaluation of that employee on other unrelated dimensions of performance.

Answer 5

Answer B is correct: ADHD with or without comorbidity is a risk factor for substance abuse in adulthood.

Answer 6

c. CORRECT Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills.

Answer 7

d. CORRECT When the father plays with the child, the child stops nagging and whining. In other words, the father's play behavior is being negatively reinforced. The father's play behavior has increased in this situation, which means that it is being reinforced.

Answer 8

c. CORRECT Longer tests tend to be more reliable (assuming that the added items are similar in terms of quality and content to the original items). In addition, the reliability coefficient (like all correlation coefficients) is larger when the range of scores is unrestricted, which occurs when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute(s) being measured by the test.

Answer 9

d. CORRECT Overall, the outcomes for neglected children are better than those for rejected children. In addition, neglected children are more likely to experience a change in peer status when they change schools or social groups.

Answer 10

c. CORRECT One advantage of the multiple baseline design is that its use does not require removing a treatment once it has been applied to a baseline for the duration of the study.

Answer 11

c. CORRECT Standard 5.05 states that "psychologists do not solicit testimonials from current therapy clients/patients or other persons who, because of their particular circumstances, are vulnerable to undue influence."

Answer 12

c. CORRECT The per patient fee must reflect Dr. Staret's actual costs and can include any costs involved in making a referral.

Answer 13

Broadbent's (1958) filter theory of attention was the first comprehensive theory of attention and the first of the "bottleneck" theories. It proposes that a filter (sensory buffer) selects which incoming message will be further processed or attended to on the basis of the physical properties of the message. b. CORRECT Most participants in Broadbent's studies reported the information by ear rather than by the order in which they heard the digits, and he concluded that this proved that the physical properties of the message determined if it was attended to or ignored. In other words, in the dichotic listening task studies, the filter allowed the message from one ear to "pass through" before it allowed the message from the other ear to do so, which explained why participants would report the digits heard in one ear first, followed by the digits heard in the other ear.

Answer 14

Answer B is correct: Although the research on the relation between race/ethnicity and Schizophrenia is limited, there is some evidence that African American individuals have a slightly higher rate of Schizophrenia than other groups. And the results of the existing studies suggest that African Americans with other disorders (especially Bipolar Disorder, depression, and alcohol-related organic disorders) are often misdiagnosed as having Schizophrenia because their symptoms include auditory and visual hallucinations.

Answer 15

Validity generalization studies are conducted to determine if validity coefficients are generalizable to situations and populations other than those included in any particular validity study. Schmidt and Hunter (1977), for example, conducted validity generalization studies to evaluate and compare the criterion-related validity of personnel selection procedures. a. Incorrect Multiple regression uses multiple predictors to predict outcome on a single criterion measure. b. CORRECT All forms of validity generalization involve the use of some form of meta-analysis to combine the results of multiple validity studies. c. Incorrect Item response theory is an alternative to classical test theory for conceptualizing and constructing tests. d. Incorrect The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to evaluate a test's construct validity.

Answer 16

Yalom (1985) proposed that, regardless of the type of therapy group or the theoretical background of the group leader, self-disclosure by participants is always an essential group norm. c. CORRECT Yalom describes several initial stages that new groups typically pass through. By the third stage, as the result of increasing group cohesiveness, group members begin to adhere to the norm of self-disclosure even if they were resistant to doing so to begin with.

Answer 17

Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to regress toward the mean on retesting and may threaten a study's internal validity whenever participants are chosen on the basis of their extreme scores on a pretest. d. CORRECT Although statistical regression is typically used in the context of scores obtained by a group of examinees (rather than an individual examinee), of the answers given, it is the best choice.

Answer 18

c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with ethical requirements. For example, Standard 1.06 states: "Psychologists cooperate in ethics investigations ... [and] in doing so, they address any confidentiality issues."

Answer 19

As defined by Snyder (1987), self-monitoring refers to the degree to which people are concerned about the impressions they convey to others in social situations and are able to control those impressions. b. CORRECT A person who is low in self-monitoring relies on his/her own feelings, attitudes, and beliefs when determining how to act in social situations and, as a result, acts similarly in different social situations. c. Incorrect People who are high in self-monitoring are concerned about the impressions that others have of them and, as a result, adapt their behaviors to the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people in each social situation.

Answer 20

Social loafing occurs when a person contributes less as group member than he/she would have contributed if acting alone. a. CORRECT The waiter will get the most money if each person leaves his/her own tip since this will discourage social loafing.

Answer 21

Piaget described moral development in terms of two stages -- heteronomous and autonomous. a. Incorrect Universal moral principles are of concern for individuals in Stage 6 of Kohlberg's stages of moral development. b. CORRECT Children in Piaget's autonomous stage view rules as being socially agreed-upon and alterable when people who are governed by them agree to the change. c. Incorrect The need to maintain social rules and laws is characteristic of Kohlberg's Stage 4. d. Incorrect Children in Piaget's heteronomous stage (and Kohlberg's Stages 1 and 2) focus on the consequences of an act.

Answer 22

Answer A is correct: The nature and duration of David's symptoms and the fact that they are apparently related to the loss of an important customer are consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Adjustment Disorder. Because his symptoms are those associated with depression (sadness and hopelessness), the correct diagnosis is Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.

Answer 23

a. CORRECT Although explicit memory shows age-related declines, implicit memory is relatively unaffected by increasing age.

Answer 24

a. CORRECT Self-in-relation theory proposes that a woman's core self-structure is an interacting or relational self that emerges from the early mother-daughter relationship and the development of mutual empathy in that relationship.

Answer 25

c. Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the outcomes of a program and is less geared toward guiding future changes than a formative evaluation is. d. CORRECT Although the question isn't entirely clear, the evaluation sounds more like a formative one because it is conducted during program development and its results will be used to make necessary changes in the program.

Answer 26

d. CORRECT Herek considers homophobia to be an imprecise term and recommends that it be replaced with the terms listed in answers b, c, and d. The description in this question is consistent with Herek's definition of heterosexism.

Answer 27

Knowing that Simon distinguished between two models of individual decision-making (rational-economic and bounded rationality) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. c. CORRECT Bounded discretion is also known as bounded rationality and refers to the limitations on a decision-maker's choices resulting from certain social, legal, moral, and organizational factors.

Answer 28

Primary prevention focuses on all members of an identified group. Secondary prevention targets specific individuals who are at high risk. Tertiary prevention intervenes after the incidence of the behavior c. CORRECT The criminal justice system intervenes after an individual engages in a criminal act.

Answer 29

It is not until the second year of life that children begin to exhibit outward signs of self-conscious emotions. c. CORRECT Jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment are among the first self-conscious emotions exhibited by young children.

Answer 30

In a token economy, tokens have value because they can be exchanged for a variety of unconditioned (primary) reinforcers. a. Incorrect Primary reinforcers are inherently reinforcing and include food, water, and desirable activities. b. Incorrect In a token economy, the back-up reinforcers are the primary reinforcers that can be "purchased" with tokens. c. CORRECT Tokens are generalized conditioned (secondary) reinforcers that can be exchanged for a variety of unconditioned (primary) reinforcers. Like other conditioned reinforcers, they are reinforcing only because they are associated with primary reinforcers.

Answer 31

The studies have confirmed that a difference between middle-class African American and White families is that African American families are less rigid with regard to gender roles. d. CORRECT Although White middle-class families are generally less rigid about gender roles than they were in the past, this is still considered a characteristic that distinguishes African American and White middle-class families.

Answer 32

b. CORRECT Metamemory refers to the ability to monitor one"s own memory processes. There is evidence that, compared to younger adults, older adults tend to view their memory loss as worse than it actually is.

Answer 33

Answer A is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical Manual reports the highest score for individuals with Alzheimer's Dementia for the Verbal Comprehension Index, followed by the Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed Indexes.

Answer 34

b. CORRECT By four to five years of age, children understand that a person's beliefs about a situation may be false and that the person will act upon the false belief rather than the reality of the situation.

Answer 35

a. CORRECT The limited research on this issue suggests that fathers of children with ADHD rate the behaviors of their children as less problematic.

Answer 36

d. CORRECT Psychologists in private practice do not have an ethical or legal duty to provide professional services to individuals they do not want to serve. Therefore, it would be acceptable to make the decision to refer a client who is exhibiting signs of Malingering after an initial therapy session. (Ethical guidelines require psychologists not to discriminate on the basis of race, gender, or any other basis proscribed by law, but litigious clients do not fall into this category.)

Answer 37

c. CORRECT Although a psychologist is not required to obtain an informed consent from a defendant when an evaluation is court-ordered, he/she should inform the defendant of the purpose of the evaluation and of the limits on confidentiality before conducting it.

Answer 38

In general, behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques have been found most effective for alleviating phobias in both children and adults. Unfortunately, knowing this doesn't help with this question since all of the techniques listed fall into this category. Considering the boy's age may have helped you eliminate at least two of the answers (c and d). a. Incorrect Participant modeling has been found to be more useful for childhood phobias involving animals and dental and medical procedures. b. CORRECT This technique has been described by A. M. Graziano and K. C. Mooney (Children and Behavior Therapy, New York, Aldine, 1984), who found it to be an effective treatment for children who fear the dark. Cognitive self-control involves several steps: At bedtime, the child first relaxes, then visualizes a pleasant scene, and then makes self-statements such as "I am brave. I can take care of myself in the dark." This technique is considered a self-control technique since it is administered by the child him/herself (although the parents are also involved in reminding the child to use the technique and in monitoring the child's progress). c. Incorrect The use of flooding with children is controversial and is not considered a treatment-of-choice by most authorities. d. Incorrect Systematic desensitization has generally not been found to be particularly effective with children (see Graziano and Mooney for a review of the literature).

Answer 39

As described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials, the F-ratio is calculated by dividing a measure of treatment plus error by a measure of error only in order to obtain an estimate of treatment effects. b. CORRECT MSB (mean square between) is a measure of treatment plus error, while MSW (mean square within) is a measure of error only, and the F-ratio is calculated by dividing MSB by MSW.

Answer 40

All of the responses are terms that Beck describes as cognitive distortions. a. Incorrect Personalization occurs when a person attributes external events to him/herself without evidence supporting such a causal connection. b. CORRECT Arbitrary inference involves drawing a specific conclusion without supporting evidence or in the face of contradictory evidence. c. Incorrect Selective abstraction occurs when a person interprets a situation on the basis of a single detail taken out of context (e.g., a jealous husband thinks his wife is having an affair with the neighbor when he sees her pat the neighbor on the back). d. Incorrect Dichotomous thinking involves categorizing an experience in terms of one of two extremes (e.g., "If I do this, everything will be perfect; if I don't, everything will be terrible").

Answer 41

The item difficulty index (p) is calculated by dividing the number of individuals who answered the item correctly by the total number of individuals. a. CORRECT To understand why the item difficulty index represents an ordinal scale, assume that items 1, 2, and 3 of a test are passed by 10, 20, and 30 percent of examinees, respectively, which will result in p values for these items of .10, .20, and .30. Although these values indicate that item 1 is more difficult than item 2 which, in turn, is more difficult than item 3, it is not possible to say that item 2 is twice as difficult as item 1 or that the difference in difficulty between items 1 and 2 is equal to the difference between items 2 and 3. Moreover, an item difficulty index of 0 would not mean that the item completely lacks difficulty (which doesn"t really make any sense). In other words, p values represent an ordinal scale because they do not have the property of equal intervals or an absolute zero point.

Answer 42

c. CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin's use of this term, knowing that he focuses on boundary disturbances and emphasizes the role of stress in family dysfunction would have helped you pick this as the correct response. As noted in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Minuchin describes several types of rigid triads (triangles) that all serve to reduce conflict and stress - i.e., triangulation, detouring, and stable coalition.

Answer 43

The research has linked authoritative parenting to the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents. a. Incorrect This combination of demandingness and warmth describes rejecting-neglecting parents. b. Incorrect This combination describes permissive parents. c. Incorrect This combination is characteristic of authoritarian parents. d. CORRECT Authoritative parents are high in demandingness and high in warmth (responsivity). The children of these parents tend to be better adjusted than children of rejecting-neglecting, permissive, or authoritarian parents.

Answer 44

d. CORRECT Standard 8.09(g) of the APA's Ethics Code states: "When it is appropriate that an animal's life be terminated, psychologists proceed rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain and in accordance with accepted procedures."

Answer 45

In this situation, the students are doing the opposite of what the PTA members want them to do. a. Incorrect Cognitive dissonance refers to a state of discomfort that results when a person has inconsistent attitudes and behaviors. b. CORRECT Psychological reactance occurs when a person feels his or her personal freedom is being threatened and, as a result, does the opposite of what is required or requested. c. Incorrect The boomerang effect refers specifically to attitude change and involves changing one's attitude in a way that is opposite to that contained in a persuasive communication. Because the boomerang effect refers to attitude change (rather than behavior change), answer b is a better response. d. Incorrect Deindividuation occurs when a person feels anonymous because of his participation in a group. It can cause a person to act in uncharacteristic ways.

Answer 46

Answer A is correct: The diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires the presence of marked fear or anxiety about at least two of the following situations: using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being part of a crowd, and being outside the home alone.

Answer 47

a. CORRECT This is a correct description of retrograde and anterograde amnesia: Retrograde amnesia is a loss of memory for events that occur before the trauma, while anterograde amnesia is a loss of memory for events that occur subsequent to the trauma.

Answer 48

b. CORRECT When conducting a cost-utility analysis (CUA), measures of duration and quality of life for each intervention are combined and the result is compared to the monetary costs associated with the intervention. Quality-adjusted life years is a commonly used combined measure.

Answer 49

c. CORRECT High levels of maternal stress during pregnancy is associated with prematurity, abortion, delivery complications, infants who are hyperactive and irritable, and infants who have feeding and sleep problems.

Answer 50

Answer B is correct: Depression is often difficult to differentiate from mild Neurocognitive Disorder when the depression includes prominent cognitive symptoms. However there are some distinguishing characteristics. For example, people with depression are likely to exaggerate their cognitive problems, while those with mild Neurocognitive Disorder are likely to minimize or deny them. Answers A, C, and D: An insidious onset of symptoms and a worsening of symptoms in the evening are more characteristic of Neurocognitive Disorder. Also, people with depression tend to to exhibit greater impairment in procedural memory than declarative memory.

Answer 51

b. CORRECT This response is most consistent with Standard 8.07(b), which states, "Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress."

Answer 52

d. CORRECT Standard 10.01(c)states: "When the therapist is a trainee and the legal responsibility for the treatment provided resides with the supervisor, the client/patient, as part of the informed consent procedure, is informed that the therapist is in training and is being supervised and is given the name of the supervisor."

Answer 53

d. CORRECT In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF) is another name for item bias and is occurring when one group responds differently to an item than another group even though both groups have similar levels of the latent trait (attribute) measured by the test. Several statistical techniques are used to evaluate DIF. Lord's chi-square is one of these techniques.

Answer 54

c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. For example, Standard 4.06 states that, when consulting with a colleague, "psychologists do not disclose confidential information that could reasonably lead to the identification of a client/patient ... unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person ... or the disclosure cannot be avoided."

Answer 55

a. CORRECT Client confidentiality is more limited in military settings than it is in other settings, and clients should be informed of these limits during the informed consent process.

Answer 56

a. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the performance of research participants to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance. b. Incorrect The Rosenthal (self-fulfilling prophecy) effect refers to the impact of a teacher"s expectations about the performance of his/her students on their actual performance. c. CORRECT Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present. d. Incorrect Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study's results.

Answer 57

c. CORRECT For the experimental group, the two tasks are similar, and the first list of word pairs interferes with the ability to learn or recall the second list. This is referred to as proactive interference. For the control group, the two tasks are dissimilar, and there is less interference. Consequently, the control group will remember more words than the experimental group. This question describes a standard proactive interference study. During the first phase, the experimental group is presented with a list of word pairs (e.g., tall-short) and the control group engages in an unrelated arithmetic task. During the second phase, the experimental and control groups both study the to-be-remembered word pairs (e.g., dog-cat). During the third phase, participants in both groups are asked to recall the word pairs.

Answer 58

c. CORRECT This is a requirement of FERPA

Answer 59

The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. a. CORRECT Rotation alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor (although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same). Knowing that an eigenvalue indicates the amount of variability accounted for by each factor may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question -- i.e., when the factor loadings change, the eigenvalues will also change.

Answer 60

a. CORRECT Orientation to personal information is recovered first, followed by place and then time. Patients who continue to be disoriented to personal information rarely exhibit orientation to time or place.

Answer 61

c. CORRECT Logistic regression is considered more flexible than discriminant analysis since it can be used when the data violate some of the assumptions of discriminant analysis (e.g., the assumptions of linearity, normality, and/or homogeneity of variances).

Answer 62

a. CORRECT Damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere could cause paralysis on the left side of the body as well as vision loss involving the left visual field. b. Incorrect In most people, language is mediated by the left hemisphere so that damage to the right hemisphere would not cause aphasia (language disturbances).

Answer 63

Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development. The preoperational stage extends from ages 3 to 6 years. a. Incorrect Primary circular reactions are characteristic of babies between the ages of 1 and 4 months and involve the repetition of pleasurable actions. b. Incorrect Transductive thinking is characteristic of the preoperational stage. However, as defined by Piaget, it refers to reasoning characterized by a tendency to move from one particular case to another particular case without taking the general into account (e.g., I had bad thoughts about my mom; she got sick; therefore, my thoughts made her sick). c. Incorrect Horizontal decalage refers to the inability to transfer one type of conservation to another (e.g., the conservation of substance to weight or volume). d. CORRECT Knowing that Piaget described centration as a primary limitation of the preoperational stage would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. Piaget believed that egocentrism is a form of centration - i.e., young children cannot take into account their own point of view and the point of view of another person at the same time.

Answer 64

a. Incorrect In client-centered case consultation, there would be a particular student who would be the focus of the consultation. b. CORRECT In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus in on the consultee's skills, abilities, objectivity, etc. c. Incorrect In program-centered administrative consultation, an existing program is the focus. d. Incorrect In this type of consultation, the consultant helps administrators acquire the skills they need for future program development and implementation.

Answer 65

Answer A is correct: According to the DSM-5, localized and selective amnesia for one or more events are the most common types of memory loss associated with Dissociative Amnesia.

Answer 66

c. CORRECT As its name implies, the insecure/ambivalent pattern is characterized by ambivalence -- e.g., a child with this pattern will both seek closeness to his/her parent and push the parent away. Note that this pattern is also referred to as insecure/resistant attachment.

Answer 67

d. CORRECT This is the best course of action of those listed in the answers. In general, a psychologist should not release information after a client's death without proper authorization from the client's legal representative.

Answer 68

Knowing that protocol analysis is a qualitative evaluation technique used to assess human thought (cognitive) processes would have helped you identify the correct response to this question. a. CORRECT The term "cognitive science" refers to a broad range of disciplines and approaches (e.g., cognitive psychology, neuroscience, computer science) that focus on the acquisition and use of knowledge. Protocol analysis involves having the individual "think aloud" while solving a cognitive problem.

Answer 69

Answer B is correct: A number of drugs are used to treat Tourette's Disorder and comorbid symptoms. For example, an SSRI is usually useful for alleviating the obsessive-compulsive symptoms that often accompany this disorder.

Answer 70

The effectiveness of classical conditioning depends on several factors including the temporal relationship between presentation of the CS and US. b. CORRECT Backward conditioning involves presenting the US prior to the CS and usually does not produce a conditioned response, and its ineffectiveness is used as evidence that contingency (rather than contiguity) underlies classical conditioning.

Answer 71

Intercept bias is another name for unfairness, which is identified in the EEOC's Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures as a cause of adverse impact. a. CORRECT In a scatterplot, the intercept is the point at which the regression line intersects the Y-axis. An intercept bias occurs when the regression lines for different groups of examinees intersect the Y-axis at different points, which means that the predictor systematically overpredicts or underpredicts the performance of members of a specific group. c. Incorrect This answer describes a slope bias which is another name for differential validity and is another potential cause of adverse impact.

Answer 72

Answer C is correct: Intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat is a diagnostic criterion for Anorexia Nervosa but not for Bulimia Nervosa.

Answer 73

Answer A is correct: For the exam, you want to be familiar with the relationship between norm-referenced scores in a normal distribution. A figure illustrating their relationship is provided in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials. A T score of 40 is one standard deviation below the mean, a z score of 0 is equal to the mean, a percentile rank (PR) of 82 is slightly below one standard deviation above the mean, and a WAIS-IV score of 126 is slightly below two standard deviations above the mean.

Answer 74

b. CORRECT It would be necessary to obtain an informed consent from the clients before conducting the assessment, and the consent must include "an explanation of the nature and purpose of the assessment." In this situation, the clients apparently believe that they are being tested for diagnostic and treatment purposes and to use the test data for other reasons without their consent would be unethical.

Answer 75

d. CORRECT Several authorities have suggested that incremental power (which is a combination of expert and referent power) is optimal for managers and consultants because it has the greatest positive effects on employee performance. A person has expert power when he/she has needed expertise and referent power when he/she is liked and respected.

Answer 76

b. CORRECT Knowing that the transtheoretical model is also known as the stages of change model would have helped you identify this as the correct answer.

Answer 77

c. CORRECT The age at which children understand that death is irreversible and universal varies, depending on certain factors. In general, however, most children achieve this understanding at about ten years of age.

Answer 78

The licensing exam often includes a question or two on the areas under the normal curve. If you remember that about 68% of scores fall between +1.0 and -1.0 standard deviations from the mean, that 95% fall between +2.0 and -2.0 standard deviations from the mean, and that 99% fall between +3.0 and -3.0 standard deviations from the mean, you should be able to identify the correct answer these questions. d. CORRECT In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 97.5 is equivalent to a z-score of about +2.0. Note that knowing that 50% of scores fall below the mean and that 47.5% of scores fall between the mean and the score that is 2 standard deviations above the mean would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer 79

c. CORRECT Increasing the reliability coefficient to 1.0 means that measurement error has been entirely removed. The correction for attenuation formula, therefore, estimates the validity coefficient when measurement error in the predictor and/or the criterion has been eliminated. The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate a test's validity coefficient when the reliability coefficient for the predictor and/or criterion has been increased to 1.0.

Answer 80

b. CORRECT Noise that can be controlled (stopped) has less adverse effects on task performance even when it is not actually terminated. Apparently it is the sense of control over the noise that is the important factor. Intermittent noises and noises unrelated to the task are likely to have a negative effect.

Answer 81

c. CORRECT PET (positron emission tomography) and fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) are functional techniques.

Answer 82

b. CORRECT The potential for harm is a primary consideration when determining whether an informed consent is needed.

Answer 83

b. CORRECT To identify the correct answer to this question, you'd have to recognize that 2 in 3 is equivalent to a 2/3 chance, which is close to a 68% chance. A 68% confidence interval is calculated by adding and subtracting one standard error to and from the obtained score - which, in this case, gives you a confidence interval of 106 to 114.

Answer 84

d. CORRECT Remember that the "tail tells the tale," which means that, in a negatively skewed distribution, most scores are located in the positive (high) end of the distribution and the tail is created by the presence of a few scores in the negative (low) end of the distribution. Since the mean is most affected by the presence of the outliers in the negative end, it will have the lowest value of the three measures of central tendency.

Answer 85

Spontaneous recovery occurs when an extinguished conditioned response recurs without additional conditioning trials. c. CORRECT Pavlov found that, following extinction trials, dogs in his studies often spontaneously emitted the conditioned response, and he referred to this as spontaneous recovery. Spontaneous recovery is the reason why it is often necessary to conduct multiple extinction sessions in order to eliminate a conditioned response.

Answer 86

A psychologist is required to provide the requested information for peer reviews. a. CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the best one. Although psychologists are required to provide an insurance company with the information it has requested for a peer review, the best course of action would be to remind the company of the need to maintain the information in a way that will minimize violations of the client's confidentiality.

Answer 87

c. CORRECT Standard 6.04(e) states: "If the recipient of services does not pay for services as agreed, and if psychologists intend to use collection agencies or legal measures to collect the fees, psychologists first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment."

Answer 88

Answer C is correct: Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder is caused by cerebrovascular disease. Its course varies, depending on its cause and the location and extent of the damage.

Answer 89

In most situations, psychologists currently cannot prescribe medication or give advice about medication. Therefore, the correct answer to this question must be the answer that involves advising the client to speak with the psychiatrist who prescribed the medication. b. CORRECT This is the only response that involves advising the client to check with the psychiatrist about the continued use of the medication and, therefore, is the best answer.

Answer 90

a. Incorrect Courage is a basic strength of the autonomy vs. shame stage. b. Incorrect Fidelity is a basic strength of the identity vs. role confusion stage. c. CORRECT Wisdom is the basic strength associated with the final ego integrity vs. despair stage of development. d. Incorrect Care is a basic strength of the generativity vs. stagnation stage.

Answer 91

Answer B is correct: A late (not early) onset of symptoms is associated with a better prognosis. Answers A, C, and D: Female gender, a family history of a mood disorder, and the presence of a precipitating event have been linked to a better prognosis.

Answer 92

Mediators facilitate the conflict resolution process. While they may offer suggestions, they do not determine the solution to a problem. c. CORRECT Disputants are often inflexible with regard to their own idea of the best solution to a problem, and an important task for a mediator is to increase disputants' flexibility regarding alternatives. One way to achieve this goal is to suggest alternatives.

Answer 93

Knowing the formula for the standard error of estimate may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: The standard error of estimate is calculated by multiplying the standard deviation of the criterion scores times the square root of 1 minus the validity coefficient squared. c. CORRECT The standard error of estimate equals 0 when the validity coefficient is equal to 1 (its maximum value) and equals the standard deviation when the validity coefficient is equal to 0 (its minimum value). Therefore, the standard error ranges in value from 0 to the size of the standard deviation (which, in this case, is 9)

Answer 94

Answer D is correct: Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. People with this disorder avoid interpersonal contact because they fear criticism, but they desire intimacy and often fantasize about idealized relationships. Answer A: People with Schizoid Personality Disorder are uninterested in interpersonal relationships and wouldn't, for example, fantasize about "Mr. Right." Answer B: This woman is not exhibiting the kinds of oddities in behavior that are characteristic of Schizotypal Personality Disorder. Answer C: A person with Borderline Personality Disorder exhibits instability in interpersonal relationships.

Answer 95

To answer this question, you need to be familiar with each of the techniques listed to determine which one best fits the task described in the question. For vague questions like this one, always pick the most obvious answer--don't talk yourself into a less obvious one. a. Incorrect Profile matching involves administering several selection measures and comparing the applicant's score profile to that of the typical successful employee. b. Incorrect The multiple cutoff technique entails administering all selection measures to an applicant and considering the applicant only if he/she scores above a predefined minimum score on each measure. c. Incorrect The critical incident technique is used in performance appraisals to determine how well an employee is doing and to provide the employee with feedback about his/her performance. d. CORRECT As its name implies, the multiple hurdle technique involves administering selection measures one at a time, with each successive measure (hurdle) being administered only when the applicant has been successful on the previous one. The first hurdle is designed to eliminate the least qualified applicants.

Answer 96

Answer D is correct: In any single-group design involving a before and after comparison, change in status on the DV might be due to the intervention or to an external event that occurred at about the same time the intervention was applied. In other words, the study's internal validity is threatened by history. Answer A: Carryover effects are a problem when two or more levels of an IV are applied to the same participants. Answer B: Statistical regression is a problem when the group or groups have been selected because of their extreme status on the DV or a related variable, which is not the case in this study. Answer C: Selection is a problem in between-groups studies when participants cannot be randomly assigned to the different groups. This is a within-subjects study, so selection is not a threat.

Answer 97

``` A speed (or speeded) test contains a large number of questions that are so easy that most examinees would be able to answer them correctly if given sufficient time. However, a strict time limit is imposed so that an examinee's test score reflects his/her speed of responding. c. CORRECT Power tests can be viewed as the opposite of speed tests. Power tests contain items that are relatively difficult and that could not all be answered correctly by most or all examinees regardless of how much time they are given to complete the test. ```

Answer 98

b. CORRECT The state of hypnosis fosters the production of information that would normally not be reported with much of that information being confabulated.

Answer 99

a. Incorrect Interval recording is useful for behaviors that have no clear beginning or end and involves dividing the time period into intervals and recording whether or not the behavior occurred during each interval. b. Incorrect Time sampling involves checking to see if a behavior occurs during predetermined points in time and is useful for monitoring high-rate continuous behaviors. c. CORRECT Event recording entails observing a behavior each time it occurs and is useful for infrequent behaviors and behaviors that leave a permanent record. d. Incorrect Situational sampling involves observing a behavior in a number of different settings.

Answer 100

As its name suggests, cluster analysis is used to "cluster" or categorize individuals. Cluster analysis can be either exploratory or confirmatory. In the first case, the goal is to identify clusters of people or other variables; in the latter, the goal is to confirm a pre-existing classification scheme. a. CORRECT Of the situations described in the answers, this one is best suited for cluster analysis, which is useful for confirming or developing a classification scheme.

Answer 101

b. CORRECT Most insurance companies agree to pay a specified percentage of a client's fee and, when the co-payment is routinely waived, this means that the company is paying the entire fee. Consequently, waiving the co-payment without the permission of the insurance company represents insurance fraud and is both unethical and illegal.

Answer 102

a. CORRECT Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the way in which policies and procedures are implemented. According to Leventhal et al. (1980), there are six rules of procedural justice: consistency, bias suppression, accuracy, correctability, representativeness, and ethicality. b. Incorrect Distributive justice refers to the fairness of salaries, benefits, and other outcomes. c. Incorrect Retributive justice is not included as a type of organizational justice and refers to rectifying an injustice - e.g., ensuring that people who commit illegal or immoral acts get the punishment they deserve. d. Incorrect Interactional justice refers to perceptions regarding the quality and content of person-to-person interactions and includes an employee's perceptions regarding employee-employer interactions during hiring, termination, and other procedures.

Answer 103

b. CORRECT The Ethics Code states that "psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with individuals they know to be close relatives, guardians, or significant others of current therapy clients/patients," which implies that it may be acceptable to become involved with a relative of a former therapy client.

Answer 104

When answering questions related to confidentiality or privilege, the best answer is usually the most conservative one. d. CORRECT A psychologist's first response to a subpoena duces tecum should be to seek legal advice to determine what his/her responsibilities are. Since this is not one of the choices, this is the best answer. In most cases, the most appropriate action is to appear in court as requested but assert the privilege and not release information about a client unless the client has authorized such release or the court has ordered the release.

Answer 105

d. CORRECT Clozapine seems to have limited effects on D2 receptors and, instead, affects D4 and other dopamine receptors as well as serotonin and glutamate receptors. Of the antipsychotic drugs listed in the responses, only one is considered to be atypical because of its effects on the nervous system.

Answer 106

b. CORRECT Angie will be reinforced on a variable ratio schedule, which is the intermittent schedule least vulnerable to extinction.

Answer 107

Answer A is correct: The DSM uses a categorical diagnostic system and allows for heterogeneity within each diagnostic category through its use of a polythetic criteria set that requires an individual to meet only a subset of characteristic symptoms.

Answer 108

a. Incorrect Primary circular reactions are simple motor habits that involve the infant's body (e.g., thumbsucking). b. Incorrect Secondary circular reactions include simple repetitive actions that help the infant gain volunatary control over his/her behavior. c. Incorrect Coordinated secondary reactions include intentional, goal-directed behaviors that combine secondary circular reactions into new, more complex action sequences. d. CORRECT Tertiary circular reactions involve exploring the properties of objects by acting on them in new ways -- e.g., twisting and turning a shaped object so that it fits through a hole.

Answer 109

Scores on the KABC-II may be interpreted in terms of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities or Luria's neuropsychological processing model. b. CORRECT Luria's model is recommended for examinees whose performance on measures of crystallized intelligence is likely to be negatively affected by a language or hearing impairment.

Answer 110

A court-ordered evaluation precludes the need for an informed consent, even when the person to be evaluated is a minor. c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the provisions of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012), which states that the subject of a court-ordered evaluation must be informed of the evaluation nature and purpose.

Answer 111

d. CORRECT It's appropriate not to treat clients when your beliefs and attitudes may impact your objectivity or otherwise harm the therapeutic process. The best course of action is this situation is to make a referral.

Answer 112

c. CORRECT Snowden et al.'s data indicate that, in comparison to Whites, African Americans are overrepresented in public inpatient mental health services but are underrepresented in outpatient mental health services.

Answer 113

d. CORRECT Of the drugs listed, only anticonvulsant drugs (especially carbamazapine and valproate) have been found to be comparable to lithium in their beneficial effects.

Answer 114

Item response theory (IRT) differs from classical test theory in terms of several assumptions. a. Incorrect One difference between IRT and classical test theory is that IRT assumes that, when certain conditions are met, shorter tests can be more reliable than longer tests. c. CORRECT Classical test theory is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement is a constant that applies to all examinees, regardless of their level of ability. In contrast, IRT is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement increases at the extremes of a distribution -- i.e., is larger for individuals with very high or low ability than for those with average ability.

Answer 115

a. Incorrect An acronym involves constructing a word from the first letter of the words to be memorized. b. Incorrect Chunking involves grouping items that are to be recalled and is useful for increasing the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory. c. Incorrect An acrostic is a phrase or rhyme that is composed of words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized. d. CORRECT The keyword method is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked (e.g., foreign-language learning). It involves constructing a visual image that combines the two words.

Answer 116

Answer C is correct: The meaning of the term "habituation" depends on the context in which it is used. From the perspective of pharmacology, habituation occurs when repeated use of a drug results in a desire for continued use with little or no desire to increase the amount or dose of the drug and no physical dependence on the drug.

Answer 117

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four stages identified by Cross. b. CORRECT These are the four stages assessed by the Parham and Helms measure.

Answer 118

The term "responsibility" is a key one in this question and may have helped you identify the correct response. d. CORRECT According to Glasser, a "success identity" results when one takes responsibility for fulfilling one's own needs and does so in ways that do not interfere with the ability of others to do the same thing.

Answer 119

b. CORRECT This is the figure cited by the NPF and others and provides evidence that, in some cases, depression related to Parkinson's disease is not just a reaction to the diagnosis.

Answer 120

d. CORRECT The inability to monitor one's own cognitive processes suggests poor metacognitive ("knowing about knowing") skills.

Answer 121

d. CORRECT In a jigsaw classroom, students work on a project as a team and are therefore dependent on one another to complete the group assignment. The research has shown that the jigsaw classroom is useful for reducing prejudice and hostility.

Answer 122

d. CORRECT Publication credit must reflect the contribution of the individual to the research and, when an article is substantially based on a student's doctoral dissertation, the student is ordinarily listed as first author.

Answer 123

c. CORRECT A music student with sound-color synesthesia would be likely to benefit from color-coding the piano keys since he/she "sees" sounds in different colors.

Answer 124

A subpoena duces tecum requires an individual to appear at a legal proceeding and bring specified records or other docments. a. CORRECT There are several things you would want to do in this situation including determining if the subpoena is legally valid and, if so, contacting the client to obtain a release. However, these are not given as options in the answers, and this answer is the best one given the circumstances described in the question. Assuming that the subpoena is legally valid, you would have to appear as requested but would assert the privilege on behalf of your client since you have not received his/her permission to provide confidential information. Note that, while a court order would compel you to testify and provide records, you would also be permitted to do so if the client signs a release, which is why answer c is not a better answer.

Answer 125

Participants in Milgram's (1963) obedience to authority studies were assigned the role of teacher and asked to deliver electric shock to a learner (actually a confederate) when the learner made a mistake while recalling a list of words. b. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one best describes a conclusion that can be drawn from Milgram's research - i.e., participants believed the experimenter was responsible for the events that occurred during the study.

Answer 126

a. Incorrect Retroflection involves doing to someone else what one wants to do to others. b. Incorrect Confluence refers to the absence of a boundary between the self and others. c. CORRECT Introjection occurs when a person accepts facts, values, etc. from the environment without actually understanding or assimilating them. d. Incorrect Deflection is the use of humor, abstract generalizations, and other distractions to avoid maintaining contact with the environment.

Answer 127

a. CORRECT The Spearman rho (also known as the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient) is used to determine the degree of association between two variables that are expressed as ranks. b. Incorrect The Pearson r is used when both variables are continuous. c. Incorrect The point biserial is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy. d. Incorrect The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true dichotomies.

Answer 128

b. CORRECT Kessler et al. found a relationship between perceived exposure to discrimination and a diagnosis of Major Depression or Generalized Anxiety Disorder in the previous year for both African Americans and Whites. a. Incorrect This issue was addressed by R. C. Kessler, K. D. Mickelson, and D. R. Williams who found that African Americans reported higher levels of perceived exposure to discrimination - e.g., 50% of African Americans and 31% of Whites reported exposure to "major discrimination." However, the relationship between discrimination and mental health did not vary in a consistent or substantial way across different groups

Answer 129

Overlearning refers to continued practice beyond the point of mastery. a. CORRECT Overlearning, or practicing a behavior beyond the time required to learn it, is associated with improvements in both short-and long-term recall and resistance to extinction.

Answer 130

a. CORRECT You probably had trouble answering this question if you did not know that Schachter's two-factor theory is also referred to as the misattribution hypothesis because it predicts that arousal produced by one source (e.g., strenuous physical activity) can be misattributed to another source (e.g., an insult or a potential romantic or sexual partner). In other words, the arousal gets "transferred" to another source. On the exam, you may encounter a few questions that use terms you are unfamiliar with; and, for those question, the process of elimination might help you identify the correct answer. b. Incorrect The confirmatory bias (which is also known as the confirmation bias) predicts that people tend to seek or pay attention to information that confirms their current beliefs. c. Incorrect The catharsis hypothesis predicts that an act of aggression reduces a person's arousal level which, in turn, decreases the likelihood that he/she will act aggressively in the near future. d. Incorrect Psychological reactance is the tendency of a person to resist being influenced by others (usually by doing the opposite of what is desired or expected) when the person believes that his/her personal freedom is being threatened.

Answer 131

Psychologists and other mental health professionals are ethically obligated to obtain informed consent for all professional forensic activities a. CORRECT This response is most consistent with ethical requirements -- see, e.g., Paragraph 9 of APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings. You would also want to obtain the assent from the child and consent from the child's legal representative. However, this is not included in any of the answers, so this answer is the best one.

Answer 132

c. CORRECT Children exhibit a spurt in vocabulary growth between 18 and 24 months and combine two words to construct a short sentence.

Answer 133

To be consistent with ethical guidelines, when an individual is not competent to give informed consent, a consent must be obtained from his/her legal guardian. In addition, the individual should be provided with information about the study in language he/she can understand. c. CORRECT This is most consistent with ethical guidelines (see Standard 3.10 of the APA's Ethics Code).

Answer 134

c. CORRECT This issue is addressed in Standard 3.05(c) of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.05(c) recommends that psychologists avoid multiple relationships. However, it also states that, when psychologists are "to serve in more than one role in judicial or administrative proceedings, at the outset they clarify role expectations and the extent of confidentiality and thereafter as changes occur." In other words, it is acceptable to adopt dual roles in some situations.

Answer 135

Multicollinearity occurs when predictors in a multiple regression equation correlate highly with one another. a. CORRECT When predictors are correlated and the predictors and criterion are administered to different samples and new regression coefficients (beta weights) are derived for each sample, there tends to be a great deal of fluctuation in the size of the weights. (It isn't necessary for you to understand why this is so for the exam -- just know that it is!) b. Incorrect The actual relationship between the predictors and criterion shouldn't change much from sample to sample as the result of multicollinearity, so the multiple correlation coefficient won't change substantially. d. Incorrect By definition, multicollinearity INCREASES as the correlation between predictors increases.

Answer 136

A key distinguishing feature of feminist therapy is its assumption that behavior must be interpreted within an oppressive social context. a. Incorrect Feminist therapists do encourage women to express any anger they may have repressed and to accept the consequences of expressing that anger. b. Incorrect Feminist therapists avoid traditional labels whenever possible, including diagnostic labels. c. CORRECT Although feminist therapists want women to take control of their lives, they avoid revictimization by not placing the blame for problems on the clients themselves. d. Incorrect An egalitarian relationship is a crucial aspect of feminist therapy. Feminist therapists use several techniques to foster an egalitarian relationship including appropriate self-disclosure.

Answer 137

Auditory localization is the ability to orient toward the direction of a sound. a. CORRECT Some auditory localization is evident soon after birth, but this ability seems to disappear between two and four months of age and then reappears and gradually improves during the first year of life.

Answer 138

Tolman found that rats who had been allowed to explore the maze without reinforcement were able to reach the end of the maze faster when reinforcement was provided than did rats who had not been allowed to explore the maze. a. CORRECT Tolman concluded that rats that had been allowed to explore the maze had formed cognitive maps (mental representations) of the maze and confirmed that latent learning (learning without reinforcement) can occur.

Answer 139

Zimbardo found that a person's behavior was affected by his assigned role and the demands of the situation. a. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one best describes Zimbardo's conclusion. In his prison study, students assigned the role of guard quickly began acting authoritarian, while those assigned the role of prisoner took on passive, helpless behaviors.

Answer 140

b. CORRECT An assumption for the chi-square test is that observations are independent, which means that each individual can appear in only one category. In this study, people who lived in the community in both 2000 and 2010 would appear in two categories, which would violate this assumption.

Answer 141

An informed consent should be obtained prior to providing psychological services to an individual and prior to a subject's participation in research. a. CORRECT This question is pretty straightforward. The goal of an informed consent is to protect the recipient of psychological services (or subjects in research studies) by providing them with the information they need to make an informed decision about whether or not to participate.

Answer 142

Answer B is correct: The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is exposure with response prevention (especially in vivo exposure) that exposes the individual to the feared object or situation while preventing him or her from engaging in cognitive or behavioral avoidance.

Answer 143

c. CORRECT The four conditions for malpractice are: (1) a legal duty to the patient; (2) a breach or dereliction of that duty; (3) damage to the patient; and (4) a causal relationship between the breach of duty and the damage.

Answer 144

Answer C is correct: Although ECT has been found to have good short-term effects on depressive symptoms, its use is considered controversial by some experts because of its relatively high relapse rates and adverse effects on memory. However, research has confirmed that right (non-dominant) unilateral ECT causes less retrograde and anterograde amnesia than does bilateral ECT.

Answer 145

c. CORRECT This is a better answer than response d because it more clearly takes the welfare of the client into consideration. It is also the more conservative answer, and a good strategy for ethics questions is to pick the more conservative course of action.

Answer 146

c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. For example, Standard 2.06 requires psychologists to "refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know that there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner." Personal problems include health-related issues that might compromise a psychologist's job performance.

Answer 147

Answer A is correct: In the late 1970s, the learned helplessness model was expanded to include the role of attributions in the development of depression. (Note that, the most recent version of the model places less emphasis on attributions and, instead, focuses on the role of hopelessness.) Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors. Answer C: This is a "made-up" term. Answer D: Rehm's self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

Answer 148

For the exam, you want to know the difference between efficacy and effectiveness research. c. CORRECT Efficacy research is conducted under controlled conditions and, consequently, has good internal validity but limited external validity -- i.e., it is useful for establishing whether or not a treatment is effective under controlled conditions but not for evaluating its generalizability to other conditions. d. Incorrect Effectiveness research uses a correlational or quasi-experimental research design and is useful for evaluating a treatment's generalizability and cost-effectiveness.

Answer 149

Answer D is correct: Characteristic symptoms of Opioid Withdrawal include dysphoric mood, nausea or vomiting; muscle aches; lacrimation or rhinorrhea; pupillary dilation, piloerection, or sweating; diarrhea; yawning; fever; and insomnia. Hallucinations and illusions are not characteristic symptoms of this disorder.

Answer 150

As an ethical psychologist, you have a responsibility to follow through on possible ethical violations of colleagues. d. CORRECT The best course of action would be to confront the colleague directly. (Even if the rumor isn't true, the colleague should be made aware of it.)

Answer 151

Answer A is correct: The most common comorbid symptoms for Tourette's Disorder are obsessions and compulsions and symptoms of ADHD.

Answer 152

Answer D is correct: The impact of brain injury on WAIS-IV scores is reported in the test's Technical and Interpretive Manual, which indicates that individuals in the standardization sample with traumatic brain injury scored highest on Verbal Comprehension followed by Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed.

Answer 153

a. Incorrect A zero-order correlation is the correlation between two variables. b. Incorrect In the context of correlation, "order" refers to the number of variables that are being controlled for. A first-order correlation controls for one other variable (which is what is described in this question), while a second-order correlation controls for two other variables. c. Incorrect A multiple correlation coefficient is the correlation between three or more variables. d. CORRECT Partial correlation, a type of first-order correlation, is used to determine the degree of association between two variables when the effects of a third variable have been removed from both X and Y.

Answer 154

Lowering the predictor (screening device) cutoff score increases the number of "positives" and decreases the number of "negatives." c. CORRECT "Positives" are individuals who are identified by a predictor as having the attribute being assessed - in this case, people who are at risk for drug abuse. Lowering the predictor cutoff increases the number of true and false positives.

Answer 155

a. CORRECT The Zeigarnik effect is associated with Lewin's field theory, which views behavior as a function of the interaction between the person and the environment. b. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect refers to the tendency of research participants to behave differently simply because they are participating in a research study. c. Incorrect The Rosenthal effect is also known as the "self-fulfilling prophecy" effect and is not relevant to the phenomenon described in this question. d. Incorrect The von Restorff effect refers to the tendency to pay attention to or recall stimuli that are distinct from other stimuli (e.g., a noun in a list of verbs).

Answer 156

The term "universal symbols" should have helped you recognize the correct answer to this question. d. CORRECT Of the individuals listed, only Jung incorporates the notion of universal symbols into his work. When working with psychotic patients, Jung noticed a great deal of similarity in the content of their delusions and hallucinations, and this led to the development of his theory of archetypes and the collective unconscious.

Answer 157

Answer B is correct: Both disorders involve rituals, but the goal of rituals is different for OCD and OCPD. In OCD, rituals are performed to reduce anxiety; in OCPD, rituals are related to perfectionism.

Answer 158

c. CORRECT Sexual misconduct with an adult was the primary factor in 4% of cases and one of multiple factors in 33% of cases.

Answer 159

Test-score banding is a method of score interpretation that involves considering people who obtain scores within a specific range (band) as having equivalent scores. d. CORRECT Banding has been identified as a method for reducing biases in testing that contribute to group differences in test scores. Its advocates argue that it is an effective way for reducing adverse impact.

Answer 160

d. CORRECT Although it is generally unacceptable to solicit business from individuals who are "vulnerable to undue influence" (answer a), there are exceptions. For example, Standard 5.06 states that inviting family members to participate in collateral treatment that will benefit a current client is acceptable.

Answer 161

Ellis's theory proposes that beliefs mediate (are responsible for) the impact of an event on our emotional and behavioral reactions to that event. a. Incorrect A moderator variable is a variable that affects the strength of the relationship between two other variables. For example, if the size of the correlation between a predictor and criterion differs for older and younger adults, age is a moderator variable. Note that some authors use the terms "moderator variable" and "extraneous variable" interchangeably. b. CORRECT A mediator variable accounts for (is responsible for) the relationship between two variables. c. Incorrect A latent variable is a theoretical variable that is believed to underlie a measured or observed variable. d. Incorrect A suppressor variable reduces or conceals the relationship between two variables. Consequently, statistically removing the effects of a suppressor variable increases the correlation between the two variables.

Answer 162

c. CORRECT Beck refers to his therapeutic approach as "collaborative empiricism," in part, because the client is encouraged to be actively engaged in the therapeutic process - i.e., to collaborate with the therapist in defining goals, evaluating the progress of therapy, and so on.

Answer 163

Knowing that the "behavioral anchors" used in BARS are critical incidents would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. b. CORRECT Smith and Kendall (1963) incorporated critical incidents into BARS in order to improve the accuracy of performance ratings.

Answer 164

d. CORRECT Sexual relationships with students and supervisees is addressed in Standard 7.07 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.07 states: "Psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority."

Answer 165

a. CORRECT A primary assumption underlying the technique known as survey feedback is that, for change to occur, employees must be familiar with the organization's strengths and weaknesses. For this reason, it involves including employees in all steps of the process. b. Incorrect This sounds more like a premise of sensitivity training. c. Incorrect This better describes the premise underlying quality of work life programs. d. Incorrect This best describes an assumption of contingency theory.

Answer 166

A child's legal guardian has the authority to make decisions relevant to the child's well-being. a. CORRECT The legal guardian may authorize treatment for the child, and approval from the court or a biological relative of the child is unnecessary.

Answer 167

Sensitivity refers to the percent of cases in the validation sample that have the attribute being assessed and were accurately classified as having the attribute by the predictor. a. Incorrect This is the formula for the positive predictive value. b. Incorrect This is the formula for the negative predictive value. c. CORRECT This is the formula for calculating sensitivity. d. Incorrect This describes the formula for calculating specificity.

Answer 168

In this situation, the predictor appears to have differential validity--i.e., different validity coefficients for different groups. b. CORRECT The characteristic that distinguishes the groups is referred to as a moderator variable. The moderator variable (in this case, ethnicity) "moderates" the relationship between the predictor and criterion.

Answer 169

d. CORRECT McNally et al. found that women with repressed memories scored higher on measures of absorption and dissociation and reported more symptoms of depression and PTSD than did women with continuous memories of childhood abuse. (Women with continuous memories did not differ significantly from nonabused women on these measures.) Individuals in this study reporting repressed memories said they believed they had been sexually abused as children but had no autobiographical memories of the abuse.

Answer 170

Chodorow reformulated traditional object relations theory by proposing that women (who continue to be the primary caregivers of young children) interact with male and female children differently, which contributes to gender differences in personality and social relatedness. d. CORRECT Of the studies listed, only this one addresses the impact of the early mother-daughter relationship on the daughter's future social relations (which is a focus of Chodorow's theory).

Answer 171

Recognition that the terms listed in the question are cognitive processes may have helped you choose the correct answer to this question even if you are not familiar with all of the theories listed. c. CORRECT Information-processing theorists focus on the processes of the mind including those listed in this question (which are categorized as information processing "change mechanisms").

Answer 172

d. CORRECT Psychologists may terminate therapy when their well-being is threatened by the client or a person the client knows. In this situation, it is not necessary to provide notification of termination, pretermination counseling, or referrals.

Answer 173

c. CORRECT As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, there is evidence that high anxiety arousal is NOT necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure. The goal of in vivo exposure is to extinguish the classically conditioned response by repeatedly exposing the person to the CS without the US. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what has been found to be true. b. Incorrect Arousability has been linked to the effects of systematic desensitization, not in vivo exposure. Systematic desensitization is usually more successful for individuals low in arousability than for those high in arousability.

Answer 174

d. CORRECT Participants in this study reported feeling more crowded while watching a nonarousing (documentary) film than while watching an arousing (humorous, sexual, or violent) film. Moreover, they said they enjoyed the arousing film more under crowded conditions.

Answer 175

The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very easy item and 1.0 indicating a very difficult item. c. CORRECT For most tests, an average item difficulty level of .50 (moderate difficulty) is preferred for several reasons including those listed in this question.

Answer 176

a. CORRECT Kohlberg's approach to studying moral development involves investigating how the individual responds to a moral dilemma. The first dilemma that he developed (and used in his dissertation) was the Heinz dilemma, which involved a poor man who needed a drug for his dying wife.

Answer 177

The rights of non-custodial parents may be limited in terms of obtaining psychological services for their children. However, custody status does not necessarily affect access to certain kinds of information. a. CORRECT The laws relevant to this situation vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, in general, non-custodial parents have the right to obtain information about their children. In California, for example, the law states that "Notwithstanding any other provision of law, access to records and information pertaining to a minor child, including but not limited to medical, dental, and school records, shall not be denied to a parent because such parent is not the child"s custodial parent" (Civil Code 4600.5).

Answer 178

a. CORRECT An action potential is generated by the movement of positively charged sodium ions into the cell, which creates a state of depolarization (i.e., the interior of the cell becomes less negative).

Answer 179

a. Incorrect Broca's aphasia involves difficulty in producing speech b. Incorrect Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by impairment in comprehension and fluent aphasia. c. CORRECT Conduction aphasia is narrower in terms of symptoms than Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia. It is the result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Broca's and Wernicke's areas and involves the symptoms listed in the question. d. Incorrect Anomic aphasia is characterized by impairments in the ability to retrieve and label semantic concepts.

Answer 180

Answer A is correct: Reactive Attachment Disorder is characterized by inappropriate social relatedness that is related to extreme insufficient (pathogenic) care.

Answer 181

a. CORRECT Standard 6.02(b) states: "If confidential information concerning recipients of psychological services is entered into databases or systems of records available to persons whose access has not been consented to by the recipient, psychologists use coding or other techniques to avoid the inclusion of personal identifiers." Since it is not possible to ensure that anyone other than the representative will not have access to the faxed material, it would be important to delete or code all identifying information.

Answer 182

d. CORRECT K. I. Howard, S. M. Kopta, M. S. Krause, and D. E. Orlinsky found that after the 26th therapy session, 75% of therapy clients included in their study showed a marked improvement in symptoms

Answer 183

Answer B is correct: The essential feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder is the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Answer 184

d. CORRECT ADHD - and, in particular, the lack of behavioral inhibition associated with ADHD - has been linked to an abnormally small caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and prefrontal cortex.

Answer 185

Answer B is correct: Delirium is characterized by disorientation and confusion, so an important goal is provide an environment that decreases disorientation. For example, it is important to reduce distractions and to provide a quiet, well-lit room and constant monitoring.

Answer 186

Answer C is correct: High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety. Reduced caloric intake by those with Anorexia apparently fosters a sense of calm and personal control by lowering serotonin levels. Low levels of serotonin have been linked to depression and apparently contribute to binge eating in Bulimia - i.e., bingeing on sweets and carbohydrates increases serotonin levels and thereby elevates mood.

Answer 187

c. CORRECT Ideally, the increased individuation of the most differentiated family member will motive other family members to become less emotionally involved in the family.

Answer 188

To answer this question, you have to know that a predictor's incremental validity is affected by the selection ratio and the base rate. a. CORRECT A predictor is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy when there are many applicants for each job (i.e., when there is a low selection ratio). c. Incorrect A measure is most likely to have incremental validity when the base rate is moderate (versus low or high).

Answer 189

a. CORRECT The learned helplessness model predicts that, when people view their failures as the result of global, stable, and internal causes (e.g., lack of ability), they are likely to respond to failure with depression or other strong negative emotion.

Answer 190

b. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best one. Males are more likely to do the interrupting, while females are more likely to be the "victims" of interruptions.

Answer 191

Divergent thinking refers to the ability to think flexibly and consider a wide range of solutions. a. Incorrect Sternberg distinguishes between three types of intelligence - analytic, creative, and practical. Divergent thinking is most associated with creative thinking. b. CORRECT Creativity involves a number of attributes including divergent thinking, open-mindedness, unconventionality, and willingness to take risks.

Answer 192

b. CORRECT To make a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability and distinguish between different levels of severity, you have to be able to discriminate among individuals with low intelligence. This requires adequate "floor" - i.e., the test has to have enough easy items to distinguish between people with different levels of low intelligence.

Answer 193

a. CORRECT Of the responses given, this is the best summary of the research. Males receive more attention from teachers and that attention often fosters better academic achievement.

Answer 194

Studies have found that the optimal time for the successful completion of certain types of cognitive tasks is related to circadian arousal, which varies with age: Older adults show peak arousal and task performance levels in the morning, while young adults show higher levels of both in the evening. a. CORRECT Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that depend on inhibitory attentional processes) in the morning than during any other time of the day.

Answer 195

Mental practice refers to the use of mental images in the absence of any overt physical activity to learn or improve one's skills. It is frequently used to enhance athletic performance. a. CORRECT Studies on mental practice have confirmed that it is useful for improving athletic performance when added to physical practice but that its effects are moderated by the skill level of the individual, the type of imagery, and the type of task. Specifically, the research has shown that mental practice is less effective for novices than for skilled individuals; is more effective when it makes use of internal imagery (i.e., imagining the behavior as though one is actually performing it rather than observing oneself performing it); and is more effective for sports that have cognitive elements (e.g., dance and gymnastics) than for sports that rely primarily on strength or motor skills.

Answer 196

a. Incorrect A study must include two or more independent variables to analyze main and interaction effects. b. CORRECT If you used separate t-tests instead of a one-way ANOVA to analyze the data, you would have to conduct multiple comparisons (e.g., a comparison between Level 1 and Level 2, between Level 1 and Level 3, etc.), which would increase the experimentwise error rate. c. Incorrect You would maximize experimental variance by ensuring that groups are as different as possible with regard to the independent variable. d. Incorrect The ANCOVA and randomized block ANOVA are used to control the effects of an extraneous variable.

Answer 197

a. CORRECT Successive approximation conditioning is another name for shaping, which is used to "shape" responses that are unlikely to occur spontaneously.

Answer 198

Knowing that Bandura's social cognitive theory is also known as social learning theory and observational learning would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. c. CORRECT In contrast to behavioral explanations that attribute learning to classical or operant conditioning, Bandura proposed that people acquire a behavior by observing another individual perform that behavior -- i.e., they learn vicariously.

Answer 199

b. CORRECT Not surprisingly, boys usually adjust better to a stepfather than do girls, and there is evidence that that having a stepfather may actually be beneficial for boys, especially preadolescent boys: Over time, these boys often develop close relationships with their stepfathers and become fairly indistinguishable from boys in nondivorced families in terms of behavioral problems and academic achievement. c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Girls (especially preadolescent girls) often have more trouble adjusting to a stepfather than to a stepmother. d. Incorrect This is also the opposite of what is true. Overall, preadolescent boys and girls typically have more trouble adjusting to the remarriage of a parent than do younger children and early adolescents.

Answer 200

Answer D is correct: Conversion Disorder involves a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions.

Answer 201

d. CORRECT Although psychologists have a right to be paid for their services, they must also avoid harming their clients, and withholding records in an emergency situation due to nonpayment of fees would jeopardize the welfare of the client.