Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BMS3 > Forensic Anatomy > Flashcards

Forensic Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

How many bones does the skull consist of

A

22; 8 neurocranium protecting the brain and 14 viscerocranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which fontanelles are seen in infants

A

Anterior, posterior, sphenoidal and mastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the function of fontanelles and when do they close

A

They allow for an infant’s head to fit through the birth canal and room for growth. They close after 12-18 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Premature closure of fontanelles is..

A

Craniostenosis, affecting 1 in 2000 births. Causes abnormal face shape and intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The 5 pathways of the middle cranial fossa are..

A
  1. Superior orbital fissure
  2. foramen rotundum
  3. foramen ovale
  4. foramen spinosum
  5. foramen lacerum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What travels through the superior orbital fissures

A

Oculomotor, trochlear, opthalmic and abducens nerves. opthalmic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through

A

foramen rotundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What passes through foramen ovale

A

mandibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What passes through the foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal artery and veins, one branch of the mandibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What passes through the foramen lacerum

A

no structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many pathways are in the posterior cranial fossa

A

Internal acoustic meatus
Jugular foramen
Hypoglossal canal
foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Facial and vestibulocochlear nerves run through which pathway

A

internal acoustic meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sigmoid sinus, glossopharyngeal, vvagus and accessory nerves pass through..

A

Jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel Virgin Girls’ Vaginas And Hymens

A
  1. olfactory
  2. optic
  3. oculomotor
  4. trochlear
  5. trigeminal
  6. abducens
  7. facial
  8. vestibulocochlear
  9. glossopharyngeal
  10. vagus
  11. accessory
  12. hypoglossal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

oculomotor nerve inneravates..

A

4 extrinsic eye muscles, pupillary sphincters and levator palpebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

trochlear nerve innervates..

A

superior oblique muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

abducens nerve innervates..

A

lateral rectus muscle, moving eye side to side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which nerve innervates the posterior tongue, external and middle ear, and salivary glands

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which nerve innervates all intrinsic muscles of the tongue (and some extrinsic)

A

hypoglossal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Osteometric point ‘mid-philtrum’ and ‘prosthion’ are located..

A

above upper incisors, in between the nose and upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

osteometric points: labrale inferiorus, mentolabial sulcus, pogonion, gnathion and menton are located..

A

below the lower incisors and dips, bumps and edges of the chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the two parts of the oral cavity

A

vestibule (cheeks) and oral cavity proper (inside the arches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many adult teeth are there

A 
32 in total. 
8 incisors (central and lateral)
4 canines
8 premolars (1st and 2nd bicuspids)
12 molars
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the 4 dental tissues are

A

enamel, dentine pulp and cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pulp contains

A

blood vessels and nerves, supplying teeth with water and nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Biting surfaces and front surfaces of incisors and canines are..

A

incisal and labial surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cervical surfaces of teeth are where..

A

teeth meet the gingival margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how do central and lateral incisors differ from each other

A

central incisor roots are shorter and stouter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what feature are used to identify a canine tooth

A

tusk like long roots and their mesial surface is shorter than their distal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Features of premolars are..

A

2 cusps
1 root
uppers are oval
lowers are circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

molars have..

A

multiple roots and multiple cusps.
uppers are asymmetric and have 3 roots (variably fused).
lowers have clear divisions and 2 long roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Deciduous teeth differ from permanent teeth by being..

A 
Smaller and whiter.
More opaque enamel.
More bulbous.
Pronounced cervical junction.
Shorter and narrower roots.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Permanent teeth start to erupt from age..

A
  1. First are central incisors and first molars. Lower teeth tend to erupt before their corresponding upper.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

wisdom teeth erupt from..

A

ages 18-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Larger bones and joint surfaces with stronger muscle attachments indicate..

A

male sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Shallow, low and broad pelvises are …, high and narrow are …

A

female and male. Male iliac crests and angular and sharply flexed whereas females are gently flexed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Broad, U shaped sub pubic angle is a trait of…

A

females. Males have narrow and v shaped angles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ante-mortem tooth loss can be seen by.

A

remodelling/obliteration of the tooth socket and movement of other tooth crowns to compensate. Hypereruption of the corresponding tooth may be seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does the pubic symphysis change with age

A

Young adults have ‘billowing’, horizontal grooves and ridges. With age, grooves become filled and margins thicken to develop a rim. Surfaces become pitted, porous and irregular. Ossific nodules and bony outgrowths expand. The face depresses. Rims start to erode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fusions of epiphyses and centres of ossification take place..

A

in early post-natal life (frontal bone, mandible and neural arches). Others mainly occur in adolescence and early adult life (clavicle and sacral bodies).

41
Q

animal bones differ from human bones by being..

A

heavier, denser, more polished, and greasier

42
Q

Microscopic degradation breaks down …

A

osteoid. The process is called bioerosion or diagenesis.

43
Q

How is bioerosion visualised

A

polarised light in a microscope can show reduction in collagen; healthy bones show birefringence (reflection of light by collagen).

44
Q

Prominent cheekbones and shovel shaped incisors are features of which ethnicity

A

asian

45
Q

All facial muscles originate from … and insert into … they are innervated by …

A

Muscles are located in subcutaneous skin originating from bone or fascia. All insert into the skin and are innervated by the facial nerve.

46
Q

the 2 orbital muscles are..

A

orbicularis oculi and corrugator supercilii. They are innervated by temporal and zygomatic branches.

47
Q

Orbicularis oculi has palpebral, lacrimal and orbital parts. Its function is..

A

to close the eyelids and drain tears.

48
Q

Orbicularis oculi originates from..

A

originates from the medial orbital margin, palpebral ligament and lacrimal bone.

49
Q

The corrugator supercilii originates from..

A

the superciliary arch. Its function draws the eyebrows together.

50
Q

The 2 nasal muscles are..

A

nasalis and procerus

51
Q

This nasal muscle originates from the maxilla and is split into transverse and alar parts

A

Nasalis

52
Q

This muscle originates from the nasal bone and pulls the eyebrows down

A

Procerus

53
Q

This muscle purses lips and brings them together, originating from the maxilla and other cheek muscles

A

Orbicularis oris

54
Q

The buccinator muscle is located..

A

between upper and lower molars. It pulls cheeks in and originates from the maxilla and mandible.

55
Q

This muscle originates from the parotid gland and pulls the lips horizontally.

A

Risorius

56
Q

The function of zygomatic major and minor muscles are..

A

to elevate the upper lip. They originate from the zygomatic bone

57
Q

Levator labii superioris originates from..

A

below the orbits. It deepens furrows around the nose and top lip

58
Q

Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi is located..

A

lateral to the nose. It dilates the nostrils and snarls the upper lip

59
Q

This muscle lowers the corners of the mouth

A

Depressor anguli oris

60
Q

This muscle raises corners of the mouth

A

Levator anguli oris

61
Q

Depressor labii inferioris moves..

A

the lower lip down (sulk) and originates from the mental foramen.

62
Q

Mentalis originates from..

A

below the lower incisors. It raises the lower lip to pout

63
Q

The 3 muscles of mastication are..

A

temporalis, masseter and medial+lateral pterygoid muscles

64
Q

The temporomandibular joint consists of..

A

mandibular fossa, articular tubercle (temporal bone), and head of the mandible

65
Q

The temporalis originates from … and inserts onto..

A

Originates from the temporal fossa and inserts onto the coronoid process of the mandible

66
Q

The function of the temporalis muscle and innervation

A

elevates and retracts the mandible. Innervated by mandibular nerve (CN V3)

67
Q

The masseter originates from … and inserts …

A

originates from the lower zygomatic arch and inserts onto the lateral ramus of the mandible

68
Q

function of the masseter

A

elevates the mandible and brings teeth together

69
Q

muscles of mastication are innervated by..

A

Trigeminal - mandibular division (CN V3)

70
Q

The pterygoid muscles have 2 heads each originating from…

A

maxilla, palatine and sphenoid bones

71
Q

pterygoid muscles insert onto..

A

ramus and neck of the mandible

72
Q

the pterygoid muscles help to..

A

protract and elevate the mandible, also moving it side to side

73
Q

After the facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus, it forms branches of:

A

Petrosal
Stapedius
Chorda Tympani
This leaves the ‘motor root’ remaining

74
Q

The motor root branches into 5 at the..

A

parotid gland

75
Q

The 5 branches of the motor root (facial nerve) are:

A 
Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Marginal mandibular
Cervical
76
Q

Which nerve innervates the skin of the face, mucous membranes and sinuses

A

Trigeminal nerve. The only motor fibres are in the mandibular nerve to innervate muscles of mastication.

77
Q

The trigeminal ganglion sits in the …

A

lateral cavernous sinus

78
Q

Opthalmic nerve innervates..

A

forehead, scalp, frontal and ethmoidal sinuses, upper eyelid and conjunctiva, cornea and nose

79
Q

The maxillary nerve innervates..

A

lower eyelid, conjunctiva, cheeks, maxillary sinus, nasal cavity, lateral nose, upper lip, upper teeth and superior palate

80
Q

Mandibular nerve innervates..

A

oral cavity, external ear, lower lip, chin, anterior tongue, lower teeth.
Motor supply to mastication muscles, digastric and mylohyoid muscles.

81
Q

Arterial supply to the head is from..

A

carotid and vertebral arteries

82
Q

External carotid supplies… and divides at the …

A

External carotid supplies external areas of the cranium. It travel posterior to the mandibular neck and divides at the parotid gland.

83
Q

branches of the external carotid artery are:

A 
superifical temporal
maxillary
superior thyroid
lingual
facial
ascending pharyngeal
occipital 
posterior auricular
84
Q

Which artery supplies blood to deep structures of the face

A

Maxillary

85
Q

Superficial areas of the face are supplied with blood by..

A

Superficial temporal and facial arteries

86
Q

What was the first human protein variation used in crime investigations

A

blood groups polymorphisms

87
Q

The main steps of ReFLP are..

A

DNA fragments are cut by restriction enzymes.
Fragments run on a gel with probe.
They are probed by Southern blot.
Probes bind to VNTRs and length of VNTR fragments is seen; no. of repeats is seen.

88
Q

Disadvantages of ReFLP are..

A

A large DNA yield is needed - not available at crime scenes.
High quality of DNA needed - not available,
Quality affects difficulty of reading matching bands.

89
Q

Single locus ReFLP was developed because..

A

low quality DNA affected difficulty in reading matching bands. Single locus simplifies interpretation, and uses a highly polymorphic VNTR.

90
Q

Single and multi locus FLPs both require large amounts and high quality DNA. What developed after this?

A

Adding PCR. This would allow degraded DNA to be amplified.

91
Q

PCR cant work for long strands of DNA. What is used to identify VNTRs instead?

A

Instead of probes, primers were used

92
Q

what are problems of PCR

A

Taq polymerase used cannot proof read DNA.
Excessive primers form primer dimers.
Primers can mis-prime.
Samples can be contaminated by other DNA.

93
Q

What measures DNA purity and how

A

UV spectrometry measure UV light absorbed by DNA bases. Readings tell us concentration and amount of protein. Ratio’s tell us purity.

94
Q

What came after the use of minisatellites/VNTRs and what are they?

A

STRs - short tandem repeats. These are smaller than minisatellites and highly variable. They work better on degraded DNA

95
Q

Because STRs are smaller, their presence on different chromosomes can be separated more easily. What does this mean?

A

This provides a more random distribution pattern, meaning the match probability will be lower.

96
Q

After STRs started being used, what came next?

A

Using multiple STRs in protocols: Quadruplex and SGM (second gen multiplex)

97
Q

Using multiple STRs has a match probability of..

A

1 in 50 million

98
Q

SGM Plus uses more STRs to achieve a Pm of 1 in trillions. How many STRs and how is it visualised?

A

11 dyes for 11 different STRs are used. This produces peaks of molecular weight (no. of repeats) and whether a sample is homo/heterozygous or mixed.

BMS3 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions