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Foundations Exam > Foundation Cell Division and Histology > Flashcards

Foundation Cell Division and Histology Flashcards

1
Q

Haploid means
Diploid means

A

Haploid means one set of chromosomes and diploid means 2

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2
Q

G1 and G2 phase is a phase where the cell monitors _____________ to make sure the conditions are suitable

A

So, the G1 and G2 phase is a phase where the cell monitors the internal and external environment to endure that conditions are suitable, and preparations are complete before the cell commits itself to the major upheavals of S phase and mitosis.

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3
Q

List the controls of the Cell Cycle

A
  • G1/S-cyclins
  • S cyclins
  • M cyclins
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4
Q

For CDK to be active. it must be bound to ______

A

Cyclin

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5
Q

Only when the complex is formed between cyclin and cdk, what happens?

A

The protein kinase is activated to trigger specific cell cycle events

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6
Q

Without cyclin, cdk is _____

A

Inactive

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7
Q

G1/S cyclin activates cdks is ________

A

In late G1 and triggers the progression through start resulting in a commitment to cell cycle entry

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8
Q

S cyclins bind to cdks and helps stimulate _______

A

Help stimulate chromosome duplication. S cyclin levels remain elevated until mitosis and these cyclins also contribute to control some early mitotic events.

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9
Q

M cyclins activate cdks that stimulate entry into mitosis at the _______ checkpoint

A

G2/M checkpoint. M cyclins are later destrpyed in the mid mitosis phase.

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10
Q

What regulatory protein acts like cyclin-cdk complex and controls the metaphase to anaphase transition?

A

APC/C

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11
Q

To summarize the cell cycle, there are ___ checkpoints of which _____ are controlled by cyclins and one by a regulatory protein.

A

3 checkpoints, of which 3 are controlled by cyclins

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12
Q

What is cell synchronization?

A

A process by which cells in a culture at different stages are brought to the same phase. YOU’RE TRYNA SYNC THEM UP

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13
Q

Serum or growth factor starvation arrests cells at ______

A

G0/G1

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14
Q

Replication Inhibitors arrest at _______ and ______

A

G1/S and S phase

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15
Q

Mitotic inhibitors can arrest at

A

The M phase

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16
Q

Centrifugal elutriation is what

A

a technique by which cells are fractionated based on their size

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17
Q

What size cells are G1

A

small size

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18
Q

What size cells are G2

A

large size

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19
Q

what size cells are S

A

intermediate size cells

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20
Q

What happens in prophase of mitosis

A
  1. Nucleolus disappears
  2. Chromatin condenses
  3. separation of centrosomes
  4. formation of the mitotic spindle
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21
Q

what happens in prometaphase of mitosis

A
  1. nuclear envelope disassembles
  2. chromosomes attch to spindle microtubles via kinetochores
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22
Q

The plus ends of the microtubules project _____ from centrosomes while the minus ends are anchored at the ________

A

Plus ends = away from centrosomes
minus ends= anchored at spindle poles

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23
Q

Kinetochore microtubles connect the spindle poles with the _______

A

kinectochores of sister chromatids

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24
Q

Iinterpolar microtublues from the two poles interdigitate at the ________

A

spindle equator

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25
Q

Astral microtubules radiate out from the poles into the _________ and usually interact with the _________ helping to position the spindle in the cell

A

Astral microtubles = radiate into cytoplasm

usually interact with the cell cortex helping to position the spindle in the cell

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26
Q

Motor proteins are involved in _________

A

spindle assembly and function

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27
Q

Dynein is a motor protein that moves towards the _______

A

minus end

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28
Q

kinesin-5 is a motor protein that moves towards the

A

plus end

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29
Q

kinesin-14 is a motor protein moving twards the

A

minus end

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30
Q

kinesin -4, 10 is a motor protein moving towards the

A

plus end

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31
Q

Motor proteins helps in

A

anchoring the microtubule to the chromatids, aligning at the equator
then segregation of the chromatids to the opposite poles.

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32
Q

Explain for kinetochores capture microtubles from opposite spindle pole to convert unipolar to bipolar attachment. Use the following terms

  1. Prometaphase
  2. astral microtubule
  3. lateral attchment
    1. unipolar attachment, bipolar attachment
A
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33
Q

Sister kinetochores are constructed in a ________ orientation

A

Back to back orientation. This reduces the likelihood that both kinetochores can face the same spindle pole.

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34
Q

What are the two theories that explain depolymerization pulling the kinetochore towards the spindle

A
  1. Force pulls
    1. Polar ejection force
35
Q

What happens in metaphase of mitosis?

A
  1. meet in the middle
  2. chromosomes align at the equator of the spindle
  3. kinetochore microtubles attches to the sister chromatids
36
Q

What happens in anaphase in mitosis

A
  1. Pulled apart
  2. chromatids separate to form two daughter chromosomes
  3. move towards opposite poles kinetochore microtublue gets shorter
37
Q

Whats the difference between anaphase A and B

A

A: shortening of kinetochore microtubules, movement of daughter chromosomes to poles, forces generated mainly at kinetochores

B: Sliding force is generated between interpolar microtubules from opposite poles to push poles apart; interpolar microubules also elongate

A pulling force acts directly on the poles to move them apart

38
Q

What happens in telophase of mitosis

A
  1. T for terminal/ the end
  2. new nuclear envelope forms chromosomes unfold back into chromatin
  3. nucleoli reappears
  4. cell continue to elongate
39
Q

What two things happen in cytokineses

A
  1. cytoplasm divides into 2
  2. daughter cells divide.
40
Q

What is the gist of meiosis

A

dont be scared.

its the process by which germ cells divide to produce gametes.

Its a cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent by half and PRODUCES 4 GAMETE CELLS

41
Q

Meiosis begins with a parent cell that is ____

A

Diploid. Has two copies of each chromosome.

42
Q

What is the result of meiosis

A

results in 4 daughter cells that are haplois, contain half the number of chromsomes of the diploid parent cell.

*lol dont forget (a)chaar mei

43
Q

When does crossing over occur?

A

Prophase I of meiosis 1

44
Q

What happens in Prophase 1 of meisosis 1

A
  1. chromatids match up with their homologous pair and fasten together (synapsis)
  2. CROSSING OVER HAPPENS HERE
    1. Crossing over is the exchange of segments during synapsis
45
Q

What is the longest phase of meiosis

A

prophase 1

46
Q

a tetrad or bivalent is actually just

A

two chromosomes and four chromatids

47
Q

The process of pairing or fastening together the homologous chromosomes is called ______

A

synapsis

48
Q

crossing over occurs at

A

chiasmata

49
Q

How are homologous chromosomes held together?

A

The synaptonemal complex

Its a protein lattice that looks like railroad tracks and connects paired homologous chromosomes.

50
Q

Synaptonemal complexes have _________ and __________ that hold the homologous chromosomes in place.

A

transverse filaments and cohesion complexes

51
Q

T/F: there is no interphase before meiosis II.

A

True.

52
Q

Memorize this summary

A
53
Q

Meiosis is responsible for alot of genetic diversity. It is accomplished via _______ and _______

A

independent assortment and crossing- over

54
Q

Independent assortment occurs only in ________

A

meiosis I

55
Q

_________ scrambles pieces of DNA from maternal and paternal genes which ensures that genes assort independently from one another.

A

recombination

56
Q

___________ is known as trisomy 21.

A

down syndrome.

57
Q

Trisomy 21 is a result of

A

a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21.

  • physical growth delays
  • mild to moderate intellectual disability
  • characteristic facial features
58
Q

What is cellular senescence?

A

Essentially irreversible arrest of cell proliferation (growth) that occurs when cells experince potentially oncogenic stress.

-its a deteriorative process which naturally slows down and terminates the functional life of a cell.

59
Q

What is the Hayflick limit

A

The number of divisions that cells complete upon reaching the end of their replicative life span

60
Q

What causes cellular senescence

A
  1. Decline in functional efficiency of specialized non dividing cells (nerve cells, muscles cells)
    1. Decline in division capacity of actively dividing cells (replicative senescence) Eg: lympocytes, epithelial cells
61
Q

What are some physiological changes seen in cellular senescnece

A
  1. build up of calcium ions
  2. loss of rRna
  3. Decline in transcription
  4. decline in protein synthesis
    1. decline in energy production
62
Q

what are some subcellular changes seen in cellular senescence

A
  1. change in fluidity and permeability of plasma membrane
  2. decrease in granular ER
  3. degeneration of mitochondria
    1. senescence-associated secretory phenotype
63
Q

What is the DNA damage theory

A

The accumulation of damaged DNA inhibits cell functions and division

64
Q

What is the telomere theory

A

there is a shortening of telomeres with each division

65
Q

List 3 pathological process involved in cell death

A
  1. Autolysis: destruction of a cell through the action of its own enzymes
  2. apoptosis: programmed cell death
    1. necrosis: uncontrolled cell death
66
Q

Histology slide prep

A
  1. tissue collection
  2. fixation
  3. embedding
  4. sectioning
  5. mounting
  6. staining
    1. observing with a microscope
67
Q

What is formalin fixation

A

It prevents tissue damage and its helps preserve tissue morphology. It enables long-term storage

68
Q

Hematoxilin vs. Eosin Stain

A

Hematoxylin: binds to negatively charged structures (ex: nucleus)

Eosin: Acid dye adheres to positively charged structures (proteins in cytoplasm)

69
Q

What is trichrome stains best used for

A

identifying connective tissue

Blue: collagen, cartilage

red: cytoplasm, muscle fibers

yellow/orange: blood vessels

black/brown: nuclei

70
Q

What stain would you use to detect polysaccharides such a glycogen, glycoprotein, and glycolipids

A

Periodic acid-schiff (PAS)

nuclui: blue/purple
carbohydrates: magenta

71
Q

What are the different types of tissue sectioning?

A

longitudinal, cross section, oblique

72
Q

What are the four tissues in the human body

A
  1. Nervous tissue (initiate and transmit nerve impulses)
    1. brain
    2. spinal cord
    3. nerves
  2. Muscle tissue (contract to produce movement)
    1. cardica
    2. smooth
    3. skeletal
  3. Epithelial tissue (line body surfaces and form glands)
    1. Lining of GI tract organs and other hollow organs
      1. skin surface
  4. Connective tissue (support and protect body parts)
    1. fat and other soft padding tissue
    2. bone
    3. tendon
73
Q

Why do we study histology?

A

to understand NORMAL tissue structures

74
Q

Epithelium is a sheet of cells that covers the (list 3 things)

A
  1. covers the body surface
  2. lines the body cavity
    1. form glands
75
Q

Match

simple squamos, simple cuboidal, simple columanr, pseudostratified ciliated columnar, and stratified squamos

with

esophagus, respiratory tract, air sacs of the lungs, kidney, and intestine

A
  1. simple squamous = air sacs of the lung
  2. simple cuboidal = kidney
  3. simple columnar = intestine
  4. pseudostratified ciliated columar = respiratory tract
    1. stratified squamous = esophagus
76
Q

Epithelial tissue have little/ lot extracellular space and specialized/unspecialized junction

A

little extracellular space and specialized junction

77
Q

epitheilial cells are polarized meaning they have ____ and ______ regions

A

apical and basal regions

*attached to basement mebrane (basal lamina + reticular layer)

78
Q

T/F epithelial tissue is vascular

A

FALSE. Epithelial tissue is avascular (no blood vessels)

79
Q

List the function of epithelium

A

think PASSIFS

Protection

absorption

secretion

sensation

ion transfort

fluid filtration

slippery surface (by mucus secretion for lubrication)

80
Q

When naming epithelia, first name the _____ and then the _______

A

number of layers, and then shape

81
Q

what are the 3 cell shapes

A

squamous, cuboidal, columnar

82
Q

What are the names of the layers in epithelia

A
  1. simple, one-cell layer, all cells are attached to the basement membrane
    1. stratified, multiple cell layers
83
Q

Modes of secretion

A

merocine: secretory vesicles released
apocrine: apical portion of cell is pinched off
holocrine: entire cell is secreted

84
Q

Important apical specializations to know

A
  1. cilia
  2. microvili
    1. stereocilia
  3. keratin `

Foundations Exam (5 decks)

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