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Cardiovascular, Respiratory and Renal Systems > Formative Paper > Flashcards

Formative Paper Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following Starling forces encourage the movement of substances from an idealised
capillary into the interstitium, EXCEPT the:

A. Interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
B. Capillary plasma protein oncotic (colloid) pressure
C. Capillary hydrostatic pressure
D. Positive net filtration pressure

A

B. Capillary plasma protein oncotic (colloid) pressure

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2
Q

A defining feature of AV block is that:

A. QRS complexes are independent of the P wave
B. There is a long QT interval
C. ST segments are elevated
D. Ventricular tachycardia is present

A

A. QRS complexes are independent of the P wave

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3
Q

The osmolality of the tubular fluid leaving the thick ascending limb is:

A. Hypertonic with respect to plasma
B. Isosmotic with respect to plasma
C. Hypotonic with respect to plasma
D. Isotonic with respect to plasma

A

C. Hypotonic with respect to plasma

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4
Q

Identify which ONE of the following statements about the bony thoracic cage is CORRECT:

A. The manubrium forms part of the body of the sternum
B. Ribs 9-10 are also known as floating ribs
C. The manubriosternal joint is also known as the jugular notch
D. The xiphoid process is normally at the level of T10

A

D. The xiphoid process is normally at the level of T10

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5
Q

Breath-hold duration increases by breath-holding after:

A. Rebreathing expired air
B. Increasing the initial lung volume
C. Hypoventilation on room air
D. Breathing hypoxic gas mixtures

A

B. Increasing the initial lung volume

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6
Q

True congestive heart failure is characterised by:

A. Decreased activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
B. A decrease in pulmonary venule pressure
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Right ventricular failure

A

C. Pulmonary oedema

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7
Q

The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential is sustained by the:

A. Closing of voltage-gated potassium channels
B. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
C. Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels
D. Closing of voltage-gated sodium channels

A

C. Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels

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8
Q

The area of the pons which is responsible for shortening the duration of inspiration to induce
a rapid breathing rate is the:

A. Pneumotaxic area
B. Expiratory area
C. Inspiratory area
D. Apneustic area

A

A. Pneumotaxic area

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT:

A. The pharyngeal tonsils can be found in the oropharynx
B. The middle meatus is superior to the middle concha
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

D. Neither A nor B

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10
Q

Osmotic pressure represents the pressure required to:

A. Prevent net movement of water across a permeable membrane
B. Prevent net movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane
C. Promote net movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane
D. Promote net movement of water across a permeable membrane

A

B. Prevent net movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane

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11
Q

Please select the way in which the majority of carbon dioxide is carried in the blood:

A. Bound to haemoglobin
B. Dissolved in plasma
C. Bound to albumin
D. As bicarbonate

A

D. As bicarbonate

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12
Q

Which of the following statements about blood is CORRECT:

A. Thrombocytes are derived from reticulocytes
B. Monocytes are agranular and are derived from lymphoid stem cells
C. Basophils are granular and are derived from myeloid stem cells
D. The neutrophils are the most numerous of the formed elements

A

C. Basophils are granular and are derived from myeloid stem cells

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13
Q

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the control of respiration is CORRECT:

A. Aortic body chemoreceptors connect to the central nervous system via afferent vagus
nerve fibres
B. Carotid body chemoreceptors connect to the central nervous system via afferent
hypoglossal nerve fibres
C. Aortic body chemoreceptors connect to the central nervous system via afferent
hypoglossal nerve fibres
D. Carotid body chemoreceptors connect to the central nervous system via afferent vagus
nerve fibres

A

A. Aortic body chemoreceptors connect to the central nervous system via afferent vagus
nerve fibres

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14
Q

In distal tubule principal cells, ADH:

A. Decreases the water permeability of the cells
B. Exerts its effects via the production of cyclic AMP
C. Acts mainly at V2 receptors on the apical membrane
D. Prevents the activation of aquaporin-2 channels in the basal membrane

A

B. Exerts its effects via the production of cyclic AMP

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15
Q

A patient with chronic renal failure is a suitable candidate for dialysis and the consultant
recommends night-time home dialysis via an indwelling abdominal catheter hooked up to a
bedside dialysis machine. Which type of dialysis was recommended?

A. Haemodialysis with a Haemolyzer
B. Continuous Cycling Haemodialysis
C. Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis
D. Automated Peritoneal Dialysis

A

D. Automated Peritoneal Dialysis

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16
Q

Blood flowing through the kidney takes the following arterial route:

A. Renal, segmental, interlobular, arcuate, interlobar
B. Renal, segmental, interlobular, interlobar, arcuate
C. Renal, segmental, arcuate, interlobar, interlobular
D. Renal, segmental, interlobar, arcuate, interlobular

A

D. Renal, segmental, interlobar, arcuate, interlobular

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17
Q

Which of the following offers the best location for auscultation of the bicuspid valve?

A. Right 2nd rib, just lateral to sternum
B. Left 2nd intercostal space, just lateral to sternum
C. Left 3rd, 4th intercostal space, just lateral to sternum
D. Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular

A

D. Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular

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18
Q

Identify the correct order in which a carbon dioxide molecule taking part in gas exchange
would traverse the components of the respiratory membrane:

A. Fluid layer, epithelial cell, basement membrane, interstitial space, basement membrane,
endothelial cell
B. Endothelial cell, basement membrane, interstitial space, basement membrane, epithelial cell, fluid layer
C. Fluid layer, basement membrane, epithelial cell, interstitial space, endothelial cell,
basement membrane
D. Basement membrane, endothelial cell, interstitial space, epithelial cell, basement
membrane, fluid layer

A

B. Endothelial cell, basement membrane, interstitial space, basement membrane, epithelial cell, fluid layer

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19
Q

The left lung consists of:

A. Two lobes separated by an oblique fissure
B. Two lobes separated by a horizontal fissure
C. Three lobes separated by oblique fissures
D. Three lobes separated by horizontal and oblique fissures

A

A. Two lobes separated by an oblique fissure

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20
Q

Which of the following options lists correctly the order of components of the conducting
airways, where:

RB = Respiratory Bronchiole
AD = Alveolar Duct
B = Bronchi
T = Trachea
AS = Alveolar Sacs
BO = Bronchiole
TB = Terminal Bronchiole

A. RB, TB, AD, AS
B. T, B, BO, RB
C. TB, AD, RB, AS
D. T, B, BO, TB

A

D. T, B, BO, TB

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21
Q

All of the following statements regarding established Eisenmenger syndrome (caused by a
ventricular septal defect) are correct, EXCEPT:

A. Affected patients commonly become polycythaemic
B. Surgical repair of the septal defect is the best treatment option
C. Finger clubbing and cyanosis is often seen in affected patients
D. It is characterised by a right-to-left ventricular shunt and pulmonary hypertension

A

B. Surgical repair of the septal defect is the best treatment option

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22
Q

In the proximal tubule, Na/K-ATPase:

A. Acts as a symporter
B. Drives secondary active transport
C. Maintains a high intracellular sodium concentration
D. Is mainly located on the apical membrane

A

B. Drives secondary active transport

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23
Q

Local vasoconstriction can be caused by:

A. Lactic acid
B. Histamine
C. Nitric oxide
D. Endothelin

A

D. Endothelin

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24
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Stroke Volume (SV) is CORRECT:

A. It is 70mL/beat for a young male with a heart rate of 70bpm and a cardiac output of
7L/min
B. It will decrease if the End Diastolic Volume (EDV) increases
C. It is a measure of the amount of blood in the ventricles prior to systole
D. It will decrease if the afterload increases while the preload remains constant

A

D. It will decrease if the afterload increases while the preload remains constant

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25
Q

If the resistance in the afferent arteriole remains unchanged, but the resistance in the efferent
arteriole decreases, then:

A. Renal blood flow increases and GFR increases
B. Renal blood flow increases and GFR decreases
C. Renal blood flow decreases and GFR increases
D. Renal blood flow decreases and GFR decreases

A

B. Renal blood flow increases and GFR decreases

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26
Q

On a typical ECG, the P wave represents the:

A. Repolarisation of the ventricles
B. Repolarisation of the atria
C. Depolarisation of the atria
D. Depolarisation of the ventricles

A

C. Depolarisation of the atria

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27
Q

From deep to superficial, which ONE of these options correctly lists the layers of the heart:

A. Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal serous pericardium,
fibrous pericardium
B. Fibrous pericardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal serous pericardium,
myocardium, endocardium
C. Fibrous pericardium, parietal serous pericardium, pericardial cavity, epicardium,
myocardium, endocardium
D. Endocardium, myocardium, parietal serous pericardium, pericardial cavity, epicardium,
fibrous pericardium

A

A. Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal serous pericardium,
fibrous pericardium

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28
Q

The internal intercostal muscles:

A. Decrease the size of the thoracic cavity when they contract
B. Are deep to the neurovascular plane
C. Are innervated by the phrenic nerve
D. Are used in forced inspiration

A

A. Decrease the size of the thoracic cavity when they contract

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29
Q

In restrictive lung disease, it is usual for:

A. The FEV1/FVC ratio to remain unchanged
B. The FEV1/FVC ratio to increase
C. FVC to increase
D. FEV1 to increase

A

A. The FEV1/FVC ratio to remain unchanged

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30
Q

Which of the following is usually derived from the right coronary artery:

A. The circumflex branch
B. The anterior interventricular branch
C. The posterior interventricular branch
D. The coronary sinus

A

C. The posterior interventricular branch

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31
Q

Two patients present at the clinic with the following blood pressures:

Patient 1: 140/100
Patient 2: 120/80

Please identify the correct diagnoses for these patients where Patient 1 is first on the list and
Patient 2 is second:

A. Hypertensive, hypertensive
B. Normotensive, hypotensive
C. Hypertensive, normotensive
D. Normotensive, normotensive

A

C. Hypertensive, normotensive

32
Q

A decrease in the effective circulating volume can lead to:

A. Increased atrial natriuretic peptide release
B. Increased sympathetic tone
C. Decreased renal sodium reabsorption
D. Decreased renin release

A

B. Increased sympathetic tone

33
Q

The increase in affinity for carbon dioxide seen in haemoglobin immediately after giving up
oxygen is known as:

A. The Haldane effect
B. The Bohr effect
C. Henry’s law
D. Dalton’s law

A

A. The Haldane effect

34
Q

The kidney is surrounded by three layers. Starting from the outside (superficial) and working
towards the inside (deep), the correct order that the layers surround the kidney is:

A. Renal capsule, adipose capsule, renal fascia
B. Renal fascia, adipose capsule, renal capsule
C. Renal capsule, renal fascia, adipose capsule
D. Renal fascia, renal capsule, adipose capsule

A

B. Renal fascia, adipose capsule, renal capsule

35
Q

When using the sphygmomanometer, Korotkoff sounds can first be heard when:

A. Turbulent blood flow in the brachial artery corresponds to the systolic blood pressure
B. Streamlined blood flow in the brachial artery corresponds to the systolic blood pressure
C. Turbulent blood flow in the brachial artery corresponds to the diastolic blood pressure
D. Streamlined blood flow in the brachial artery corresponds to the diastolic blood pressure

A

A. Turbulent blood flow in the brachial artery corresponds to the systolic blood pressure

36
Q

Podocytes are:

A. The main filtration barrier
B. Positively charged
C. Phagocytic
D. The site of renin secretion

A

C. Phagocytic

37
Q

Which of the following is NOT found in the right ventricle:

A. Musculi pectinati
B. Trabeculae carnae
C. Papillary muscle
D. Chordae tendineae

A

A. Musculi pectinati

38
Q

Which of the following compensatory effects can be seen in response to the haemodynamic
changes caused by standing upright from a squatting position:

A. Increased parasympathetic nerve activity, leading to a decrease in venous return
B. Decreased parasympathetic nerve activity, leading to a decrease in cardiac output
C. Decreased sympathetic nerve activity, leading to an increase in blood pressure
D. Increased sympathetic nerve activity, leading to an increase in heart rate

A

D. Increased sympathetic nerve activity, leading to an increase in heart rate

39
Q

Regarding physiological shunting in the lungs, it:

A. Is minimised by regional reflex vasodilation
B. Arises when the blood supply to the affected area exceeds the ventilation rate
C. Decreases the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood leaving the shunt
D. Increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the systemic blood

A

B. Arises when the blood supply to the affected area exceeds the ventilation rate

40
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation will:

A. Increase the force of contraction of the heart
B. Increase the rate of contraction of the heart
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

D. Neither A nor B

41
Q

In cystitis, there is inflammation of the:

A. Renal pelvis
B. Bladder
C. Nephrons
D. Ureters

A

B. Bladder

42
Q

Flow of lymph through lymphatic vessels is aided by:

A. Vasodilation
B. The Gibbs-Donnan effect
C. Valves
D. Exhalation

A

C. Valves

43
Q

A 62-year old male reports that he experiences involuntary loss of urine occurring as soon as
he notices the need to void. Apart from a recent stroke, the patient is otherwise healthy.
What type of incontinence does the patient most likely suffer from?

A. Overflow
B. Stress
C. Urge
D. Functional

A

C. Urge

44
Q

The tunica media:

A. Is absent in arterioles
B. Contains smooth muscle cells
C. Forms the serosal layer of blood vessels
D. Forms the valves of the venous circulation

A

B. Contains smooth muscle cells

45
Q

During non-steady state exercise:

A. The efficiency of oxygen uptake from the lungs can halve
B. Blood flow to the kidneys increases
C. There is vasodilation of splanchnic vessels
D. Respiratory rate increases linearly with oxygen uptake

A

A. The efficiency of oxygen uptake from the lungs can halve

46
Q

The systemic vascular resistance increases if:

A. Vessel diameter increases
B. Vessel length increases
C. Viscosity of the blood decreases
D. Vessel compliance increases

A

B. Vessel length increases

47
Q

In a glomerular capillary, the plasma protein oncotic (colloid) pressure is usually:

A. 5mmHg
B. 25mmHg
C. 32mmHg
D. 12mmHg

A

B. 25mmHg

48
Q

Regarding HDL lipoproteins, they:

A. Form part of the exogenous lipid transport pathway
B. Are the largest of the lipoproteins
C. Can remove cholesterol from arterial atheromas
D. Contain fewer cholesteryl ester molecules than triglyceride molecules

A

C. Can remove cholesterol from arterial atheromas

49
Q

Which of the following is a narrow structure found either side of the foregut which fills as the lung buds subdivide?

A. Oesophagotracheal ridge
B. Oesophagotracheal septum
C. Ostium primum
D. Ostium secundum
E. Oesophageal atresia
F. Tracheosophageal fistula
G. Septum primum
H. Septum secundum
I. Pericardial cavity
J. Pericardioperitoneal canal
A

J. Pericardioperitoneal canal

50
Q

In week four, which of these structures separates the lung bud from the foregut?

A. Oesophagotracheal ridge
B. Oesophagotracheal septum
C. Ostium primum
D. Ostium secundum
E. Oesophageal atresia
F. Tracheosophageal fistula
G. Septum primum
H. Septum secundum
I. Pericardial cavity
J. Pericardioperitoneal canal
A

B. Oesophagotracheal septum

51
Q

The foramen ovale is the opening between the upper and lower limbs of which of these structures?

A. Oesophagotracheal ridge
B. Oesophagotracheal septum
C. Ostium primum
D. Ostium secundum
E. Oesophageal atresia
F. Tracheosophageal fistula
G. Septum primum
H. Septum secundum
I. Pericardial cavity
J. Pericardioperitoneal canal
A

H. Septum secundum

52
Q

Which structure gives rise to the valve of the foramen ovale?

A. Oesophagotracheal ridge
B. Oesophagotracheal septum
C. Ostium primum
D. Ostium secundum
E. Oesophageal atresia
F. Tracheosophageal fistula
G. Septum primum
H. Septum secundum
I. Pericardial cavity
J. Pericardioperitoneal canal
A

G. Septum primum

53
Q

Incomplete closure of which structure can occur if the atrioventricular cushions fail to fuse?

A. Oesophagotracheal ridge
B. Oesophagotracheal septum
C. Ostium primum
D. Ostium secundum
E. Oesophageal atresia
F. Tracheosophageal fistula
G. Septum primum
H. Septum secundum
I. Pericardial cavity
J. Pericardioperitoneal canal
A

C. Ostium primum

54
Q

In excess, which mineralocorticoid can cause hypertension?

A. Anti-diuretic hormone
B. Aldosterone
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide
D. Angiotensinogen
E. Adrenaline
F. Angiotensin II
G. Angiotensin I
H. Adrenomedullin
I. Angiotensin converting enzyme
J. Angiotensin III
A

B. Aldosterone

55
Q

Which substance is a 52 amino acid peptide and is natriuretic?

A. Anti-diuretic hormone
B. Aldosterone
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide
D. Angiotensinogen
E. Adrenaline
F. Angiotensin II
G. Angiotensin I
H. Adrenomedullin
I. Angiotensin converting enzyme
J. Angiotensin III
A

H. Adrenomedullin

56
Q

Which substance is an octapeptide, causes vasoconstriction and can cause high blood pressure?

A. Anti-diuretic hormone
B. Aldosterone
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide
D. Angiotensinogen
E. Adrenaline
F. Angiotensin II
G. Angiotensin I
H. Adrenomedullin
I. Angiotensin converting enzyme
J. Angiotensin III
A

F. Angiotensin II

57
Q

Which of these describes the volume of air not undergoing respiratory exchange residing within the conducting airways?

A. Tidal
B. Inspiratory reserve
C. Expiratory reserve
D. Residual
E. Inspiratory
F. Functional residual
G. Vital
H. Total lung
I. Anatomical dead space
J. Minimal
A

I. Anatomical dead space

58
Q

Which of these describes the volume of air that is exhaled during forced expiration?

A. Tidal
B. Inspiratory reserve
C. Expiratory reserve
D. Residual
E. Inspiratory
F. Functional residual
G. Vital
H. Total lung
I. Anatomical dead space
J. Minimal
A

C. Expiratory reserve

59
Q

Which of these describes the volume of one breath during quiet respiration?

A. Tidal
B. Inspiratory reserve
C. Expiratory reserve
D. Residual
E. Inspiratory
F. Functional residual
G. Vital
H. Total lung
I. Anatomical dead space
J. Minimal
A

A. Tidal

60
Q

Which of these describes the volume of air which can be inspired in addition to that inspired during quiet respiration?

A. Tidal
B. Inspiratory reserve
C. Expiratory reserve
D. Residual
E. Inspiratory
F. Functional residual
G. Vital
H. Total lung
I. Anatomical dead space
J. Minimal
A

B. Inspiratory reserve

61
Q

Which of the following is a lipid-containing plaque on the innermost layer of the wall of an artery?

A. Atheroma
B. Stenosis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
E. Red thrombus
F. White thrombus
G. Stroke
H. Unstable angina
I. Myocardial infarction with ST elevation (STEMI)
J. Arteriosclerosis
A

A. Atheroma

62
Q

Which of the following is the target for antiplatelet therapy?

A. Atheroma
B. Stenosis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
E. Red thrombus
F. White thrombus
G. Stroke
H. Unstable angina
I. Myocardial infarction with ST elevation (STEMI)
J. Arteriosclerosis
A

F. White thrombus

63
Q

Which of the following is a condition characterised by brief neurological dysfunction lasting no longer than 24 hours?

A. Atheroma
B. Stenosis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
E. Red thrombus
F. White thrombus
G. Stroke
H. Unstable angina
I. Myocardial infarction with ST elevation (STEMI)
J. Arteriosclerosis
A

D. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)

64
Q

Which of the following is a condition of the circulatory system, characterised by thickening and loss of elasticity of arterial walls?

A. Atheroma
B. Stenosis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
E. Red thrombus
F. White thrombus
G. Stroke
H. Unstable angina
I. Myocardial infarction with ST elevation (STEMI)
J. Arteriosclerosis
A

J. Arteriosclerosis

65
Q

Which of the following describes the narrowing of a vessel, often resulting in an audible bruit on auscultation?

A. Atheroma
B. Stenosis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
E. Red thrombus
F. White thrombus
G. Stroke
H. Unstable angina
I. Myocardial infarction with ST elevation (STEMI)
J. Arteriosclerosis
A

B. Stenosis

66
Q

Which of the following is a condition caused by production of two ureteric buds from a single mesonephric duct?

A. Renal agenesis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Renal hypoplasia
E. Pancake kidney
F. Urachal sinus
G. Bifid ureter
H. Ectopic ureter
I. Horseshoe kidney
J. Urachal cyst
A

H. Ectopic ureter

67
Q

Which of the following is a condition characterised by drainage of urine through the umbilicus?

A. Renal agenesis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Renal hypoplasia
E. Pancake kidney
F. Urachal sinus
G. Bifid ureter
H. Ectopic ureter
I. Horseshoe kidney
J. Urachal cyst
A

F. Urachal sinus

68
Q

Which of the following is a condition which, in females, can cause additional and constant urine drainage via the vagina or the vulvar vestibule?

A. Renal agenesis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Renal hypoplasia
E. Pancake kidney
F. Urachal sinus
G. Bifid ureter
H. Ectopic ureter
I. Horseshoe kidney
J. Urachal cyst
A

H. Ectopic ureter

69
Q

Which of the following is a condition caused by the fusion of the lower poles of the metanephric blastemas prior to ascent?

A. Renal agenesis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Renal hypoplasia
E. Pancake kidney
F. Urachal sinus
G. Bifid ureter
H. Ectopic ureter
I. Horseshoe kidney
J. Urachal cyst
A

I. Horseshoe kidney

70
Q

Which of the following is a condition caused by premature bifurcation of the ureteric bud?

A. Renal agenesis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Renal hypoplasia
E. Pancake kidney
F. Urachal sinus
G. Bifid ureter
H. Ectopic ureter
I. Horseshoe kidney
J. Urachal cyst
A

G. Bifid ureter

71
Q

A 2 year old presents with nocturnal onset SOB, audible laryngeal stridor, a barking cough and intercostal muscle recession. What is the likely cause?

A. Sinusitis
B. Perennial allergic rhinitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Tonsillitis
E. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
F. Acute epiglottitis
G. Influenza
H. Acute bronchitis
I. Community acquired pneumonia
J. Hospital acquired pneumonia
A

E. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis

72
Q

A GP sees a 72 year old female with a week long history of worsening SOB on exertion, fever, productive cough and green sputum. She has a CURB 65 score of 3. What is her condition likely to be?

A. Sinusitis
B. Perennial allergic rhinitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Tonsillitis
E. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
F. Acute epiglottitis
G. Influenza
H. Acute bronchitis
I. Community acquired pneumonia
J. Hospital acquired pneumonia
A

I. Community acquired pneumonia

73
Q

A 53 year old male smoker with SOB and wheezing, an irritating unproductive cough, chest discomfort and occasional crackles on auscultation is most likely to suffer from which one of the above conditions?

A. Sinusitis
B. Perennial allergic rhinitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Tonsillitis
E. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
F. Acute epiglottitis
G. Influenza
H. Acute bronchitis
I. Community acquired pneumonia
J. Hospital acquired pneumonia
A

H. Acute bronchitis

74
Q

A 4 year old presents with pyrexia, severe airflow obstruction, inspiratory stridor and drooling. Which condition do you suspect she has?

A. Sinusitis
B. Perennial allergic rhinitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Tonsillitis
E. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
F. Acute epiglottitis
G. Influenza
H. Acute bronchitis
I. Community acquired pneumonia
J. Hospital acquired pneumonia
A

F. Acute epiglottitis

75
Q

What is the most likely explanation for the following symptoms experienced by a 20 year old male: a three day history of frontal headache, nasal discharge, facial pain and tenderness?

A. Sinusitis
B. Perennial allergic rhinitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Tonsillitis
E. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
F. Acute epiglottitis
G. Influenza
H. Acute bronchitis
I. Community acquired pneumonia
J. Hospital acquired pneumonia
A

A. Sinusitis

Cardiovascular, Respiratory and Renal Systems (33 decks)

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