Forensic Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between

a) Filicide
b) Neonaticide
c) Infant homocide

A

a) Kiling of child < 18 year
b) Killing of baby < 24hrs old
c) Killing of infant in first year of life

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2
Q

Outline some characteristics of perpetrators of neonaticide

A
  • Mothers > Fathers
  • Unwanted pregnancy –> mother try and get rid of the baby and carry on with her life
  • Death may be violent but also neglect
  • Not always mentally ill
  • No sex difference in neonate
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3
Q

Outline some characteristics of perpetrators of infant homocide?

A

Risk factors
- Boys > Girls
- Past abuse of children
- Younger infants
- FHx of violence
- Personality disorder and/or depression

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4
Q

Outline the Pritchard criteria (1836 case law) dictating fitness to plead?

A

6 criteria:

  • Must be able to instruct his solicitor
  • Must understand the charge
  • Must be able to decide whether to plead guilty or not guilty
  • Must be able to follow court proceedings
  • Must know they can challenge a juror
  • Must be able to give evidence for their own defence

n.b
- If raised by the defence it must be established on a balance of probability
- If raised by the judge it must be established beyond reasonable doubt
- Originally devised for cases of intellectual impairment or disability however now only a third tend to have LD - majority have schizophrenia

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5
Q

How is a patient managed if they are unfit to plead?

A

Criminal procedures act (1991):
- Trial of facts
- Flexible disposition if facts are found however if murder charge mandatory admission to hospital
- Complete acquittal if no facts

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6
Q

Only a biological mother who kills her child < 12 months can be charged with or use BLANK as a defence

A

Neonatacide

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7
Q

When is a crime of murder committed?

A

A person of:
- Sound mind
- Unlawfully kills (not self defence of other justified killing)
- Any reasonable human creature
- In being (born alive and breathing through its own lungs)
- In the Queens Peace
- With intent to kill or cause GBH

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8
Q

Outline the ways manslaughter can be committed?

A

Voluntary:
1) Killing with intent for murder but partial defence applies - loss of control / killing in suicide pact / diminished responsibility

Involuntary:
2) Grossly negligent given risk of death and did kill - gross negligence or medical manslaughter

3) Conduct resulting in unlawful act involving a danger of some harm, that resulted in death, is manslaughter (‘unlawful and dangerous act manslaughter’)

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9
Q

What is pathological intoxication

A

Mania a potu

  • Rare legal defence raised when someone drinks small amount (that would not get others intoxicated) of alcohol becomes very intoxicated and acts out of character and has partial or complete amnesia

No slurred speech, no diplopia, no ataxia or moto-incoordination

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10
Q

Outline DSM-V criteria of antisocial personality disorder?

A

A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others occuring since age 15 as manifested by 3 of:

  • Failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviours
  • Deceitfulness as indicated by repeated lying or conning of others for pleasure or personal profit
  • Impulsivity or failure to plan ahead
  • Reckless disregard for the safety of self or others
  • Irresponsibility to sustain work or financial obligations
  • Lack of remorse as indicated by indifference to hurting others or stealing

The individual must be 18
There must be evidence of conduct disorder before 15

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11
Q

What score of the Hare Psychopathy checklist indicates psychopathy?

A

30/40

Includes two broad factors and four domains

Interpersonal/Affective
- Interpersonal
- Affective

Social Deviance
- Lifestyle
- Anti-social

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12
Q

Outline some findings from the Psychiatric Morbidity Survey of Prisoners (1997)

A

Personality disorders
- Any male on remand 78%, sentenced 64% vs. 50% female prisoners
- Anti-social personality disorder most common followed by paranoid (63% male remand, 49% male sentenced, 33% female sentenced) followed by paranoid for men/borderline for female

Self-harm and suicidal ideation:
- Self-harm and suicide attempts more common for remanded > sentenced prisoners
- Females > Males

Psychosis:
- Functional psychosis 14% males on remand, 10% males sentenced, 7% females

Most prisoners are male:
- 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%)
- 12,302 male remand prisoners
- 2,770 female prisoners (<5%)

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13
Q

How is violence defined in HCR-20?

A

Actual, attempted or threatened bodily harm that is wilful (or reckless if aware of potential consequences)

Includes: physical + psychological harm + threats

Excludes: self-defence, legally sanctioned violence e.g. sports/law enforcement, damage to property or animals except in an attempt to cause fear

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14
Q

Describe the domains and their individual factors on the HCR-20?

A

Historical (static)
H1 Violence (previous)
H2 Other antisocial behaviour
H3 Relationships (instability)
H4 Employment (problems)
H5 Substance use problems
H6 Major mental disorder (psychotic and mood)
H7 Personality disorder
H8 Traumatic experiences
H9 Violent attitudes
H10 Treatment or supervision response (prior supervision failure)

Clinical (dynamic)
C1 Lack of insight
C2 Violent ideation or intent
C3 Active symptoms of Major Mental Illness
C4 Instability (affective, behavioural, or cognitive)
C5 Treatment response (compliance and responsiveness)

Risk management (dynamic)
R1 Professional services and plans (are plans feasible)
R2 Living situation (exposure to destabilizers)
R3 Lack of personal support
R4 Treatment or supervision response
R5 Stress or coping
W
Each item is scored:
- 0: not present or not relevant to risk of violence
- 1: partially present - not fully present or inconclusive evidence
- 2: clearly present and relevant to their risk of violence

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15
Q

What type of risk assessment tool is HCR-20?

A

Structured professional judgement

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16
Q

What rate of individuals with psychosis commit homicide each year?

A

1 in 10,000

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17
Q

The peak age of offending for men and women is?

A

14 years & 40 - 50 years - women
17 - 18 years men

50% of indictable crimes are of perpetrators < aged 21
5M : 1F ratio for crimes

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18
Q

How much of UK serious crime is due to arson?

A

1% - rape and homicide and 3 x more common

80% are men
Higher frequency with LD and alcohol use
40% of arsons are started deliberately

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18
Q

For old age prisoners how many have a psychiatric diagnosis?

A

53%

30% had depressive disorder
30% had a personality disorder (8% ASPD)
1% had dementia

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19
Q

What percentage of men and women are victims of serious sexual offence in the last 12 month (inc. assault and rape)?

A

0.5% Women
0.1% Men

41% of sexual offences are for assault (inc. attempt), 30% for rape and others include voyerism, sexual offences with a minor

90% of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator

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20
Q

What crimes do individual with LD typically commit?

A

Property damage (sexual offences and arson also over-represented by individuals with LD)

Typically those with mild + moderate LD as less individuals generally have severe LD and crimes that involve planning are harder to arrange

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21
Q

What is the DUNDRUM tool?

A

A group of structured professional judgement tools that help to decide what level of therapeutic security is needed for forensic patients

Created at Central Mental Hospital in Dundrum
Dangerousness, Understanding, Recovery, Urgency, Manual

DUNDRUM-1Triage Security
DUNDRUM-2 Triage Urgency
DUNDRUM-3 Programme Completion
DUNDRUM-4 Recovery Items

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22
Q

Name a scale for assessing suggestibility?

A

Gudjonsson scale

23
Q

Name 3 approaches to assessing risk?

A

Unstructured professional judgement - general clinical opinion based on experience

Actuarial risk assessment tools - developed from research using static and dynamic factors gauges an individuals risk - often giving a score low, medium or high. Whilst may be helpful for groups for an individual the same score/conclusions may not apply

Structured professional judgement - combines professional judgement with consideration of structured static and dynamic factors

24
Q

Outline predictors of sexual re-offences?

A

Early age of onset
Prior sexual offences
Deviant sexual preferences
Diversity of sexual offences

Strongest - phallometric assessment (Hanson & Bussiere (1998)

25
Q

In DSM-V what is the minimum age to be diagnosed with a paedophillic disorder?

A

16 years

The perpetrator needs to be at least 5 years older than the victim. Described as 6 months or longer of recurrent, urges, fantasies or sexual behaviour towards a prepubescent child.

Note if the individual has not acted, has no guilt/shame and are not functionally limited by their disorder described as having “paedophilic sexual orientation”

26
Q

When can a diagnosis of Voyeuristic disorder be made?

A

> 18 years
At least 6 months of sexual arousal of watching unaware individuals undress or engage in sexual activity. The arousal is manifested in urges, behaviours or fantasies.
Harm needs to be caused - i.e. distress to the individual or witnessing an unconsenting individual

27
Q

The Butler report led to the?

A

Expansion of MSU - that there should be at least in each region

28
Q

What percentage of patients with MoJ restrictions re-offend within 2 years of leaving hospital?

A

7% for all offences

1% for grave offences
n.b those who are released from prison - 65% re-offend

29
Q

What is the VRAG?

A

Violence risk appraisal guide that assess risk of violence offence recidivism. Weighted system that calculates the weight on how individual differs from the base rate

12-items
- Revised Psychopathy Checklist score (PCL-R)
- Separation from either biological parent by age 16 (Except for death of parent)
- Elementary school maladjustment score
- Alcohol problems
- Never married
- Criminal history score for non-violent offences
- Failure on prior conditional release
- Age at index offence
- Most serious victim injury (from the index offence)
- Female victim in the index offence
- Meets DSM-III criteria for any personality disorder
- Meets DSM-III criteria for schizophrenia

30
Q

What is the RRASOR?

A

Rapid risk assessment for sexual offence recidivism

4 items for predictive risk of sexual assessment recidivism
- The number of past sex offence convictions or charges
- Age of the offender is less than 25
- Offender is unrelated to victim
- Gender of victim

31
Q

When are section 35 / 36 used in the cirminal justice system?

A

Utilised by the court

S35 - for the purpose of getting a report on an subjects mental health, diagnosis and fitness to plead - unable to be treated against will

S36 - for treatment - can be treated against will

Both initially last 28 days but can be extended to 12 weeks

32
Q

What is an interim hospital order used by the courts known as?

A

Section 38 - lasts 12 weeks and occurs at point after convicted but prior to sentencing

Can be treated against will and can be extended

33
Q

What options are available after a trial of trial of facts?

A
  • Absolute acquittal
  • Placed on probation or health supervision order (condition discharge)
  • Sentenced to prison
  • Hospital order - sometimes with guardianship or supervision order

n.b for supervision order the individual will receive support and treatment with the aid of a social worker

For guardianship order it is aimed to ensure the patient has care and protection > medical treatment (despite this it requires the patient to attend specific places, times place for medical treatment, occupation, education or training and live at certain place). RC approves 6 months, 6 months, yearly

34
Q

Outline the 3 areas of security relating to psychiatric hospital?

A

Physical - fences/locks, soft cutlery, glasses and sharp removals

Relational - good communication, meaningful activities - lack of this can reduce the impact of physical security

Procedural - searches investigating and learning from incidents, pre-employment checks and risk management

35
Q

Outline some structured professional judgement and actuarial risk assessment tools?

A

Structured professional judgement:
- HCR-20 for violence
- RSVP - risk of sexual violence protocol
- SVR-20 - sexual violence risk-20: assessing risk of sexual violence and guides targeting plans
- SARA - Spousal assault risk assessment guide (SARA)
- SAM - Stalking assessment and management

Actuarial:
- PCL-R - Hares Psychopathy Checklist
- SORAG - Sexual offenders risk appraisal guide (incorporates PCL assess violent recidivism in sexual offenders)
- RRASOR - Rapid risk assessment for sexual offence recidivism
- VRAG - Violence risk appraisal guide (entirely historical factors - 12 historical factors, predicts time specific risk of violence in offenders released from prison, Schz reduces risk)
- Static-99 (ten item tool to use to assess risk from sexual offenders of 18 years released into the community)
- Risk matrix 2000 (risk of sexual and non-sexual violence from sexual offenders)

VRAG and SORAG incorporate the PCL-R

36
Q

What types of false confessions are reported?

A

Voluntary false confession

Coerced-compliant confession

Coerced internalised confession

These may be due to situational or individual factors - assessing transcripts, vulnerabilities, cognitive status, intelligence and mental disorder

37
Q

What is the annual rate of homicide in those with Schizophenia?

A

1 in 10,000

Annual rate of homicide in the UK is 1 in 100, 000
Annual rate of Schz for conviction of violence is 1 in 150

38
Q

Name 4 dynamic factors (Thornton 2002) suggested to look for when assessing an offender?

A
  • Sexual interests - preoccupation and sexual preference for children
  • Distorted attitudes and beliefs (cognitive distortions, and beliefs supportive of rape)
  • Socio-affective management (emotional regulation and intimacy difficulties)
  • Self-management (poor problem-solving abilities and lifestyle impulsiveness)
39
Q

What proportion of people held in custody have a mental disorder?

A

35 - 40%

40
Q

Male to Female conviction rate for the UK is?

A

5 : 1

41
Q

Females with psychosis who commit homicide their victims are likely to be which age?

A

< 16 years

42
Q

The most common set up for homicide suicide act is?

A

Male perpetrator and female victim (intimate partner)

n.b many suicides occur following child homicides

43
Q

What percentage of stalkers act on their threats?

A

SPMM - 50%
Psych mentor - 10 to 33%

44
Q

What percentage of patients discharged from MSUs re-offend within 5 years?

A

1 in 3
1 in 6 for violent offences

25% re-admitted within 12 months

45
Q

What percentage of psychiatrists report being stalked in 1 year and at some point during their careers?

A

5 - 10% in 1 year
20% over career

46
Q

What percentage of elderly prisoners report difficulties with their mental health?

A

> 50%

47
Q

Is a sleep terror a sane or insane automatism?

A

Deemed sane - as likely not to recur

Sane automatisms - tend to be external causes not likely to reoccur i.e. hypoglycaemia due to an isolated episode (sleep terrors included here)

Insane automatism - are internal causes likely to reoccur i.e. epilepsy or brain tumour etc

48
Q

Stalkers are most likely to have what types of delusions?

A

Erotomania - delusion of love

49
Q

Among individuals who commit Arson which are the most recognised mental health diagnoses?

A

PD
Substance misuse
(Also LD and Psychosis)

50
Q

Name some evidence based treatments for individuals who commit Arson?

A

FIPP and FIP-MO

Firesetting Intervention Programme for Prisoners/Mental disordered Offenders

Based on CBT principles

51
Q

Threat-control-syndrome is?

A

Patients feel they are being threatened or controlled - can associate to violence

(Threat or control can result from delusions of passivity, command hallucinations, threatening content of hallucinations or delusions of influence)

52
Q

What do the terms Habeas Corpus and corpus delicti mean?

A

Habeas corpus - right to a fair trial

Corpus delicti - the facts of a case

53
Q

What did the Bradley report propose?

A

Report of over-representation of individuals with MH difficulties being in prisons & hospitals

Created concept of diverting people with MH from police stations to hospital and for NHS to take responsibility for these individuals with maximum 14 day wait to be transferred to a hospital

54
Q
A