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#passmed 2022 > Formatives > Flashcards

Formatives Flashcards

1
Q

What is Section 5 (2) of Mental Health Act? (3 things)

A
  1. Gives doctors ability to detain someone in hosp for 72 hours
  2. Can be done quickly by 1 doctor, e.g if a pt is suicidal
  3. Gives time to do further assessment n see if you need to detain them longer under another Act
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2
Q

What is Cyclothymia? (2 things)

A
  1. Milder form of Bipolar
  2. Feeling low to high (very mild depression –> hypomania)
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3
Q

What is the tx for Cyclothymia? (3 things)

A
  1. CBT
  2. SSRI
  3. Lithium
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4
Q

What is Carbamazepine?

A

Anti-epileptic (mood stabiliser as well)

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5
Q

What does Carbamazepine do to the liver?

A

Enzyme inducer

Carba gives it kahraba

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6
Q

What is the difference between Social anxiety n Agoraphobia?

A

Agoraphobia - fear of CROWDS

Social anxiety - fear of ppl judge / criticise

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7
Q

What is the difference between Mental Health Act and Mental Capacity Act?

A

Mental Health Act: detain ppl with psychiatric illnesses

Mental Capacity Act: detain ppl with no capacity, aka DRUNK

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8
Q

What meds is CI in ppl taking Clarithromycin abx?

What does this increase risk of if given?

A

Statins (e.g simvastatin)

Statin-related Myopathy: Rhabdomyolysis (aka Coca Cola urine)

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9
Q

What is a big RF of VT?

A

Smoking

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10
Q

What meds is CI for HF pt wt reduced EF?

A

Verapamil (any Ca channel blockers)

Remember HF is ABS

  1. ACEi
  2. Beta blockers
  3. Spironolactone
  4. (very acutely give furosemide tho)
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11
Q

What do you give to reverse Digoxin toxicity?

A

DigiBind

Digibind to bind da digoxin innit lol

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12
Q

Which COPD pt should be offered LTOT? (2 people)

A

pO2 7.3-

OR

pO2 8- with ONE of:

  1. Pulm HTN
  2. Peripheral Oedema
  3. Secondary Polycthaemia (red face remember)
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13
Q

What should you give to induce remission for SEVERE UC?

A

Hydrocortisone

remember if Severe UC, Skip da aminosalycilates, jus go Str8 to Steroids

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14
Q

After stopping a blood transfusion bc given wrong blood, what should you do?

A

Fluids but remember dis:

IV 0.9% saline, 500ml over 30 mins

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15
Q

What is Amyloidosis? (2 things)

A
  1. Kidney condition
  2. EC deposition of Amyloid protein
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16
Q

What are the common NON-specific CF of Amyloidosis? (3 things)

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. SOB
  3. WL
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17
Q

What are the specific CF of Amyloidosis? (5 things)

A
  1. Ischaemic stroke
  2. HF symptoms
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Hepatosplenomegaly
  5. Peripheral neuropathy

+ Fatigue, SOB, WL

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18
Q

How does Oesophageal varices secondary to Cirrhosis present? (4 things)

A
  1. Vomiting fresh blood
  2. Raised INR - bc no clotting factors bc damaged liver
  3. Low platelets - bc reduced thrombopoetin prod
  4. Macrocytic anaemia - bleeding + Chronic alcoholism / liver disease
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19
Q

How does Adrenal crisis present? (5 things)

A
  1. Probs already have Addisons
  2. Fatigue
  3. Abd pain
  4. Low BP
  5. Low Na, High K
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20
Q

How can Adrenal Crisis be caused?

A

Get ill aka V+D n already have Addisons

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21
Q

How do you tx an Adrenal Crisis?

A

IV hydrocortisone 100mg urgently

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22
Q

What is Primary Biliary Cholangitis?

A

AI disease aka Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

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23
Q

Who usually has Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)?

A

Middle ages women

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24
Q

How does PBC happen? (2 things)

A
  1. AI condition
  2. Bile ducts damaged by Chronic Inflamm –> Cholestasis (reduced bile flow) –> Cirrhosis
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25
Q

What are the CF of PBC? (4 things)

A
  1. RUQ pain
  2. Pruritis (itching)
  3. Jaundice
  4. Xanthelasma
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26
Q

What antibodies are associated w PBC?

A

Anti-Mitochondrial Antibodies (AMA)

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27
Q

What is the tx for PBC? (2 things)

A
  1. Ursodeoxycholic acid (FIRST LINE FOR PBC)
  2. Cholestyramine (for itching)
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28
Q

What is Ursodeoxycholic acid? (2 things)

A
  1. Secondary bile acid
  2. Tx for Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)
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29
Q

What is Cholestyramine? (2 things)

A
  1. Bile acid sequestrant
  2. Reduces jaundice related Itching
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30
Q

What are the complications of PBC? (2 things)

A
  1. Cirrhosis –> Ascites / Varices / Encephalopathy
  2. High risk of HCC
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31
Q

Which test is the most specific for Hepatocellular damage?

A

ALT (ALanine aminoTransiferase)

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32
Q

What is the best investigation for Coeliac disease?

A

Gastroscopy w Duodenal biopsies

(remember looking for Villous Atrophy + Crypt Hyerplasia)

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33
Q

What is the Tx for MRSA?

A

Topical Mupirocin

Mupi-Rock-In for MRSA

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34
Q

Where is the most common site for a Fragility #?

A

Distal radius

35
Q

If someone has poor renal function, and Colchicine is not an option (in SBA world innit) what should you give someone with acute Gout?

A

Intra-articular steroid injection

NSAID CI bc poor renal function, n colchicine jus not an option in da SBA question, so go wid steroid injection

36
Q

What 2 CF differentiate Diffuse systemic sclerosis from Limited?

A

Lung PLUS Renal involvement

37
Q

What is the Tx of ankyloising spondylitis which has NOT responded well to NSAIDs?

A

Anti-TNF treatment

38
Q

We said Reactive arthritis comes after a GI infection w beh diarrhoea, what can it ALSO come after?

39
Q

What are the CF of Psoriatic arthritis? (5 things)

A
  1. Polyarthritis (probs assymetrical but can be symmetrical)
  2. Psoriatis rash
  3. Dactylitis (sausage finger)
  4. NAIL PITTING
  5. Sacroiliitis (like AS)
40
Q

What is Ciprofloxacin associated with?

How do you confirm this?

A

Tendinopathy n Tendon ruptures

Confirmed w Simmonds Test (positive = tendon rupture)

41
Q

What should you do if a sus hip # gives a negative XR?

42
Q

What T score is Osteopenia and Osteoporosis?

A

Osteopenia: -1 to -2.5

Osteoporosis: -2.5 and below

43
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma (MM)?

A

Blood cancer: Plasma cell proliferation

44
Q

What is the PassMed pneumonic for Multiple Myeloma CF? (6 things)

A

CRABBI

  1. Calcium: Hypercalcaemia (n assoc CF) (bc high osteoClast activity)
  2. Renal Damage: dehydration
  3. Anaemia: low EPO prod (fatigue + pallor obv)
  4. Bleeding: low platelet prod (bleeding + bruising)
  5. Bones: Back pain + Fragility #s
  6. Infection: Immunosupressed innit
45
Q

What will the bloods say in MM? (3 things)

A
  1. FBC: Anaemia + Thrombocytopaenia
  2. UnE: High urea + creatinine
  3. Raised calcium
  4. High monoclonal IgG/M
46
Q

How is MM dx? (3 things)

A
  1. Monoclonal plasma cells in bone marrow: 10+ %
  2. IgG / M in serum / urine
  3. End organ damage: Hypercalcaemia / High creatinine / Anaemia / Bone #s

All 3

47
Q

What is the tx for MM? (3 things)

A
  1. Dexamethasone
  2. Stem Cell transplant
  3. Chemo
48
Q

What will the bloods and urine results say in Phaechromocytoma? (2 things)

A
  1. High urinary catecholamines
  2. High plasma metanephrine
49
Q

How do you manage HTN in Phaechromocytoma?

A

Alpha blockers (aka Phenoxybenzamine)

Phaeno-Oxy-Binyameen

50
Q

How is the fullness of the stomach relate to the gastric empyting rate?

A

Volume of stomach DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL to gastric emptying rate

51
Q

What things DELAY gastric emptying? (2 things)

A
  1. Duodenal distension
  2. CCK (bc causes GB to release bile into duodenum)
52
Q

What is the local anaesthetic and percentage used for a Ring Block?

A

Ring block with 1% lidocaine

53
Q

What should not be added alongside Local Anaesthetic for digits (fingers / toes)?

Why?

A

Adrenaline (vasoconstrictor)

Bc risk of ischaemic necrosis

54
Q

What is the normal fluid requirements?

A

25-30 ml / kg / day of water

e.g 60kg

60 x 25 = 1500ml

60 x 30 = 1800ml

so answer is: 1500-1800ml

55
Q

What are the normal Sodium req per day?

A

1 mmol / kg / day

so 60kg = 60 mmol / day

56
Q

What is a common side fx of Spinal Anaesthesia?

A

Hypotension

57
Q

How do you calculate ASA (anaeshtesia score in america)?

58
Q

What is the Dependant Variable in a audit gonna be?

A

the OUTCOME

e.g post-op infection

59
Q

When is the best time for a baby to have surgery for undescended testis?

A

@ 1 yr of age

60
Q

What is a Meckels Diverticulum

A

Diverticulum that exists bc incomplete obliteration of Vitelline Duct

61
Q

What nerve supplies the Hip Adductors?

A

Pudendal nerve

62
Q

What HTN med should be withheld on Day of Surgery?

What will it cause if given?

How long can you withold them upto?

A

Ramipril

ACEi will cause intra-op hypOtension

You can withhold them for upto 48 hours b4 op

63
Q

What is a complication that can happen even after the operation from Analgesia given pre-op?

A

Opiate overdose (bc too much opiate anaglesia)

64
Q

What are the CF of post-op complication of pre-op Analgesia Opiate Overdose?

A

Resp depression

65
Q

How do you reverse the post-op complication of pre-op Analgesia Opiate Overdose?

66
Q

What is the screening programme for AAA?

A

Single abd US for males @ 65 yrs

only one, not every few yrs, cah we said if u aint got one @ 65, u probs wont ever get one

67
Q

What size is a Microadenoma vs Macroadenoma of Pituitary?

A

Microadenoma: smaller than 1cm

Macroadenoma: bigger than 1cm

68
Q

What is the tx for symptomatic Microadenoma of pituitary? (2 things)

A
  1. Cabergoline (FIRST LINE)
  2. Transsphenoidal surgery

(Cabergoline = dopamine agonist, so will stop da prolactin hypersecretion)

69
Q

When can you use Ocreotide (somatostatin analogue aka GH inhibitor) for Pituitary tumours? (2 times)

A
  1. Short term pre-op tx
  2. Long term tx if other tx failued
70
Q

What are the CF of Lithium toxicity? (5 things)

A
  1. Confusion
  2. Blurred vision
  3. Abn muscle movements
  4. Polyuria
  5. Diarrhoea
71
Q

What meds can precipitate Lithium toxicity if given alongside Lithium? (2 things)

A
  1. Bendroflumethiazides (more common)
  2. NSAIDs
72
Q

What is an important side fx of Carbimazole (hyperthyroidism tx)?

Therefore what should you always check if showing CF of this?

A

Agranulocytosis

Always check FBC w Neut count

73
Q

What are the CF of Agranulocytosis? (3 things)

A
  1. Fever + Chills
  2. Sore throat
  3. Limb weakness
74
Q

What is a side fx of Amlodipine (Ca channel blocker)? (2 things)

A
  1. Ankle swelling (10%)
  2. Headache
75
Q

What are the side fx of Beta blockers? (2 things)

A
  1. Cold peripheries
  2. Insomnia / nightmares
76
Q

What should you give for a worsening wheeze and reduced peak flow findings in asthma pt?

A

Oral prednisolone

77
Q

What investigations should you do for a 20-30 yr old male with Urinary symptoms?

A

Gram-stain of urethral swabs (CHECK FOR STI)

More likely to be STI than UTI in male of this age range

78
Q

What is the Dx?

  • Pale white patches on neck and trunk
  • Pathces are scaly + itchy
  • Returned from Mediterranean beach holiday
A

Pityriasis versicolor

(yeast infection in young ppl in humid climates)

79
Q

What is the tx for Pityriasis versicolor?

A

Ketoconazole shampoo on body for 5 days

80
Q

What are the CF of Overactive bladder (OAB)? (3 things)

A
  1. Urgency
  2. Urge incontinence
  3. Frequency
81
Q

What is the tx for Overactive bladder (OAB)? (2 things)

A
  1. Anticholinergics (Solifenacin)
  2. Beta agonists (Mirabegron)

Soli fen Akin

Mira Beg Ron

82
Q

When should you not give Mirabegron (beta agonist) for Overactive Bladder (OAB)?

83
Q

What abx should you give a PREGNANT woman w UTI?

A

Cefalexin (cephalosporin)

84
Q

What meds can cause Bradycardia even if given topically?

Very obv, wt meds r SUPPOSED to slow down heart in tachy?

A

BETA BLOCKERS

#passmed 2022 (27 decks)

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