Formatives Flashcards

1
Q

What is Section 5 (2) of Mental Health Act? (3 things)

A
  1. Gives doctors ability to detain someone in hosp for 72 hours
  2. Can be done quickly by 1 doctor, e.g if a pt is suicidal
  3. Gives time to do further assessment n see if you need to detain them longer under another Act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Cyclothymia? (2 things)

A
  1. Milder form of Bipolar
  2. Feeling low to high (very mild depression –> hypomania)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the tx for Cyclothymia? (3 things)

A
  1. CBT
  2. SSRI
  3. Lithium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Carbamazepine?

A

Anti-epileptic (mood stabiliser as well)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does Carbamazepine do to the liver?

A

Enzyme inducer

Carba gives it kahraba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between Social anxiety n Agoraphobia?

A

Agoraphobia - fear of CROWDS

Social anxiety - fear of ppl judge / criticise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between Mental Health Act and Mental Capacity Act?

A

Mental Health Act: detain ppl with psychiatric illnesses

Mental Capacity Act: detain ppl with no capacity, aka DRUNK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What meds is CI in ppl taking Clarithromycin abx?

What does this increase risk of if given?

A

Statins (e.g simvastatin)

Statin-related Myopathy: Rhabdomyolysis (aka Coca Cola urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a big RF of VT?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What meds is CI for HF pt wt reduced EF?

A

Verapamil (any Ca channel blockers)

Remember HF is ABS

  1. ACEi
  2. Beta blockers
  3. Spironolactone
  4. (very acutely give furosemide tho)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do you give to reverse Digoxin toxicity?

A

DigiBind

Digibind to bind da digoxin innit lol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which COPD pt should be offered LTOT? (2 people)

A

pO2 7.3-

OR

pO2 8- with ONE of:

  1. Pulm HTN
  2. Peripheral Oedema
  3. Secondary Polycthaemia (red face remember)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should you give to induce remission for SEVERE UC?

A

Hydrocortisone

remember if Severe UC, Skip da aminosalycilates, jus go Str8 to Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

After stopping a blood transfusion bc given wrong blood, what should you do?

A

Fluids but remember dis:

IV 0.9% saline, 500ml over 30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Amyloidosis? (2 things)

A
  1. Kidney condition
  2. EC deposition of Amyloid protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the common NON-specific CF of Amyloidosis? (3 things)

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. SOB
  3. WL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the specific CF of Amyloidosis? (5 things)

A
  1. Ischaemic stroke
  2. HF symptoms
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Hepatosplenomegaly
  5. Peripheral neuropathy

+ Fatigue, SOB, WL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does Oesophageal varices secondary to Cirrhosis present? (4 things)

A
  1. Vomiting fresh blood
  2. Raised INR - bc no clotting factors bc damaged liver
  3. Low platelets - bc reduced thrombopoetin prod
  4. Macrocytic anaemia - bleeding + Chronic alcoholism / liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does Adrenal crisis present? (5 things)

A
  1. Probs already have Addisons
  2. Fatigue
  3. Abd pain
  4. Low BP
  5. Low Na, High K
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can Adrenal Crisis be caused?

A

Get ill aka V+D n already have Addisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you tx an Adrenal Crisis?

A

IV hydrocortisone 100mg urgently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Primary Biliary Cholangitis?

A

AI disease aka Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who usually has Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)?

A

Middle ages women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does PBC happen? (2 things)

A
  1. AI condition
  2. Bile ducts damaged by Chronic Inflamm –> Cholestasis (reduced bile flow) –> Cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the CF of PBC? (4 things)
1. RUQ pain 2. **Pruritis (itching)** 3. Jaundice 4. Xanthelasma
26
What antibodies are associated w PBC?
**Anti-Mitochondrial Antibodies (AMA)**
27
What is the tx for PBC? (2 things)
1. Ursodeoxycholic acid (FIRST LINE FOR PBC) 2. Cholestyramine (for itching)
28
What is Ursodeoxycholic acid? (2 things)
1. Secondary bile acid 2. Tx for Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)
29
What is Cholestyramine? (2 things)
1. Bile acid sequestrant 2. Reduces jaundice related Itching
30
What are the complications of PBC? (2 things)
1. Cirrhosis --\> Ascites / Varices / Encephalopathy 2. High risk of HCC
31
Which test is the most specific for Hepatocellular damage?
ALT (ALanine aminoTransiferase)
32
What is the best investigation for Coeliac disease?
Gastroscopy w Duodenal biopsies (remember looking for Villous Atrophy + Crypt Hyerplasia)
33
What is the Tx for MRSA?
Topical Mupirocin Mupi-Rock-In for MRSA
34
Where is the most common site for a Fragility #?
Distal radius
35
If someone has poor renal function, and Colchicine is not an option (in SBA world innit) what should you give someone with acute Gout?
Intra-articular steroid injection NSAID CI bc poor renal function, n colchicine jus not an option in da SBA question, so go wid steroid injection
36
What 2 CF differentiate Diffuse systemic sclerosis from Limited?
Lung PLUS **Renal** involvement
37
What is the Tx of ankyloising spondylitis which has NOT responded well to NSAIDs?
Anti-TNF treatment
38
We said Reactive arthritis comes after a GI infection w beh diarrhoea, what can it ALSO come after?
STDs
39
What are the CF of Psoriatic arthritis? (5 things)
1. Polyarthritis (probs assymetrical but can be symmetrical) 2. Psoriatis rash 3. Dactylitis (sausage finger) 4. **NAIL PITTING** 5. Sacroiliitis (like AS)
40
What is Ciprofloxacin associated with? How do you confirm this?
Tendinopathy n Tendon ruptures Confirmed w Simmonds Test (positive = tendon rupture)
41
What should you do if a sus hip # gives a negative XR?
MRI
42
What T score is Osteopenia and Osteoporosis?
Osteopenia: -1 to -2.5 Osteoporosis: -2.5 and below
43
What is Multiple Myeloma (MM)?
Blood cancer: **Plasma cell** proliferation
44
What is the PassMed pneumonic for Multiple Myeloma CF? (6 things)
CRABBI 1. Calcium: Hypercalcaemia (n assoc CF) (bc high osteoClast activity) 2. Renal Damage: dehydration 3. Anaemia: low EPO prod (fatigue + pallor obv) 4. Bleeding: low platelet prod (bleeding + bruising) 5. Bones: Back pain + Fragility #s 6. Infection: Immunosupressed innit
45
What will the bloods say in MM? (3 things)
1. FBC: Anaemia + Thrombocytopaenia 2. UnE: High urea + creatinine 3. Raised calcium 4. **High monoclonal IgG/M**
46
How is MM dx? (3 things)
1. Monoclonal plasma cells in bone marrow: 10+ % 2. IgG / M in serum / urine 3. End organ damage: Hypercalcaemia / High creatinine / Anaemia / Bone #s All 3
47
What is the tx for MM? (3 things)
1. Dexamethasone 2. Stem Cell transplant 3. Chemo
48
What will the bloods and urine results say in Phaechromocytoma? (2 things)
1. High urinary catecholamines 2. High plasma metanephrine
49
How do you manage HTN in **_Phae_**chromocytoma?
Alpha blockers (aka **Phenoxybenzamine**) **_Phae_**no-Oxy-Binyameen
50
How is the fullness of the stomach relate to the gastric empyting rate?
Volume of stomach DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL to gastric emptying rate
51
What things DELAY gastric emptying? (2 things)
1. Duodenal distension 2. CCK (bc causes GB to release bile into duodenum)
52
What is the local anaesthetic and percentage used for a Ring Block?
Ring block with 1% lidocaine
53
What should not be added alongside Local Anaesthetic for digits (fingers / toes)? Why?
Adrenaline (vasoconstrictor) Bc risk of ischaemic necrosis
54
What is the normal fluid requirements?
25-30 ml / kg / day of water e.g 60kg 60 x 25 = 1500ml 60 x 30 = 1800ml so answer is: 1500-1800ml
55
What are the normal Sodium req per day?
1 mmol / kg / day so 60kg = 60 mmol / day
56
What is a common side fx of Spinal Anaesthesia?
Hypotension
57
How do you calculate ASA (anaeshtesia score in america)?
58
What is the Dependant Variable in a audit gonna be?
the OUTCOME e.g post-op infection
59
When is the best time for a baby to have surgery for undescended testis?
@ 1 yr of age
60
What is a Meckels Diverticulum
Diverticulum that exists bc **incomplete** **obliteration** of **Vitelline Duct**
61
What nerve supplies the Hip Adductors?
Pudendal nerve
62
What HTN med should be _withheld_ on Day of Surgery? What will it cause if given? How long can you withold them upto?
Ramipril ACEi will cause intra-op hypOtension You can withhold them for upto 48 hours b4 op
63
What is a complication that can happen even after the operation from **Analgesia** given pre-op?
Opiate overdose (bc too much opiate anaglesia)
64
What are the CF of post-op complication of pre-op Analgesia Opiate Overdose?
Resp depression
65
How do you reverse the post-op complication of pre-op Analgesia Opiate Overdose?
NALOXONE
66
What is the screening programme for AAA?
Single abd US for males @ 65 yrs only **one**, not every few yrs, cah we said if u aint got one @ 65, u probs wont ever get one
67
What size is a Microadenoma vs Macroadenoma of Pituitary?
Microadenoma: smaller than 1cm Macroadenoma: bigger than 1cm
68
What is the tx for symptomatic Microadenoma of pituitary? (2 things)
1. Cabergoline (FIRST LINE) 2. Transsphenoidal surgery (Cabergoline = dopamine agonist, so will stop da prolactin hypersecretion)
69
When can you use Ocreotide (somatostatin analogue aka GH inhibitor) for Pituitary tumours? (2 times)
1. Short term pre-op tx 2. Long term tx if other tx failued
70
What are the CF of Lithium toxicity? (5 things)
1. Confusion 2. Blurred vision 3. Abn muscle movements 4. Polyuria 5. Diarrhoea
71
What meds can precipitate Lithium toxicity if given alongside Lithium? (2 things)
1. Bendroflumethiazides (more common) 2. NSAIDs
72
What is an important side fx of Carbimazole (hyperthyroidism tx)? Therefore what should you always check if showing CF of this?
Agranulocytosis Always check FBC w **Neut** count
73
What are the CF of Agranulocytosis? (3 things)
1. Fever + Chills 2. **Sore throat** 3. Limb weakness
74
What is a side fx of Amlodipine (**Ca channel blocker**)? (2 things)
1. Ankle swelling (10%) 2. Headache
75
What are the side fx of Beta blockers? (2 things)
1. Cold peripheries 2. Insomnia / nightmares
76
What should you give for a worsening _wheeze_ and _reduced peak flow findings_ in asthma pt?
Oral prednisolone
77
What investigations should you do for a 20-30 yr old male with Urinary symptoms?
Gram-stain of urethral swabs (CHECK FOR STI) More likely to be STI than UTI in male of this age range
78
What is the Dx? * Pale white patches on neck and trunk * Pathces are scaly + itchy * Returned from Mediterranean beach holiday
Pityriasis versicolor (yeast infection in young ppl in humid climates)
79
What is the tx for Pityriasis versicolor?
Ketoconazole shampoo on body for 5 days
80
What are the CF of Overactive bladder (OAB)? (3 things)
1. Urgency 2. Urge incontinence 3. Frequency
81
What is the tx for Overactive bladder (OAB)? (2 things)
1. Anticholinergics (Solifenacin) 2. Beta agonists (Mirabegron) Soli fen Akin Mira Beg Ron
82
When should you not give Mirabegron (beta agonist) for Overactive Bladder (OAB)?
HTN
83
What abx should you give a PREGNANT woman w UTI?
Cefalexin (cephalosporin)
84
What meds can cause Bradycardia even if given topically? Very obv, wt meds r SUPPOSED to slow down heart in tachy?
BETA BLOCKERS