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Z MD1 Foundation block > foundation histology > Flashcards

foundation histology Flashcards

1
Q

what is the resolving power of light and electron microscopy

A 
light = 0.2microns
electron = 0.2nanometers
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2
Q

what is the that you have to do to be able to look at something on a slide

A 
fixation
embedding
sectioning
rehydration
put of slide with coverslip
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3
Q

how do you fixate a specimen

A

put it in formalin –> chemically cross links molecules together to lock in place = toughens

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4
Q

why do you fixate specimens

A

to prevent autolysis and bacterial colonization of cells

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5
Q

what is the process of embedding

A

gradually dehydrate the specimen in alcohol and then xylene then molten paraffin = stiffens tissue

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6
Q

how do you section a specimen

A

using a microtome

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7
Q

haematoxylin binds to… and what colour

A

binds to phosphate groups of nucleic acid

blue

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8
Q

eosin binds to… and what colour

A

binds to ionized amino groups of proteins

pink

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9
Q

what defines a CT

A

few cells to a large mass of ECM which consists of fibres embedded in ground substance containing tissue fluid: ECF

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10
Q

what is the component of CT that determines the CT “type”

A

the ECM

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11
Q

what are the 4 basic tissue types

A

CT
epithelia
muscle
neural tissue

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12
Q

what is the difference between parenchyma and stroma

A 
parenchyma = functional cells
stroma = support tissue
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13
Q

CT comes from which developmental layer

A

mesenchymal stem cells of the mesoderm

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14
Q

what are the 3 main groups of proteins in plasma

A
  • those involved in coagulation
  • albumin
  • globulins
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15
Q

what is the function of plasma proteins

A

exert colloid osmotic pressure

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16
Q

where are plasma proteins synthesised

A

in the liver

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17
Q

normal haematocrit

A

45%

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18
Q

diameter of RBC

A

7.2microns

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19
Q

what are reticulocytes are explain their structure

A

immature RBCs

- no nucleus but still have some organelles

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20
Q

what is the normal level of reticulocytes in the blood

A

<1%

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21
Q

in what situations would you see an increased level of reticulocytes

A

haemorrhage

haemolysis

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22
Q

what is a normoblast

A

immature nucleated RBC

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23
Q

life span of RBCs and platelets

A

RBC - 120 days

platelets - 8-10 days

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24
Q

lifespan of neutrophils

A

hours

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25
Q

what does a eosinophil look like

A

pink with multiple granules

- with bilobed nucleus

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26
Q

what does a basophil look like

A

blue with large granules

- with bilobed nucleus

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27
Q

where is red marrow found in adults

A

axial skeleton and proximal femurs

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28
Q

where does fetal haemopoiesis mainly occur

A

in the liver

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29
Q

haemopoietic stem cells give rise to blood cells and…

A

osteoclasts

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30
Q

what does it mean if you see increased numbers of the following in the blood

  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • lymphocytes
A 
neutrophils = acute inflammation, especially in bacterial infection
eosinophils = allergy or parasitic infection
lymphocytes = viral infection
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31
Q

what is a “left shift”

A

when immature WBCs are released into the circulation

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32
Q

main cell of CT

A

fibroblasts

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33
Q

3 types of fibres that make up CT

A

elastic
collagen
reticular

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34
Q

explain the structure of collagen

A

3 polypeptide alpha chains that form a triple helix

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35
Q

what are the main roles of collagen 1,2,3,4,7

A 
1 = bone, tendon, ligament
2 = cartilage, IV disc
3 = reticular fibres
4 = BM
7 = anchoring fibrils that link to basement membranes
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36
Q

what is the function of reticulin fibres

A

they provide a framework for cells in certain tissues

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37
Q

explain the structure of elastin fibres

A

central core of elastin and surrounding network of fibrillin microfibrils

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38
Q

where is elastic fibres particularly prevalent in the body

A

aorta, lung, skin

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39
Q

how does Marfans syndrome affect elastin

A

inherited disease of fibrillin 1 needed for the assembly of elastin

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40
Q

what is ground substance

A

the viscous clear substance that is between the fibres of CT

- high water content

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41
Q

explain the distribution of fluid in the body

A
  • 2/3 IC

- 1/3 EC (1/5 - plasma, 4/5 - interstitial)

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42
Q

what are the components of ground substance

A

Glycosaminoglycans

glycoproteins

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43
Q

what is the predominant GAG of ground substance

A

hyaluronic acid - negatively charged - attracts Na - water follows

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44
Q

what are the glycoproteins of the ground substance

A

fibronectin
fibrillin
laminin

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45
Q

what is the role of the glycoproteins of the ground substance of CT

A
  • involved in the regulation of deposition and orientation of fibres
  • involved in links between cells and matrox
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46
Q

what is ECM

A

fibres+ground substance

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47
Q

the ECM is continuously being remodelled by

A

MMP and phagocytosis

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48
Q

function of fibroblasts

A

synthesis of ECM (fibres and ground substance)

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49
Q

what makes brown adipose tissue

A

multiple lipid containing vesicles in a cell

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50
Q

collagen of cartilage

A

2

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51
Q

what are the main components of the ECM of the basement membrane

A
  • collagen IV
  • heparan sulphate
  • structural glycoproteins (laminins and fibronectin)
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52
Q

what is the function of the structural glycoproteins of the BM

A

involved in linking integrins of epithelial cells to ECM

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53
Q

which collagen is involved in the attachment of the BM to underlying CT

A

7

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54
Q

what are the functions of BM

A
  • structural support
  • control of epithelial growth
  • links epithelium to underlying tissue
  • selective barrier to nutrients
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55
Q

what are the 3 structural properties of CT

A
  • tensile
  • elasticity
  • volume
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56
Q

which three things are connective tissue proper

A

bone
cartilage
BM

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57
Q

functions of surface epithelial tissue

A
  • protection
  • barrier, selective diffusion
  • absorption
  • secretion
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58
Q

where is simple squamous epithelium found

A

mesothelium
endothelium
lining of alveoli
glomeruli

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59
Q

where is simple cuboidal epithelium found

A
  • thyroid follicles

- renal tubules

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60
Q

where is simple columnar ciliated epithelium found

A

fallopian tubes

bronchioles

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61
Q

where is simple columnar non-ciliated epithelium found

A

stomach, small and large intestines, gall bladder and bile ducts, endometrium, endocervix

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62
Q

where is non-keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium found

A

oral cavity, oesophagus, anus, vagina, ectocervix

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63
Q

where is stratified cuboidal epithelium found

A

some ducts

64
Q

where is a surface columnar layer overlying myoepithelial layer found

A

breast

sweat glands

65
Q

where is a surface columnar layer overlying basal layer found

A

prostate

66
Q

where is transitional/urothelium found

A

renal pelvis
ureters
bladder

67
Q

cilia have a core of

A

microtubules

68
Q

where are tight junctions found and what are their function

A

found as a continuous circumferential band around the apex of cells
- seal intercellular spaces to block the passage of substances between cells

69
Q

where are adhering junctions and desmosomes found and what are their function

A

on the lateral sides of epithelial cells

- strongly attachment between cells by linking cytoskeletons (cadherins)

70
Q

where are hemidesmosomes and what are their function

A
  • found on the basal side of the epithelial cell

- link the cell to the BM

71
Q

function of gap junctions

A

allow passage of small molecules, communication

72
Q

what are the 4 main transmembrane proteins

A
  • cadherins
  • integrins
  • selectins
  • immunoglobulin superfamily
73
Q

explain the connection made by adherins junctions

A

cytoplasmic tails of cadherins link to anchor proteins (catenins) which link to actin filaments in the cytoplasm
- cadherins link to cadherins on adjacent cell

74
Q

explain the connection made by desmosomes

A

cadherins linke to anchoring proteins which bind to cytokeratin intermediate filaments in the cell
- cadherins link to cadherins on adjacent cell

75
Q

what is the difference between an erosion and an ulcer

A

erosion - a local defect in a surface mucosa

ulcer - a local defect in a mucosa

76
Q

two types of secretion by exocrine glands

A

serous secretion - protein in aqueous medium

mucous secretion - glycoprotein in aqueous medium

77
Q

3 types of cytoskeleton

A

actin
intermediate filaments
microtubules

78
Q

what is the histological appearance of skeletal muscle on cross section and longitudinal section

A

CS - peripheral nuclei

LS - peripheral nuclei, striations, length

79
Q

what is the histological appearance of cardiac muscle on cross section and longitudinal section

A

CS - central nuclei, thick

LS - central nuclei, striations, branching, many capillaries, intercalated discs

80
Q

what is the histological appearance of smooth muscle on cross section and longitudinal section

A

CS - central nuclei, thin

LS - central elongated nuclei, no striations, not branched

81
Q

what is a myofibril

A

contractile component of a myofibre made up of repeating units of sarcomeres

82
Q

myosin and actin

  • which is thick and which is thin
  • what is their arrangement in a sarcomere
A

myosin - thick
actin - thin
–> actin anchored to Z disc, myosin in the middle

83
Q

What is the function of the SR in a myofibre

A
  • release IC Ca into cytoplasm for contraction

- pump Ca2+ back into the lumen of the SR (rich in Ca ATPases)

84
Q

T tubules surround…

A 
each myofibril (two for each sarcomere) 
- at the overlap of thick and thin filaments
85
Q

function of t tubules

A

conduct muscle action potential into muscle cell to SR

86
Q

what are T tubules

A

extensions of the cytoplasmic membrane

87
Q

what are the 3 types of junctions in an intercalated disc of cardiac muscle

A
  • fascia adherins
  • desmosomes
  • gap
88
Q

what specific thing does SM contain that you can see on electron microscopy

A

dense bodies (like Z discs) - anchor actin filaments

89
Q

which type of muscle fibre has the highest glycogen

A

type 2

90
Q

how can skeletal muscle regenerate

A

through satellite cells

91
Q

where are myoepithelial cells found and what is their function

A

surround some exocrine glands - contract via actin/myosin to squeeze out content of gland

92
Q

function of myofibroblasts

A

pull wound closed

93
Q

where are pericytes found

A

extend around capillaries to contract and regulate capillary blood flow

94
Q

epineurium surrounds
perineurium surrounds
endoneurium surround

A 
epi = whole nerve
per = fascicles (bundles of axons)
endo = axons
95
Q

what are the types of necrosis

A 
fibrinoid
coagulative
caseous
liquefactive
fat
96
Q

necrosis is the type of cell death associated with

A

loss of plasma membrane integrity and leakage of enzymes resulting in degredation of the cell

97
Q

histology of necrosis

A
  • increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia
  • nuclear changes
  • -> karyolysis - reduced basophilia
  • -> pyknosis - nuclear shrinkage and increased basophilia
  • -> karyorrhexis - nuclear fragmentation
98
Q

can necrosis by physiological

A

no - only pathological

99
Q

hallmark feature of coagulative necrosis on histological section

A

ghost cells - cellular and tissue architecture is preserved for several days

100
Q

coagulative necrosis is typical where

A

in solid organs (except the brain)

101
Q

when is caseous necrosis found

A

due to necrotising granulomatous inflammation due to TB

102
Q

histological feature of caseous necrosis

A

amorphous granular debris without distinct cell corders

103
Q

macroscopic feature of caseous necrosis

A

looks like cheese

104
Q

what is liquefactive necrosis

A

when the dead cells are digested and transformed into a viscous liquid mass or cavity

105
Q

liquefactive necrosis is typical of what

A

cerebral infarction

106
Q

when do you get fat necrosis

A

typical of a release of lipases due to acute pancreatitis

107
Q

how does fat necrosis lead to saponifcation

A

lipases cause digestion of cell membranes –> releases TG esters –> converted to FA –> FA combine with Ca –> saponification

108
Q

what do you see histologically with fat necrosis

A
  • no nuclei
  • granular pink eosinophilic material
  • foamy macrophages (later)
109
Q

when is fibrinoid necrosis typically seen

A

in association with immune reactions involving blood vessels –> leakage of fibrin –> necrosis

110
Q

what are the 4 intracellular pigments

A

carbon
lipofuschin
melanin
haemosiderin

111
Q

what is haemosiderin

A

large aggregates of ferritin micelles (ABNORMAL)

112
Q

what does haemosiderin look like in H&E

A

large brown granules

113
Q

what is lipofuschin

A

complexes of lipid and proteins associated with lysosomes that result from oxidative injury by free radicals –> accumulate with age

114
Q

what does lipofuschin look like in H&E

A

insoluble yellow-brown

115
Q

what happens to the cell size during apoptosis and necrosis

A

apoptosis - reduced (shrinkage)

necrosis - enlarged (swelling)

116
Q

what happens to the nucleus during apoptosis and necrosis

A

apoptosis - fragmentation into nucleosome-size fragments

necrosis - karyolysis –> pyknosis –> karyorrhexis

117
Q

what happens to the plasma membrane during apoptosis and necrosis

A

apoptosis - intact, may be released in apoptotic bodies

necrosis - disrupted

118
Q

is there inflammation associated with apoptosis or necrosis

A

apoptosis - no

necrosis - frequently

119
Q

principle targets of cell injury

A

mitochondria
calcium homeostasis
cell membranes
DNA and proteins

120
Q

what are the 4 mechanisms of IC accumulation

A
  • reduced removal of a normal substance (fatty liver)
  • accumulation of an abnormal substance due to genetic defects effecting cellular handling (alpha1AT)
  • failure to degrade a metabolite due to an inherited deficiency of an enzyme (glycogen storage disease)
  • deposition of an exogenous substance which cannot be degraded by the cell (carbon)
121
Q

what is the difference between dystrophic and metastatic calcification

A

dystrophic - where there has been tissue damage in some way, and occurs in these tissues that are degenerate or necrotic that are not completely removed
metastatic - can occur in normal tissue, and results due to a high blood calcium level

122
Q

explain the death receptor (extrinsic) pathway for apoptosis

A

receptor ligand interactions (Fas and TNF R) –> activation of caspase -8 –> cleavage and activation of Bid –> activation of pro-apoptotic proteins Bak and Bax –> dimerisation –> insertion into mitochondrial membrane (pore) –> leakage of cytochrome c and other mitochondrial proteins into cytoplasm –> activation of caspase 9 –> caspase cascade –> breakdown of cytoskeleton and endonuclease activation –> DNA fragmentation –> apoptotic body

123
Q

explain the mitochondrial (intrinsic pathway for apoptosis)

A

cell injury activates Bcl-2 family and inhibits anti-pro-apoptotic proteins –> activation of pro-apoptotic proteins Bak and Bax –> dimerisation –> insertion into mitochondrial membrane (pore) –> leakage of cytochrome c and other mitochondrial proteins into cytoplasm –> activation of caspase 9 –> caspase cascade –> breakdown of cytoskeleton and endonuclease activation –> DNA fragmentation –> apoptotic body

124
Q

what are the main features of the necrotic pathway

A
  • ROS
  • loss of mitochondrial membrane potential
  • decreased ATP
  • nuclear chromatin damage
  • increased cytosolic Ca
  • ER and cellular swelling
  • decreased protein synthesis
  • Membrane damage –> leakage of enzymes
125
Q

potential systemic signs and symptoms of inflammation

A 
tachycardia
malaise, anorexia
fever, rigors, chills
weight loss
anaemia (if chronic)
126
Q

blood investigations when looking for inflammation

A

FBE
CRP
ESR

127
Q

what is inflammation

A

the protective response of living vascularised tissue to injury

128
Q

features of acute inflammation

A
  • neutrophils
  • fluid and protein exudate
  • vasodilatation
  • macrophages
129
Q

features of chronic inflammation

A
  • macrophages
  • lymphocytes
  • plasma cells
  • fibrosis/scarring
130
Q

describe the vascular response to acute inflammation

A
  • transient arteriolar constriction
  • arteriolar, then capillary and venular dilation
  • increased vascular permeability –> leakage of plasma proteins
  • vasocongestion –> neutrophil migration
131
Q

what causes the retraction of endothelial cells to allow migration of neutrophils

A

histamine, NO

132
Q

which vessel is particularly involved in diapedesis

A

venules

133
Q

dead neutrophils die by

A

apoptosis

134
Q

which cytokines released by macrophages promote endothelial activation

A

IL-1

TNF

135
Q

which cytokines released by macrophages promote acute phase response

A

IL1, 6 and TNF

136
Q

cardinal features of acute inflammation

A 
redness
swelling
heat
pain
loss of function
137
Q

3 types of acute inflammatory exudate

A
  • purulent/suppurative - usually due to bacterial infection
  • fibrinous - tend to occur on serosal surfaces
    serous
138
Q

what are the types of oedema

A
  • transudate - occurs with normal vascular permeability (much less protein)
  • exudate - occurs due to increased vascular permeability (rich in protein)
139
Q

what is the difference between hyperemia and vasocongestion

A

hyperemia - active process of vasodilation

vasocongestion - passive, due to reduced outflow of blood from a tissue

140
Q

what cytokines mediate fever

A

Il-1, 6, and TNF, and PGE2

141
Q

what mediates pain

A

prostaglandins and bradykinin

142
Q

what mediates tissue damage during acute inflammation

A

neutrphil granule contents
ROS
NO

143
Q

what mediates endothelial activation during acute inflammation

A

TNF

IL-1

144
Q

What mediates an increased vascular permeability during acute inflammation

A

histamine
serotonin
bradykinin
leukotrienes

145
Q

what mediates vasodilatation during acute inflammation

A

histamine
PGE
NO

146
Q

what are the 3 outcomes of acute inflammation

A

resolution
healing by repair
chronic inflammation

147
Q

the outcome of acute inflammation depends on…

A
  • tissue type

- whether the cell damaged has the capacity to regenerate/replicate

148
Q

explain resolution of acute inflammation

A

the damage is minimal –> dead cells regrow via cell proliferation and differentiation

149
Q

explain in general terms healing by repair of acute inflammation

A

some damage to tissue –> organisation of tissue through phagocytosis, and granulation tissue formation

150
Q

what are the 4 components of granulation tissue

A
  • inflammatory cells (macrophages, lymphocytes)
  • angiogenesis
  • fibroblast migration and proliferation
  • deposition of ECM (in time, more and more collagen laid down –> scar)
151
Q

which cytokine is important for angiogenesis in granulation tissue

A

VEGF

152
Q

which cytokines are important for fibroblast migration and proliferation in granulation tissue

A

PDGF, TGF-beta, FGF

153
Q

what local factors can influence healing

A 
movement
size, location of wound
foreign material
infection
blood flow
extensive necrosis
154
Q

what are the 2 types of granulomatous inflammation

A

foreign body granuloma

immune granuloma

155
Q

granulomatous inflammation is characterized by

A

epitheliod macrophages and multinucleate macrophages

156
Q

which cytokine is important in granulomatous inflammation

A

IFN-gamma released by T cells –> activates macrophages

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